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XXXX Life Science and SIPCEP exam > Life Sciences > Flashcards

Life Sciences Flashcards

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1
Q

Which part of the digestive system is where water is primarily absorbed?

A

Colon

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2
Q

Which part of the nephron is where re-absorption takes place?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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3
Q

Correct order in the digestive process?

A

Ingestion, propulsion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption and elimination

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4
Q

Which part of the brain controls heart beat?

A

Brain stem, medulla oblongata

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5
Q

Which endocrine gland produces calcitonin?

A

Thyroid

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6
Q

Where do sperm cells mature?

A

Epididymis

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7
Q

The small intestine has 3 regions, in which order are they?

A

Duodenum – Jejunum – Ileum

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8
Q

Which endocrine gland produces oestrogen?

A

Ovaries

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9
Q

The definition of respiration is:

A

Exchange of gases

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10
Q

The urethra in females is approximately how long?

A

4cm

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11
Q

If the blood glucose concentration is too low, which hormone is released?

A

Glucagon

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12
Q

Internal respiration is the:

A

Exchange of gases between blood in systemic capillaries and body cells

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13
Q

What receptors are activated during the sense of smell?

A

Chemoreceptors

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14
Q

Which part of the eye is the clear window allowing light in?

A

Cornea

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15
Q

Which digestive accessory organ produces bile?

A

Liver

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16
Q

Which endocrine gland produces Melatonin?

A

Pineal gland

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17
Q

Which anterior pituitary hormone in females triggers ovulation?

A

Luteinising hormone (LH)

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18
Q

Where does the majority of nutrient absorption takes place?

A

Small intestine

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19
Q

The walls of the Gastrointestinal system consist of 4 main layers, which layer consists of epithelial cells?

A

Mucosa

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20
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

Testes

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21
Q

Which chamber of the heart is the largest?

A

Left ventricle

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22
Q

Where is insulin and glucagon produced?

A

Islet of Langerhans

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23
Q

Which structure surrounds the glomerulus?

A

Bowman’s capsule

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24
Q

Which type of diabetes does the body still produce insulin but cells can be resistant to the insulin?

A

Type 2

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25
Q

Which is the muscle layer of the pericardium?

A

Myocardium

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26
Q

Which endocrine gland produces noradrenalin?

A

Adrenals

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27
Q

How much of blood plasma is made up of water?

A

91%

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28
Q

How many ureters are there in a normal urinary system?

A

Two

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29
Q

What is the thin, smooth membrane which surrounds each lung?

A

Pleura

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30
Q

Which hormone is produced in the kidneys?

A

Erythropoietin

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31
Q

Erythropoietin stimulates:

A

Red blood cell production

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32
Q

Which type of bone is the sternum?

A

Flat bone

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33
Q

Which lymphocytes are involved in the production of antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

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34
Q

Which endocrine gland produces glucagon?

A

Pancreas

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35
Q

Which endocrine gland produces follicle stimulating hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary

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36
Q

Which part of the ear contains 3 small bones (ossicles)?

A

Middle ear

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37
Q

Where in the reproductive system does fertilization of the egg normally occur?

A

Fallopian Tubes

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38
Q

Layers of the skin

A

Epidermis, dermis, and the hypodermis

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39
Q

Which part of a neurone contains the nucleus?

A

Cell body

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40
Q

Which blood vessels have valves?

A

Veins

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41
Q

Glucagon stimulates:

A

Breakdown of glycogen in the liver

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42
Q

Hypothalamus is linked to posterior pituitary gland by:

A

Nerve fibres

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43
Q

Hypothalamus is linked to anterior pituitary gland by:

A

Blood vessels

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44
Q

What secretes oxytocin and ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary

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45
Q

The thyroid takes ______ from ingested food

A

Iodine

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46
Q

The two thyroid hormones

A

Tri-iodothyronine (T3)
Thyroxine (T4)

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47
Q

What is mitochondria’s role in a cell?

A

Energy supply

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48
Q

What are the ribosomes’ role in a cell?

A

Protein synthesis

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49
Q

What is rough endoplasmic reticulum studded with?

A

Ribosomes

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50
Q

Three types of muscle tissue

A

Skeletal, cardiac, smooth

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51
Q

The layers of pericardium of the heart (outside -> in)

A

Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

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52
Q

Which layer of the heart wall contains flat epithelial cells?

A

Endocardium

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53
Q

Period of heart contraction

A

Systole

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54
Q

Period of heart relaxation

A

Diastole

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55
Q

A myocardial infarction (heart attack) happens because of…

A

A lack of blood flow (and oxygen) to the heart muscle

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56
Q

What are the only vessels in which exchange of materials (oxygen and nutrients) between blood and tissues occur?

A

Capillaries

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57
Q

Three layers of an artery (outside-> in)

A

Fibrous connective tissue, smooth muscle/elastic tissue, endothelium

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58
Q

Diameter of a capillary

A

3-12 micrometres

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59
Q

Percentage of blood that is plasma

A

~55%

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60
Q

Percentage of blood that is erythocytes

A

~45%

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61
Q

BP normal range

A

Systolic - 90-140
Diastolic - 60-90

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62
Q

What are the functional units of the lungs where gas exchange takes place?

A

Alveoli

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63
Q

What is a cause of respiratory distress in premature babies?

A

Sufficient surfactant not produced until 28 weeks gestation

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64
Q

What happens is surfactant is absent or reduced?

A

Alveoli collapse on expiration, increased effort required for inspiration

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65
Q

What is external respiration?

A

Exchange of gases by diffusion between alveoli and pulmonary capillaries

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66
Q

What is diffusion?

A

Movement of gas from a high concentration area to a low concentration area

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67
Q

What occurs when the pleural is punctured?

A

Lung collapse (pneumothorax)

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68
Q

In inspiration, what happens to volume of chest cavity?

A

Increases

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69
Q

In inspiration, what happens to pressure in the lungs?

A

Falls below that of atmospheric pressure

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70
Q

On expiration, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles:

A

Relax

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71
Q

On expiration, pressure in the lungs :

A

Rises

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72
Q

The rate of diffusion is proportional to:

A

Surface area, difference of gas pressure on each side

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73
Q

How is the respiratory membrane of the alveoli ideal for gas exchange?

A

Very thin and a very large surface area

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74
Q

COPD is caused by:

A

Increased resistance or decreased compliance (elasticity)

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75
Q

In emphysema, lungs lose:

A

Their elastic recoil (decreased compliance)

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76
Q

In bronchitis, what is wrong with the respiratory tree?

A

Inner lining is thickened, increase in mucus and goblet cells

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77
Q

Gastrointestinal wall layers (outside - > in)

A

Adventitia, muscle layer, submucosa, mucosa

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78
Q

The adventitia is what in the abdomen?

A

Double serous membrane called the peritoneum

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79
Q

What secretes fluid to moisten and lubricate outer surface of GI wall?

A

Adventitia

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80
Q

What can swallowing also be called?

A

Deglutition

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81
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

The movement of a bolus through the lumen of the GIT by waves of alternate contractions in muscles

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82
Q

Gastric juice contains:

A

Mucus, hydrochloric acid, pepsin

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83
Q

What is the principal function of the stomach?

A

Break down proteins in food to polypeptides

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84
Q

How is the stomach GIT wall protected from gastric juice?

A

Mucus

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85
Q

What is the average size of the small intestine in an adult?

A

3-5 metres

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86
Q

What is the function of the duodenum?

A

Prepares food for absorption using villi

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87
Q

What is the function of the jejunum?

A

Absorption (using enterocytes)

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88
Q

What is the function of the ileum?

A

Absorption of vitamin B, bile salts and everything the jejunum didn’t get

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89
Q

Where is the pancreas located?

A

Upper abdomen, behind the stomach, in the spine

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90
Q

Where is the liver situated?

A

Upper right abdomen, just below diaphragm

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91
Q

The liver hold 13% of what?

A

Circulating blood volume

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92
Q

What does the liver produce?

A

Bile (up to one litre per day)

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93
Q

What does the liver remove?

A

Toxins from bloodstream

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94
Q

What does the liver metabolise?

A

Alcohol and some drugs

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95
Q

Where is the gallbladder?

A

Upper right abdomen, under the liver

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96
Q

Where does the gallbladder release bile to?

A

The duodenum (via common bile duct)

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97
Q

What does the gallbladder store?

A

Bile

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98
Q

What are the two categories of hormones?

A

Proteins and lipid

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99
Q

What influence cellular activities by binding to receptors?

A

Hormones

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100
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

Effector response decreases the effect of original stimulus

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101
Q

What should blood glucose levels be maintained at?

A

90mg/100ml

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102
Q

If blood glucose level is too high, what does the pancreas produce?

A

Insulin

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103
Q

Insulin increases the uptake of _______ into cells

A

Glucose

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104
Q

Insulin enhances the storage of ________ in the liver

A

Glycogen

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105
Q

Insulin inhibits the conversion of ________ and _______ into glucose

A

Amino acids and fatty acids

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106
Q

What is direct hormone release?

A

Levels of chemicals in blood act directly on endocrine gland

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107
Q

What is indirect hormone release?

A

Release of other hormones secreted by hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland

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108
Q

What does oxytocin act on?

A

Smooth muscle of uterus and milk ducts

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109
Q

What does ADH act on?

A

Kidneys, to reduce urine volume

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110
Q

What gland controls calcium levels in blood?

A

Thyroid and parathyroid

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111
Q

What does melatonin control?

A

Biorhythms

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112
Q

Which hormone does the thymus produce?

A

Thymosin

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113
Q

What function does thymosin help?

A

Development of immune system

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114
Q

What hormones do the digestive system produce?

A

Gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin

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115
Q

Which endocrine gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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116
Q

Endocrine gland secretions are discharged into the _____ or ______ directly

A

Blood or lymph

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117
Q

The peripheral nervous system is split into what two types of nerves?

A

Sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent)

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118
Q

What is the function of the neurone’s dendrite?

A

Convey information to neurone’s cell body

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119
Q

What is the function of the neurone’s axon?

A

Convey information away from neurone’s cell body

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120
Q

What is the function of the neurone’s nerve terminal?

A

Send messages to next cell

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121
Q

What is a neurone’s grey matter?

A

Cell body

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122
Q

What is a neurone’s white matter?

A

Axons and dendrites

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123
Q

How many neurones are involved in impulse transmission?

A

Always more than one

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124
Q

There is no __________ between neurones

A

Physical contact

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125
Q

What is a synapse?

A

The short gap between neurones

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126
Q

A nerve impulse arriving at the synapse causes the release of what?

A

Neurotransmitters

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127
Q

What do neurotransmitters bind to?

A

Receptors in the postsynaptic cell

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128
Q

What can postsynaptic cells be?

A

Neurone, muscle, gland

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129
Q

The effect on postsynaptic cell can be:

A

Excitatory or inhibitory

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130
Q

What two ways are neurotransmitters removed from synaptic cleft?

A

Enzyme breakdown,
Or transported back into presynaptic neurone

131
Q

What are the two types of motor (efferent) nerves?

A

Somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (involuntary)

132
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

Cardiac, smooth muscle and glands

133
Q

What two ways can the autonomic nervous system be divided?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

134
Q

Which nervous system reacts to emergency situations?

A

Sympathetic, with fight or flight response

135
Q

Which nervous system reacts to non-emergency situations to allow for rest and digestion?

A

Parasympathetic

136
Q

What three parts is the brain made up of?

A

Cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem

137
Q

Which part of the brain initiates and controls muscle contractions?

A

Cerebrum

138
Q

Which part of the brain coordinates voluntary movements, posture and balance?

A

Cerebellum

139
Q

What part of the brain controls breathing and heart beat?

A

Brainstem

140
Q

What is the relay between the spinal cord and higher brain?

A

Brainstem

141
Q

The spinal cord carries what information from body to brain?

A

Sensory (afferent)

142
Q

What is responsible for reflex actions?

A

Spinal cord

143
Q

What bones protect the CNS?

A

Skull and vertebrae

144
Q

What are the meninges?

A

Three membranes that envelop brain and spinal cord

145
Q

What three things protect the CNS?

A

Bone, meninges and cerebrospinal fluid

146
Q

What are the two broad categories of defence in the immune system?

A

Innate/non-specific and specific (immune system)

147
Q

What is the first line of innate defence?

A

Mechanical barriers (such as the skin, mucous membranes, mucus, hairs, gastric acid, lysozyme in tears, acid pH of skin)

148
Q

What are two second lines of innate defence?

A

Internal mechanisms (phagocytic (cell eating) white blood cells, antimicrobial proteins, fever) AND the inflammatory response

149
Q

What does the inflammatory response respond to?

A

Tissue damage such as cuts, burns, bacterial and viral invasion.

150
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of the inflammatory response?

A

Pain, redness, swelling and heat

Sometimes a fourth – loss of function is also included

151
Q

The inflammatory response results in:

A

Increased blood flow, dilation, increased permeability of blood vessels, exudation of fluids

Exudation = oozing

152
Q

What two distinguishing characteristics does the immune response have?

A

Specifity and memory

153
Q

Define “specificity” in relation to the immune response.

A

Each response is particular to the one particular foreign material that has caused it to occur

154
Q

Define “memory” in relation to the immune response

A

A second encounter provokes a much more rapid and vigorous immune response than that which was elicited on first exposure, thus causing rapid and successful elimination of the material

155
Q

Where are lymphocytes found in greatest density?

A

The bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes and thymus

156
Q

Where do B lymphocytes mature?

A

Bone marrow

157
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B lymphocyte

158
Q

B lymphocytes are involved in what immune response?

A

Antibody-mediated/humoral

159
Q

T lymphocytes are involved in what immune response?

A

Cell-mediated

160
Q

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus

161
Q

Which lymphocytes attack foreign material more directly?

A

B lymphocytes

162
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A substance on outer surface of cells, “a unique label”

163
Q

What on invading organisms provokes an immune response?

A

Antigens

164
Q

What are antigens usually formed of?

A

Big molecules - proteins or their derivatives

165
Q

What is an antibody also known as?

A

Immunoglobulin

166
Q

Each B lymphocyte produces only one particular _______

A

Antibody

This is capable of binding to only one antigen

167
Q

What is the lymphatic system comprised of?

A

An extensive network of blind-ended lymph vessels originating in interstitial space between cells

168
Q

Three main functions of the lymphatic system

A

Tissue drainage, fat absorption and immunity

169
Q

What three things does the lymphatic system consist of?

A
  • Lymph
  • Lymphatic vessels
  • Lymphatic tissue (nodes)
170
Q

What form does a lymph have?

A

Clear watery fluid

Fluid similar in composition to interstitial (tissue) fluid

171
Q

The lymph returns the small amount of _ that seeps into the interstitial space back to the circulation

A

Plasma protein

172
Q

All tissues have a network of lymphatic vessels except for ____ and ___

A

Bone and CNS

173
Q

Where are lymphatic capillaries found?

A

Close to nearly every cell in the body

174
Q

What is the function of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Collect up excess tissue fluid

175
Q

What is the function of larger lymph vessels?

A

Transport collected tissue fluid back to the veins of the CVS

176
Q

Which type of lymphatic vessel has valves?

A

Larger lymph vessels

177
Q

How are lymphatic ducts formed?

A

Lymph vessels joining together

178
Q

What are the three main types of lymphatic vessels?

A
  • Lymphatic capillaries
  • Larger lymph vessels
  • Lymphatic ducts
179
Q

What are the function of lymphatic nodes?

A

To filter and “clean” lymph before return to circulation

180
Q

Several ____ _______ will enter a lymphatic node, but only one ____ ______will leave the node

A

Lymph vessels

181
Q

Nodes contain many _________ and _________.

A

Lymphocytes and macrophages

182
Q

What does the lymph node remove?

A

Particulate matter

e.g. bacteria and cell debris

183
Q

Where are large nodes of lymphatic tissue present in?

A

Tonsils, appendix & small intestine

184
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced?

A

Bone marrow

185
Q

What is the structure and location of the thymus?

A

Large gland consisting of 2 lobes in the neck

186
Q

When is the thymus most active?

A

In childhood

187
Q

What is the largest lymph organ?

A

Spleen

188
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

Behind stomach

189
Q

Four functions of the spleen:

A

◦ Cleaning blood of microorganisms and old RBCs
◦ Storing blood
◦ Site where lymphocytes re activated
◦ Important site of blood cell production in foetus

190
Q

What is the composition of urine?

A

96% water, 2% urea and some sodium chloride

191
Q

What is the function of the ureters?

A

Transport urine from kidneys to bladder?

192
Q

What is the function of renin?

A

Blood pressure regulation

193
Q

What two hormones do the kidneys produces?

A

Erythropoietin and renin

194
Q

What is a nephron?

A

The functional unit of the kidney which produces urine

195
Q

Approximately how many nephrons are there per kidney?

A

One million

196
Q

In which part of the kidney is the nephron found?

A

Cortex and medulla

197
Q

How are the nephrons arranged?

A

In renal pyramids

198
Q

What is important for concentrating urine?

A

Loop of Henle

199
Q

Urine formed in the nephrons is collected where?

A

Renal pelvis

200
Q

What connects to the collecting duct of a nephron?

A

Distal convoluted tubule

201
Q

What are the three processes of urine formation?

A
  • Glomerular filtration
  • Tubular selective reabsorption
  • Tubular secretion
202
Q

What is and isn’t filtered in glomerular filtration?

A

Water & small molecules filtered, blood cells & plasma proteins are not

203
Q

What affects the filtration of blood through the glomerular capillary walls?

A

Blood pressure

204
Q

Where does blood arrive via in the glomerulus?

A

Afferent arteriole

205
Q

Where does blood exit via in the glomerulus?

A

Efferent arteriole

206
Q

How many litres of filtrate is formed per day in the glomerulus?

A

200 litres

207
Q

What is the typical blood volume for an adult?

A

5 litres

208
Q

How is it possible to form 200L of filtrate from only 5L of blood?

A

Only 1 L/day is typically excreted from the body as urine; the remainder is reabsorbed

209
Q

What is selective tubular reabsorption?

A

Reabsorption of important constituents of filtrate back into blood

210
Q

What is normally completely reabsorbed in selective tubular reabsorption?

A

Glucose

211
Q

Reabsorption of what substance is regulated to maintain balance in tubular reabsorption?

A

Sodium

212
Q

Tubular secretion is in the opposite direction to what?

A

Reabsoprtion

213
Q

Hydrogen ion secretion removes what?

A

Excess acid from body

214
Q

Hydrogen ion secretion helps control what?

A

Blood pH

215
Q

What is the normal blood pH in humans?

A

7.35 to 7.45

216
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) do to the collecting ducts?

A

Increases permeability of walls

217
Q

What is the effect of ADH?

A
  • Water reabsorption increases
  • Urine becomes more concentrated
218
Q

What is another word for urination?

A

Micturition

219
Q

What are the four layers of the bladder wall?

A

Outer, middle, detrusor muscle, inner

220
Q

What is the function of detrusor muscle?

A

It contracts to make the bladder empty

221
Q

How long is the urethra in males?

A

20cm

222
Q

What is the internal urethral sphincter?

A

A ring of smooth muscle at the exit of the bladder

223
Q

What is the external urethral sphincter?

A

A ring of skeletal muscle at the exit of the bladder

224
Q

What causes the relaxation of internal urethral sphincter?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

225
Q

What prevents unwanted urination?

A

Voluntary contraction of external urethral sphincter

226
Q

How is the desire to urinate felt?

A

Stretch receptors send signals to brain

227
Q

How does micturition happen in babies?

A

Bladder gets full, initiates a spinal reflex

228
Q

What are two causes of incontinence?

A
  • Damage to nerves controlling bladder
  • Disease of bladder or urethra
229
Q

What are two alternative names for the testes?

A

Testicles or gonads

230
Q

Where are the testes located?

A

Suspended outside the body in the scrotum

231
Q

Why are the testes suspended outside the body in the scrotum?

A

To maintain a suitable temperature conducive to sperm production

232
Q

What is the function of the vas deferens?

A

Transports mature sperm to the urethra

233
Q

What is the prostate gland’s function?

A

To produce and secrete fluid that mixes with sperm to create semen.

234
Q

What are the seminal vesicles attached to?

A

Vas deferens

235
Q

What do the seminal vesicles produce?

A

A sugar-rich fluid that provides energy to sperm

236
Q

What carries sperm out of the body?

A

Urethra

237
Q

How many sperm are contained per ml of ejaculate?

A

50 million to 100 million

238
Q

Most men produce around how many of ml per ejaculation?

A

1.5 – 5ml

239
Q

Where is DNA located in the sperm?

A

Head

240
Q

What is located in the midpiece of the sperm to give energy?

A

Mitochondria

241
Q

What is fertilisation?

A

The fusion of male and female gametes (sperm and egg)

242
Q

What is another word for sperm?

A

Spermatozoa

243
Q

What is another word for an egg?

A

Oocyte

244
Q

What is the result of the fusion of male and female gametes?

A

A zygote

245
Q

Egg cells always carry which chromosone?

A

X

246
Q

Close to labour, what happens to the cervix?

A

Softens and gets thinner,

247
Q

What causes labour contractions?

A

Baby’s head pushing down on the cervix and release of oxytocin

248
Q

What is grown in the uterus to help support a fertilised egg?

A

Endometrium

249
Q

What are the two phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular and luteal

250
Q

What happens to the uterine lining during the proliferative phase?

A

Regenerated - in preparation for a fertilised egg

251
Q

When is the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

Days 15-28

252
Q

Which part of the skeleton is the skull part of?

A

Axial

253
Q

Which type of shock is caused by anaphylaxis?

A

Distributive

254
Q

Which pulse rate is called tachycardia?

A

> 100bpm

255
Q

What provides UV protection to the skin?

A

Melanin

256
Q

Which structural level of organisation in the human body includes atoms and molecules?

A

Chemical

257
Q

Where would you find smooth muscle?

A

Walls of the digestive tract, bladder, various ducts, arteries and veins and other internal organs

258
Q

What controls skeletal muscle?

A

Somatic nervous system

259
Q

What type of muscle can also be called voluntary or striated muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle

260
Q

What controls cardiac muscle?

A

Autonomic nervous system

261
Q

What bone system form the axis of the body ?

A

Axial

262
Q

What bones are part of the axial system?

A

Skull, sternum, ribs and vertebral column

263
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Mono-nucleate bone forming cells

264
Q

What are the functions of osteocytes?

A

Bone formation, matrix maintenance and calcium homeostasis

265
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

Bone destroying (or bone-resorption) cells, responsible for remodelling bone when necessary

266
Q

What type of bone are the femur and tibia?

A

Long

267
Q

What type of bone are the carpus and patella?

A

Short

268
Q

What type of bone are the sternum and scapula?

A

Flat

269
Q

What type of bone are the vertebrae and maxilla?

A

Irregular

270
Q

Where would you find a sesamoid bone?

A

In a tendon

271
Q

What are five basic tissues comprising the musculoskeletal systems?

A
  • Bones
  • Ligaments
  • Cartilage
  • Skeletal Muscles
  • Tendons
272
Q

What are the two types of joint?

A
  • Structural – fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial
  • Functional – synarthroses, amphiarthroses and diarthroses
273
Q

What are the classification of joints from immovable to moveable?

A

Synarthroses, amphiarthroses and diarthroses

274
Q

What is an example of a ball and socket joint?

A

Hip joint

275
Q

What is an example of a hinge joint?

A

Elbow joint

276
Q

What is an example of a pivot joint?

A

Wrist joint

277
Q

What is an example of a gliding joint?

A

Intervertebral joints

278
Q

What is an example of a saddle joint?

A

Thumb joint

279
Q

What is an example of a condyloid joint?

A

Finger joints

280
Q

What is the largest and heaviest organ?

A

Skin

281
Q

What are the three layers of skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis/subcutaneous

282
Q

What is the epidermis made up of?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

283
Q

What many layers of epidermis does thick skin have?

A

Five

284
Q

What produces epidermal/skin colour?

A

Melanin

285
Q

What produces melanin?

A

Melanocytes

286
Q

The epidermis activates the synthesis of what?

A

Vitamin D3

287
Q

Where do hair follicles lie?

A

Dermis

288
Q

What is the dermis mainly made up of?

A

Dense connective tissue

289
Q

What is the hypodermis mainly made up of?

A

Loose connective and adipose tissue

290
Q

What specialised epithelial gland produces sebum?

A

Sebaceous gland

291
Q

What is sebum?

A

Oily mixture that keep hair and skin soft, pliable and waterproof

292
Q

What are sebaceous glands attached to?

A

Hair follicles

293
Q

What is a sweat gland also known as?

A

Sudoriferous gland

294
Q

What are the two types of sweat gland?

A

Eccrine and apocrine

295
Q

What do the eccrine glands respond to?

A

Heat

296
Q

What do the apocrine glands respond to?

A

Emotion

297
Q

What is hyperhydrosis?

A

Overactive sweat glands in hands, feet and armpits

298
Q

What causes hyperhydrosis?

A

Overactive nervous system

299
Q

What are the five special sense?

A

Sight, hearing, taste, smell, touch

300
Q

What part of the eye contains photoreceptors?

A

Retina

301
Q

What are the two types of photoreceptor?

A

Rod and cone

302
Q

What are the rods sensitive to?

A

Dim light

303
Q

What are the cones sensitive to?

A

Bright light and colour

304
Q

What is the name of the white of the eye?

A

Sclera

305
Q

What is the name of the smooth muscle which regulates pupil size?

A

Aperture, or pupil

306
Q

What focuses light on the retina?

A

Lens

307
Q

Where is the ciliary body found?

A

Behind the iris

308
Q

What is the structure and function of the ciliary body?

A

Ring-shaped muscle that changes the shape of the lens when the eye focuses

309
Q

What is the name of the fluid in the eye?

A

Humor

310
Q

Sound causes what to vibrate in the outer ear?

A

Tympanic membrane

311
Q

What part of the ear houses the cochlea?

A

Inner ear

312
Q

What sends information to brain about head position and contribute to maintenance of balance?

A

Semi-circular canals

313
Q

Where taste buds found?

A

Tongue, throat and epiglottis

314
Q

Where are the receptors for touch found?

A

Skin and mucous membrane

315
Q

What are the two types of touch receptors?

A

Meissner’s corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle

316
Q

What does Meissner’s corpuscle detect?

A

Light touch

317
Q

What does the Pacinian corpuscle detect?

A

Pressure

318
Q

Which blood vessel brings blood to the glomerulus?

A

Afferent arteriole

319
Q

Which layer of the skin are hair follicles situated?

A

Dermis

320
Q

What is the normal pH range of urine?

A

4.5-8

321
Q

Which are the 3 basic components of a control system?

A

Receptor, control center, effector

322
Q

During swallowing, which structure closes over the airway to protect from aspiration?

A

Epiglottis

323
Q

What type of tissue binds, supports and protects?

A

Connective tissue

324
Q

Which part of the ear amplifies the sound waves?

A

Middle ear

XXXX Life Science and SIPCEP exam (2 decks)

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