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Social Work Licensure > Licensure > Flashcards

Licensure Flashcards

1
Q

Social workers in this role are able to identify and clarify problems, explore resolution strategies, select the appropriate strategy, and develop the capacity to resolve problems.

A

Counselor

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2
Q

Social workers in this role link individuals and groups to resources and services

A

Broker

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3
Q

Social workers in this role act on direct behalf of individuals and groups.

A

Advocate

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4
Q

Social workers in this role seek institutional change on behalf of a disadvantaged group

A

Activist

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5
Q

A person handling emotions in a socially acceptable way, such as an angry person channels their feelings with boxing.

A

Sublimation

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6
Q

3 stages of Substance Abuse Treatment

A
  1. Stabilization
  2. Rehabilitation
  3. Maintenance
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7
Q

Closed, disorganized, stagnant, using up available energy

A

Entropy

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8
Q

Homeostasis

A

Steady state

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9
Q

Exchange of energy and resources between systems that promote growth and transformation

A

Negative Entropy

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10
Q

A lack of clarity of role

A

Role Ambiguity

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11
Q

The role is carried out in an expected way (parent-child role; social worker-client role)

A

Role Complementarity

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12
Q

The role expectations of others differ from ones own

A

Role Discomplementarity

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13
Q

When 2 or more individuals switch roles

A

Role Reversal

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14
Q

Incompatible or conflicting expectations of roles

A

Role Conflict

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15
Q

A treatment approach in which roles are enacted in a group context.. Members of the group re-create their problems and devote themselves to the role dilemmas of each member

A

Psychodrama

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16
Q

Stages of Group Development

A
  1. ) Preaffiliation : (developing trust)
  2. ) Power & Control : (struggles for individual autonomy)
  3. ) Intimacy: Utilizing self in group
  4. ) Differentiation: acceptance of each other as distinct individuals
  5. ) Separation/Termination: Independence
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17
Q

This occurs during group decision making when discussion strengthens a dominant point of view and results in a shift to a more extreme position than any of the members would adopt on their own.

A

Group Polarization

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18
Q

Clients have the capacity to grow, change, and adapt. (Strengths Perspective)

A

Humanistic Approach

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19
Q

Understanding individual behavior in light of the environmental contexts in which a client lives or acts

A

(PIE) Person-In-Environment Theory

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20
Q

Arises when a person has to choose between two contradictory attitudes and beliefs.

A

Cognitive Dissonance

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21
Q

Repeating noises and phrases. Associated with Autism

A

Echolalia

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22
Q

Id, EGO, SUPEREGO

A

Freud

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23
Q

Contains biological urges and impulses such as survival, sex, and aggression. Pleasure principles.

A

Id

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24
Q

Manages between the Id and the constraints of the real world.

A

Ego

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25
Q

The moral component of personality. It contains all morals learned from parents & society. Forces the ego to conform to reality and morality.

A

Superego

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26
Q

Behaviors that are insynct with the ego (NO GUILT)

A

Syntonic

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27
Q

Behaviors that are not insynct with the ego (GUILT)

A

Dystonic

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28
Q

5 stages of Psychosexual Development- Freud

A
  1. ) Oral
  2. ) Anal
  3. ) Phallic
  4. ) Latency
  5. ) Genital
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29
Q

The inability to progress normally from one stage into another

A

Fixation

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30
Q

From birth to 12 months, activities include sucking, biting, and chewing.

A

Oral Stage

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31
Q

Age 2, when the child is being potty trained. Actions include bowel movements.

A

Anal Stage

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32
Q

Ages 3-5, Genitals formed.

A

Phallic Stage

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33
Q

Age 5 to puberty. Sexuality is latent or dormant.

A

Latency Stage

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34
Q

Begins at puberty. Sexual urges return

A

Genital Stage

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35
Q

Who developed his own school of thought known as “Individual Psychology”? He believed that the main motivation for human behavior are not sexual urges, but striving for perfection.

A

Alfred Adler

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36
Q

Who created the concept of human development?

A

Erik Erikson

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37
Q

Who is associated with Cognitive Development?

A

Jean Piaget

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38
Q

This stage of cognitive development is from birth to 2 yrs.this is when babies gain knowledge about the world from their physical interactions with it

A

Sensorimotor

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39
Q

This stage of cognitive development is from ages 2-7. Children begin to engage in pretend play, they believe in in magical thinking or symbolic thinking, they are very curious about their surroundings

A

Pre-operational

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40
Q

This stage of cognitive development is from ages 7-11 years old. This begins the appropriate use of logic and beginning of abstract thought,

A

Concrete Operational

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41
Q

Risk factors that cannot be changed by interventions such as past history of violent behavior or demographic information

A

Static Risk Factors

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42
Q

Risk factors that can be changed by interventions such as living situation, treatment of psychiatric symptoms, abstaining from drugs and alcohol use, access to weapons.

A

Dynamic Risk Factors

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43
Q

What ethnic group may respond to psychotropic drugs differently than clients from other ethnic groups?

A

Asian clients. They typically require lower doses of mediations and may experience more severe side effects from the same doses given to other clients.

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44
Q

Refers to an individuals pattern of physical and emotional arousal towards other people. People do not choose it, is simply apart of who they are.

A

Sexual Orientation

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45
Q

Refers to sexual contacts or actions (What people do sexually) . It can be influenced by peer pressure, family expectations, cultural expectations, religious beliefs etc.

A

Sexual Behavior

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46
Q

Refers to the way people present their sexual preferences.

A

Sexual Identity

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47
Q

An orientation that holds ones own culture, ethnic, or racial group as superior to others

A

Ethnocentrism

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48
Q

A society in which diverse members maintain their own traditions while cooperatively working together and seeing others traits as valuable

A

Pluralism

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49
Q

an interconnectedness of persons across the world

A

Globalization

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50
Q

A structured way of observing and describing a clients current state of mind under the domains of appearance, attitude, behavior, mood and affect, speech, thought process, thought content, perception, cognition, insight, and judgement.

A

Mental Status Examination

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51
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to appearance

A

Facial expressions, grooming, dress, gait

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52
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Orientation

A

Awareness of time and place, events

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53
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Speech pattern

A

speech is slow, slurred, pressured, flat, calm

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54
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Affect/Mood

A

Mood as evidenced by behavior and clients statements (sad, jittery, mad, manic)

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55
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Impulsive/potential for harm

A

Impulse control especially suicidal thoughts or wanted to harm others

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56
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Judgement/iNSight

A

ability to predict the consequences of his or her actions, to make sensible decisions

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57
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Thought Processing/Reality Testing

A

delusions, hallucinations, psychotic

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58
Q

Mental Status Examination looks at what when it comes to Intellectual Functioning/Memory

A

level of intelligence and of recent and remote memory functions

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59
Q

The bodies transport system, organs that transport blood throughout the body. The heart pumps the blood and the arteries and veins transport it

A

Circulatory System

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60
Q

Organs that break down food into protein, vitamins, minerals, fats , in which the body needs for energy, growth, and repair.

A

Digestive System

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61
Q

A group of glands that produce the bodys long distance messengers or hormones.

A

Endocrine System

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62
Q

Bodys defends system against infections and diseases.

A

Immune System

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63
Q

Also a defense system for the body, it filters out organisms that cause disease, produces white blood cells, and generates disease fighting antibodies.

A

Lymphatic system

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64
Q

Tissues that work with the skeletal system to control movement of the body

A

Muscular System

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65
Q

The brain, the spinal cord, and nerves. It sends, receives, and processes nerve impulses.

A

Nervous System

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66
Q

Producing children, sperm of the male fertilizes the females egg

A

Reproductive System

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67
Q

Brings all the air into the body and removes carbon dioxide

A

Respiratory System

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68
Q

Bones, ligaments, and tendons, shapes the body to protect organs

A

Skeletal system

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69
Q

Eliminates waste from the body in the form or urine. The kidneys remove waste from the blood.

A

Urinary System

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70
Q

Existing with or at the same time, having two illnesses at the same time.

A

Comorbid

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71
Q

Not recommended or safe to use (A medication or tx would not be described because it could have serious consequences.

A

Contraindicated

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72
Q

False, fixed belief despite evidence to the contrary (believing something that is not true)

A

Delusion

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73
Q

Confusion with regard to a person, time, or place

A

Disorientation

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74
Q

Disturbance or change in the usually integrative functions of memory, identity, perception or consciousness.

A

Disassociation

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75
Q

Depression caused by a biochemical imbalance rather than a psychosocial stressor or external factors

A

Endogenous Depression

76
Q

Depression caused by external events or psychosocial stressors

A

Exogenous Depression

77
Q

hearing, seeing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real

A

Hallucinations

78
Q

elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that is less severe than full blown manic symptoms.

A

Hypomanic

79
Q

subsequent/after the onset of an illness

A

Postmorbid

80
Q

Prior/before the onset of illness

A

Premorbid

81
Q

experiencing delusions or hallucinations

A

Psychotic

82
Q

graphic representation of a family tree that displays interactions of generations within a family

A

Genogram

83
Q

Present when there are two or more disorders occurring at the same time. For example, clients may have one or more disorders relating to the use of alcohol and or other drugs.

A

Co-occurring Disorders

84
Q

Slurred speech

A

dysarthria

85
Q

Term used to describe physical disorders that impair mental function. Examples Alzheimer’s disease, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, Parkinson’s disease.

A

Organic brain syndrome

86
Q

Prescribed to treat a variety of mental health problems and typically work by changing the amounts of important chemicals in the brain called neurotransmitters. Used to treat disorders such as Schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.

A

Psychotropic medications

87
Q

Used for treatment of schizophrenia and Mania

A

Antipsychotics

88
Q

Antipsychotics used for the treatment of schizophrenia and mania

A

Haldol
Loxitane
Mellaril
Moban

89
Q

Used for the treatment of bipolar disorders.

-depakene
-lamictal
-lithium
Topamax

A

Antimanic agents (mood stabilizers)

90
Q

Used for the treatment of depressive disorders

  • Zoloft
  • Prozac
  • Paxil
  • celexa
A

Antidepressants

91
Q

Class or drugs used for treating anxiety

  • Ativan
  • buspar
  • klonopin
  • Valium
A

Benzodiazepines

92
Q

Used for the treatment of attention definicit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

-Adderall
-concerta
-dexedrine
Ritalin

A

Stimulants

93
Q

Medication used to treat heart disease or heart failure

A

Diovan

94
Q

Sterile solution of insulin glargine for use as a subcutaneous injection for diabetes

A

Lantus

95
Q

High blood pressure medication

A

Lisinopril

96
Q

Used to control seizures and fibromyalgia

A

Lyrica

97
Q

A 21 item test that assesses the presence & degree of depression in adolescents and adults

A

Beck Depression Inventory

98
Q

An objective verbal inventory designed as a personality test for the assessment of psychopathology consisting of 550 statements 16 of which are repeated.

A

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

99
Q

Designed to measure a child’s intellectual and cognitive ability

A

Wechsler Intelligence Scale

100
Q

An influence that is irregular, affects relatively few people, and does not follow a predictable timetable.

A

Non-normative Influence

101
Q

A typical influence that is average, examples are starting kindergarten.

A

Normative Influence

102
Q

Refers to an influence that is particular to a certain historical era, such as the great depression.

A

History Graded Influence

103
Q

Refers to an influence that is fairly predictable when they occur, such as a baby learning to walk and talk.

A

Age Graded Influence

104
Q

What type of assessment uses empathy and client centered skills and helps clients determine their needs and strengths?

A

Biopsychosocial Assessment

105
Q

What type of assessment formulate hypotheses about the clients behavior, capabilities, and personality?

A

Psychosocial Assessment

106
Q

What type of assessment looks at how a client interacts with others or acts in social situations?

A

Sociological Assessment

107
Q

What type of assessment involves conducting systemic interviews and developing and instituting systemic interventions?

A

Systemic Assessment

108
Q

Charlotte is a social worker practicing in a hospital. She meets her client Frank, who has been admitted for a bullet wound sustained in the community. Though she had a originally sympathized with him, upon hearing that he is a drug dealer she takes a different view and has intensely negative attitude towards him. What is Charolette exhibiting?

A

Universalism

109
Q

A value set that teaches that there is one acceptable standard for all human behavior regardless of environment or social circumstances

A

Universalism

110
Q

Steps of intervention planning

A
  • engagement
  • assessment
  • planning
  • intervention
  • evaluation
  • termination
111
Q

The generalization or normalization of behavior

A

Universalization

112
Q

Stating problem in a different way so a client can see possible solutions

A

Reframing

113
Q

In social work research, after the problem has been identified, what should a research do next?

A

Literature Review

114
Q

Steps of research

A

Identify the problem -> Literature review -> Hypotheses formed & data design formulated -> describing analytical methods

115
Q

Disorder associated with nightmares, severe anxiety, flashbacks, and uncontrollable thoughts.

A

Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

116
Q

Disorder associated with split identities

A

Dissociative Identity Disorder

117
Q

Disorder associated with depression, hopelessness, low productivity, and low self esteem.

A

Persistent Depressive Disorder

118
Q

Suffered an accident that leads to trouble with concentration, feeling of “fuzziness” and memory problems.

A

Traumatic Brain Injury

119
Q

In what type of family system are members most likely to form coalitions?

A

Disengaged families

120
Q

Those in which family members are emotionally distant from one another and make it difficult to connect in a meaningful way. Members are more likely to form coalitions, which are alignments of specific family members against other family members.

A

Disengaged families

121
Q

Those in which family members are opposites of coalitions and get along nicely

A

Enmeshed Families

122
Q

the realization that people and things continue to exist even when they cannot be seen or heard. example: baby may not know that his mother exists when the mother leaves the room

A

Object Permanence

123
Q

The emotional bond that exists between a child and his/her caregivers.

A

Attachment

124
Q

A technique used by social workers in which clients are instructed to recreate situations exactly as they occurred. This is a way social workers can gather information on which to base their assessments.

A

Enactment

125
Q

Refers to the tendency of adolescents to develop an inflated opinion of their own importance because they are sure others are observing them.

A

Personable Fable

126
Q

Three general areas of psychological development in a human being:

A
  1. ) Cognitive Development (mental skills)
  2. ) Affective Development (Interpersonal relations)
  3. ) Psychomotor Development ( interaction of the individual with their physical environment through action).
127
Q

When should a social worker best terminate services?

A

When the social worker determines there is no benefit

128
Q

What theorist is responsible for first introducing the idea of operant conditioning?

A

B.F. Skinner

129
Q

The concept that behavior and learning are based on consequences and can be shaped by changing these consequences.

A

Operant Conditioning

130
Q

What theorist is responsible for introducing classical conditioning?

A

Pavlov

131
Q

What theorist was the founders of the humanistic approach to psychology and created client centered, student centered, and person centered counseling approaches?

A

Carl Rogers

132
Q

A technique that involves family members physically arranging each other in order to represent the family relationships towards one another during specific situations. This technique allows for family members to nonverbally communicate their feelings.

A

Family Sculpting

133
Q

Technique that involves having a family list three generations of their family.

A

Genogram

134
Q

A technique that involves turning a family negative behaviors into a positive behavior.

A

Reframing

135
Q

If a social worker uses indirect practice, who do they work with?

A

Organizations

136
Q

Indirect social work practice involves working with agencies, organizations, and administration in order to effect a change on a greater level

A

Indirect social work practice

137
Q

What type of social work practice evaluation has to do with the process of service delivery?

A

Formative Evaluation. FE seeks to steer the process of service delivery with an assessment BEFORE services are complete.

138
Q

What type of social work practice evaluation seeks to improve service delivery AFTER services have ended by preparing to do better next time?

A

Summative Evaluation

139
Q

How much information should a social worker solicit from a client?

A

The minimum necessary to provide services

140
Q

When one detects an effect that was not actually present.

A

Type 1 Statistical Research Error

141
Q

A failure to reject a null hypothesis that is false. It is the failure to detect an affect that is ACTUALLY present

A

Type 2 Statistical Research Error

There is no type 3 or 4 error

142
Q

Borderline personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, histrionic, and antisocial.

A

Cluster B Personality Disorder

143
Q

Paranoid personality disorder, Schizoid Personality Disorder, Schizotypal

A

Cluster A Personality Disorder

144
Q

Avoidant dependent, and Obsessive Compulsive

A

Cluster C personality disorder

(no such thing as cluster D

145
Q

Refers to drawing on several different theories instead of just one and what one feels is most appropriate

A

Eclectic Approach

146
Q

According to the DSM-5, during what time in a persons life are symptoms of autism spectrum disorder usually recognized?

A

In the 2nd year of life, between the ages of 12 and 24 months.

147
Q

Which of the following instruments is comprised of a set of pictures and a prompt to make up a story about them?

A

Thematic Apperception Test

148
Q

Intricate 550 question test of personality

A

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

149
Q

A projective test involving the perceptions of the client about a neutral visual stimulus

A

Rorschach Inkblot Test

150
Q

A personality test consisting of 16 independent dimensions including extraversion and introversion

A

Myers-Briggs Type

151
Q

What are the goals of structural family therapy?

A

Resolving immediate symptoms, creating structural change, and increasing and preserving the mutual support among family members.

152
Q

Stages of change

A
  1. ) Precontemplation (First understanding that they have a problem.
  2. ) Contemplation: individul is considering the act of fixing the issue
  3. )Preparation/determination: when the individual decided to change
153
Q

Tourettes syndrome is a ____ disorder

A

Neurodevelopmental

154
Q

Selective mutism is a _____ disorder

A

anxiety

155
Q

Conversion disorder is a ______ disorder

A

Somatic symptom & related disorders

156
Q

_____ ________ Refers to organizations that develop their own mixture of values, presumptions, standards, and practices regarding how things should be done until it becomes a habit

A

Cultural Perspective

157
Q

______ Refers to the gathering of many different kinds of resources through fiscal means such as the collection of revenue or the writing of grants or financial resources

A

Acquisition

158
Q

The way in which resources are distributed to achieve maximum benefit

A

Allocation

159
Q

Which theorist said learning is a product of observation and response to the social environment?

A

Bandura

160
Q

This act states that no person regardless of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from, denied of benefits, or suffer from discrimination under any program receiving financial assistance. It desegregated schools and public buildings.

A

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

161
Q

This act offers services to older americans, it established the administration on aging, & offers supportive services for individuals over the age of 60.

A

The Older Americans Act of 1965 (OAA)

162
Q

This act is the key legislation for addressing child abuse and neglect.

A

The Child Abuse Prevention & Treatment Act of 1974

163
Q

This act protects the privacy of educational records.

A

The Family Educational Rights & Privacy Act of 1974

164
Q

This act guarantees a free, appropriate public education to all children with disabilities b/w the ages of 3 and 21. Children are given “IEP’s”.

A

The Education for all Handicapped Children Act of 1975

165
Q

This act gives American Indian/Native American or organizations jurisdiction over child welfare cases.

A

The Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978

166
Q

This act focuses on family and preservation efforts to keep families together & children out of foster care

A

The Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980

167
Q

This act prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability, Requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities.

A

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990.

168
Q

This act specified that facilities must inform clients of their rights to make decisions concerning their own health care.

A

The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1991

169
Q

This Act requires employers ti provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job protected leave to eligible employees for certain family & medical reasons w/continuation of group health insurance coverage as if the employee had not taken leave

A

The Family & Medical Leave Act of 1993 (FMLA)

170
Q

This act improved the criminal justice response to the violence against women by strengthening penalties for repeat sex offenders & creating a federal “rape shield law” to prevent offenders from using victims past sexual conduct against them during a rape trial.

A

The Multiethnic Placement Act of 1994

171
Q

This Act assists families with children when the parents or other responsible relatives cannot provide for the family’s basic needs.

A

TANF, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families

172
Q

Provides individuals with access to their medical records & more control over how their personal health information is used & disclosed

A

HIPAA - Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act of 1996

173
Q

This act curbs rising health care costs, provides more oversight of health insurance premiums & practices

A

The Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act of 2010

174
Q

3 Main types of prevention Strategies:

A
  1. ) Primary
  2. ) Secondary
  3. ) Tertiary
175
Q

What PREVENTION STRATEGY deals with preventing people from acquiring a disease or experiencing a problem (pREVENTION FROM HIV)

A

Primary

176
Q

wHAT prevention strategy is about mitigating the harm of a condition after it is already in place

A

Secondary

177
Q

What prevention strategy is directed at managing the long-term consequences of acquired conditions (such as HIV)

A

Tertiary

178
Q

According to Bowlby, what age range best fits the description of the age range most critical to attachment & bonding?

A

0-5 years

179
Q

Having a lower educational level, being african american, & experiencing poverty in the past are all risk factors for what?

A

Being in poverty

180
Q

What therapeutic communication technique best describes attempts to show identification with a clients issues through response, posture, & engagement?

A

Active Listening

181
Q

The technique of normalizing & affirming a client presentation

A

Validating

182
Q

Showing a client that they are welcomed and well thought of

A

Positive Regard

183
Q

What is the word that means a biased belief that an individuals own cultural group is central & more important than other cultural groups?

A

Ethnocentrism

184
Q

A two step process in which there is a demonstration with the expectation that the behavior will be demonstrated by the participant

A

Participant Modeling

185
Q

This modeling refers to watching a person perform a desired behavior

A

Live Modeling

186
Q

This type of modeling uses media such as film to show the desired behavior

A

Symbolic Modeling

187
Q

This modeling draws upon imagination and visualizaion to help the client see themselves doing the desired behavior

A

Covert Modeling

Social Work Licensure (1 decks)

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