Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Tattoo Licensing > Licensing > Flashcards

Licensing Flashcards

1
Q

When the armature bar is flat on the front coil, what is the smallest gap above the rear coil

A

.010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a smaller gap above the rear coil cause

A

More power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should armature bars be made of

A

Plain steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does a machine run if too much of the coil core is showing

A

Hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of edges should your contact screw have

A

Rounded and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where on the front spring should the contact screw be hitting

A

Front or End of spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What length of spring would run faster

A

Short spring with a high angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of metal should the contact screw be made of to have the highest conductivity

A

Brass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the armature bar hit the front coil core

A

Flat, full contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do you want the front on your tattoo machine to be

A

Non-conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens when your machine is conductive or electrified

A

The armature bar sticks to the coils causing the machine to stay in an ‘on’ setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What diameter should your binding post be

A

5/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens if you use a steel contact screw

A

it can cause an unwanted spark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when setting up your machine, why would you ‘snug’ down the eye of the needle bar

A

this helps to prevent weak and jumpy lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why is a one-piece contact screw the best choice

A

screws with things added on top can add to the vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the two advantages to using a brass contact screw

A

100% conductive and keeps its shape longer than other choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how much of the contact screw needs to be touching the front spring

A

a tiny contact area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why should you use plain steel for a spring rather than a coated spring

A

the coating wears away quickly, which causes a bad connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what kind of reaction can you expect from a machine with a very low spring angle

A

spongy and weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which type of machine benefits the best from a shorter spring

A

a liner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which spring is the most important for tuning the machine

A

the rear spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a machine that is very hard hitting and fast running moves the needle in and out of the skin so fast that
_________

A

it doesn’t leave enough pigment behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the ideal width of the springs used on the machine

A

the springs should be just as wide as the part that they are attached to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what types of screws should you use to hold the coils to the frame

A

always use a magnetic screw that sits flush to the frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the function of the tube vise

A

to firmly hold the tube in place and properly align the tube while the machine is in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how should a tube vise hold a tube in comparison to the machine

A

squarely front to back and side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the most important part of a tattoo machine

A

coils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the purpose of the coils of a tattoo machine

A

to constantly run and not lose power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a possible reason for the machine to not work at all

A

there is debris between the contact screw and the front spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what can cause the coils to be in a constant ‘on’ position

A

a coil wire, soldering lug or any of the electrical circuit is touching the frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does your frame act as for the coil circuit

A

the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is not a purpose of the binding posts

A

electrical contact from the soldering lugs to the contact screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is a safety feature of the cartridge needles

A

if the cartridge is not installed the machine or tube, then the needles are not exposed; this limits the possibility of needle stick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does EPA stand for

A

Environmental Protection Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does FDA stand for

A

Food and Drug Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does ‘high level disinfectant’ mean

A

a chemical agent, registered with the EPA, which has demonstrated tuberculocidal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

‘Office’ in the tattoo laws refers to what

A

Health licensing Office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What attributes does a container have to have to be considered a ‘sharps’ container

A

puncture-resistant, leak proof, labeled with a biohazard symbol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how many hours are part of the tattoo licensing program

A

360 hours consisting of 210 theory hours and 150 practical hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does a completed procedure mean

A

a tattoo which has been finished on a live human being, including any touchups or additional work following initial healing, and the client is released from service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how long is a tattoo license active for

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what documents does one have to have to apply for a tattoo license

A

completed application, bb pathogen training certificate, cpr/first aid training certificate, government issued ID, second form of ID, high school diploma or GED and training from a tattoo program approved by the higher education coordinating comission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how long is a temporary tattoo license good for

A

not to exceed 30 consecutive calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how man times in a 12-month period can one person apply for a temporary tattoo license

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how often does a license tattoo artist need to renew their license

A

once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A license can be inactive for how long before it is considered an expired license

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how many hours of continuing education does a licensee have to complete in 1 year

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how many hours of continuing education can be self-study

A

5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

cpr, first-aid, and bb pathogens training can be counted as continuing education in which instance

A

Never, this is a condition of renewal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how many hours of continuing education can be carried forward to the next renewal cycle

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how long does a licensee have to submit proof of continuing education if they receive an audit letter from the Health Licensing Office

A

30 calendar days from the date of issuance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In what instance can you used expired ink in a tattoo procedure

A

this is always prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

where must a tattoo artist buy inks, dyes, or pigments from

A

a commercial supplier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

if not using disposable stencils, how must one clean a plastic or acetate stencil

A

the licensee must thoroughly clean, rinse, and immerse in high-level disinfectant according to the manufacturer’s instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Prior to beginning the procedure, a client’s skin must be thoroughly clean with what type of chemical

A

an antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

once a tattoo procedure is complete, what must be used to clean the skin

A

a single use paper product saturated with an antiseptic solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what must be used to cover the tattoo once the procedure is complete

A

a clean absorbent material or bandage intended to cover the wounds to prevent the spread of blood or other potentially infections materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in what instance can a person under the age of 18 get a tattoo

A

the person must have a physician’s statement for a medical tattoo procedure (ex; scar camouflaging)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

when should you do a tattoo on a person showing signs of being inebriated or appears to be incapacitated from the use of drugs or alcohol

A

this is never to be done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

in what instance would it be permitted to tattoo someone that comes into the facility with a sunburn?

A

only if the sunburn is not at all in the area of the tattoo placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

when is it permitted to tattoo a person under the age of 18 that does not have a physician’s statement?

A

never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

if a client comes in wanting for the licensee to remove a tattoo, in what instance is this permitted?

A

only if the tattoo artist is licensed in the appropriate field of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

when the health licensing office comes into the facility for an inspection, if they find something worthy of being cited for, who is responsible and receives the citation?

A

all license holders within the facility may be cited for violations found in the common area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

who is responsible for maintaining all equipment and instruments that tattoo in the facility?

A

Every artist that uses the equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how are chemicals to be stored in the facility?

A

in labeled and closed containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

when tattooing a client, we are required to use what items that are single use only?

A

paper products, needles, gloves, and any other single use only products?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when is it permitted to use a restroom sink as the main hand washing station within a facility before proceeding with a service?

A

this is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

when is the use of towels and linens permitted during a procedure?

A

this is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when a tattoo is completed, how should the waste be disposed of?

A

all waste material related to a service must be enclosed in a bag, then disposed of in a covered container with a garbage liner following every service on a client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

when should service related waste be disposed of in a common area, such as the lobby or waiting area?

A

this practice is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

all sharp objects must be disposed of in a sharp’s container, which item would NOT need to be disposed in a sharps container?

A

razor blade with the original blade cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

when does a waste receptacle require a biohazard label or red biohazard bag?

A

The waste receptacles in the service area that will be utilized to dispose of biohazard waste from the service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what animals are permitted to be in the facility?

A

service animals recognized by the American with disabilities act, fish in aquariums, or nonpoisonous reptiles in terrariums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

in what instance can a licensee use a stainless-steel reusable tube on more than one client?

A

once it has been sterilized using the ultrasonic and autoclave, and stored properly until the next use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

in what instance can a licensee use a disposable tube on more than one client

A

this is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

when should you rinse bottles, grips and clip cords be covered?

A

for every single tattoo procedure being done in the facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

when is it permitted to use regular tap water in the rinsing bottles

A

This is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

when diluting inks, dyes, or pigments; what can be used as a diluting agent?

A

distilled or sterilized water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how should inks, dyes, or pigments be stored?

A

in a closed cabinet or drawer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

when is eye protection, shields, or a mask required?

A

only when splattering is possible while providing a service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what must happen with all substances used during procedure once it is completed?

A

all substances must be dispensed in a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure to prevent cross contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

in what instance can a licensee reuse a container or applicator used during a procedure?

A

this is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A licensee must use how many pairs of gloves for each step of the procedure

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

how many total pairs of gloves are required for each procedure

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what are the proper steps to washing your hands

A

thoroughly washing your hands in warm running water with liquid soap using friction on all surfaces of the hands and wrists, then rinsing hands and drying hands with a clean, disposable paper towel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

when must a licensee wash their hands

A

before and after every service is provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

in what instance can bar soap be utilized in a facility

A

this is strictly prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

when must gloves be used during the sterilization process

A

new gloves must be worn during any step of the sterilization process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

the ultrasonic must operate at what kilohertz

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

when is an ultrasonic and autoclave not required in a facility

A

when every licensee in a facility is utilizing all disposable products that are obtained from suppliers or manufacturers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How often must a biological monitoring system (spore test) be done on an autoclave

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what must all sterilization pouches have

A

a color changing indicator strip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how must instruments be sterilized

A

using an autoclave sterilizer, steam, chemical or gas that is registered and listed with the FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

biological spore tests should be saved for how long

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

how long can an instrument sit in storage after being sterilized before it will need to be sterilized again

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what must be done if a sterilized pouch is compromised either by being breached, gets wet, stained, or the expiration date is exceeded

A

all pouches affected must be opened and go through the entire sterilization process once more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what must be done should a positive result one the spore test comes back from he lab

A

the autoclave must not be used again until it is serviced, and a negative spore test result is recorded. then all instruments must be put through the entire sterilization process once the negative result is on file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what information is required to be on every client record/release form

A

name, address, telephone number, date of birth, date of service, procedure location on the body, name and license number of licensees providing the service, medical history of client, any complications during the procedure, any sensitivities to medicines or topical solutions, special instructions regarding medical or skin conditions, and signature from the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what proof of age is required to proceed with the service

A

a government issued photographic identification must be obtained and kept with client record/release form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

how long must client records be kept at the facility

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how long must client records be kept in case HLO needs access to a specific release form

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

how can client records be stored after 90 days

A

physically or electronically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what must the facility license holder be

A

a natural person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

how long is a facility license active for

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

in what instance can a facility license be transferred

A

a facility license is never transferrable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what must an individual applying for a facility license submit

A

completed application, proof of been at least 18 years of age, a map or directions if in a rural area, provide a list of licensees providing services, proof of business registration, include an Assumed Business Name filing if not using true name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how long is a temporary facility license good for

A

15 consecutive calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

how long is a mobile facility license

A

15 consecutive calendar days at one physical location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what can a mobile facility license be transferred from person-to-person

A

a mobile facility license is never transferrable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

when is it possible for a mobile facility to be in motion while performing services in the field of practice

A

a mobile facility is never permitted to be in motion while performing services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how long before performing services must a mobile facility submit written notification to the Health Licensing Office for a new location

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what information must be provided to each client receiving services at a mobile facility

A

each client must be given the mobile facility name, mobile facility license number, license number and name of person providing service, and the permanent address and phone number that is on file with the Health Licensing Office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what information must be on the outside of the mobile facility and easily visible from the street

A

the mobile facility name that is on file with the health licensing office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is the purpose of an event facility license

A

this license allows a facility to operate a facility on an irregular basis outside and away from a permanent physical location for conventions, educational, demonstration, and exhibition purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is the time allotted for an event facility license

A

15 consecutive calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what must be present always while services are being provided at an event facility

A

a representative of the event faclilty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what is something that the event facility owners must provide

A

a hot and cold running water station for every 10 licensed individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

how many licensees can provide services in a 10 feet by 10 feet booth

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what must be done to avoid delinquency penalties when renewing a facility or mobile facility license

A

the renewal must be made prior to the license entering inactive status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

how long can a license be inactive before it enters expired status

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

where does a facility license need to be stored

A

public view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

when can a licensee work in a facility with an inactive license

A

a licensee can never work with an inactive license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

when should a privacy screen be used to block the view of the deletion area, waiting area, or public view

A

when services are conducted upon breast, nipples, genitals, or buttocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

when can a licensee impede on a facility inspection or investigation

A

a licensee can never impede a health licensing office representative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

where must a sterilization room be located

A

the sterilization room must be separated from public areas, service areas, and restrooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what kind of surfaces must be in areas where decontamination and sterilization of reusable instruments are performed

A

nonporous surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

If a licensee works in a cosmetology facility, where must the tattoo services take place

A

separated from any cosmetology services by a solid barrier to prevent contact with irritants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

how far away from the door does anyone smoking have to stand

A

10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what must a facility located in a residence have

A

an identifying house number or a sign; equipped with all the same structures, accommodations, and equipment that the Health Licensing Office requires for all facilities; the living area must be separated from the facility by solid walls extending from floor to ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

how much does a license renewal cost

A

$50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what does it cost to get a facility license

A

$100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee performes services while their license is inactive

A

$200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what is the first offense fine if a licensee performs services outside of a licensed facility

A

$500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee fails to post a valid licensee in public view

A

$100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what is the 1st offense fine if a licensee fails to sterilize all instruments that come in direct contact with a client’s skin

A

$1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what would a licensee have to pay if they were fined for failing to use an approved mode of sterilization

A

$1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

if a licensee fails to keep the required monthly biological (spore) test results on the premises, what would the first offense fine be

A

$1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what would the first offense fine be for failing to collect and maintain complete client records for each client

A

$500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what does tattooing mean

A

the process by which a live human being is marked or colored by insertion of nontoxic dyes or pigments to form indelible marks for ornamentation or decoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

how does a licensee let the health licensing office know when they change places of business

A

in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

how often does the tattoo board meet

A

once per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what does PPE stand for

A

Personal Protective Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are blood borne pathogens

A

microorganisms that can cause disease when transmitted from an infected individual to another individual through blood and certain body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what is hepatitis B

A

Hepatitis B is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what is Hepatitis C

A

a liver disease that is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

where are sharps containers required to be

A

must be in each room that sharps are used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

where does a high-level disinfectant have to be registered

A

Environmental Protection Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what must be present on all waste receptacles that bio waste is discarded in

A

biohazard label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

how often does every licensee have to renew their CPR certification

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what does pathogen mean

A

an agent of disease; pathogens include bacteria such as staph, viruses such as HIV, and fungi such as yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what is an ECP

A

Exposure Control Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What does an ECP consist of

A

exposure determination, implementation details, and the procedure for the evaluation of circumstances surrounding exposer incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How often does the ECP need to be updated

A

it must be reviewed and updated annually and whenever jobs / tasks/ procedures have changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what is universal precaution

A

an approach to infection control that treats all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they are infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

which item is NOT considered personal protective equipment

A

hair net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

when moving a sharps container, what must be done first

A

the container must be closed immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what piece of PPE must be worn when moving a full sharps container

A

Gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

what should be on any container that contains any blood or hazardous material

A

a biohazard label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what must all client’s records be first and foremost

A

confidential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

how many hours of practical theory does a tattoo student need before completing the tattoo program

A

150 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

when does a tattoo license become inactive

A

a tattoo license is good for one year and becomes inactive on the last day of the month one year from the date of issuance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

what level of education must be proven before the health licensing office will issue a license for tattooing

A

high school diploma or equicalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

where must a tattoo artist perform services

A

a licensed facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what are examples of connective tissue

A

cartilage, bone and adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

which is NOT a connective tissue

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is epithelial tissue of epithelium

A

this tissue covers the body surfaces, line its cavities, and forms the major portions of many of the human glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

what is the muscle tissue associated with

A

the movement of the body

168
Q

what is the nervous system composed of

A

cells that are adapted to receive and relay signals, respond to stimuli, and coordinate conscious and unconscious activities

169
Q

what is a mucous membrane

A

tissue lining the surfaces of passageways leading to the outside of the body

170
Q

what are the top 5 layers of skin

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale

171
Q

what does the arrestor pili muscle do

A

this muscle can contract and cause the hair to become more perpendicular to the skin surface, also known as goose bumps

172
Q

what is a sudoriferous gland

A

sweat gland

173
Q

what is a sebaceous gland

A

a gland that produces sebum (protective oil for skin)

174
Q

in what order are 3 major skin groups (outermost layer first)

A

epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

175
Q

what is melanin

A

the dark pigment formed by melanocytes; it imparts color to the skin and hair

176
Q

which is NOT a function of the skin

A

synthesizes vitamin B from sunlight

177
Q

how does the body regulate its temperature

A

the skin allows the body to lose heat by evaporation, radiation, convection, and conduction

178
Q

which is not a major function of the skin

A

synthesizes vitamin G

179
Q

which layers of skin are in the dermis

A

papillary and reticular layers

180
Q

what is sebum

A

consists primarily of lipids and oils to keep the hair supple and the skin soft and pliant, while preventing water loss from the epidermis

181
Q

what are the two major components of whole blood

A

plasma and cells

182
Q

what is the most common form of skin cancer

A

Basel cell carcinoma

183
Q

what type of skin is more likely to be diagnosed with skin cancer

A

fair skin with light hair

184
Q

what causes 95% of all cases of basal cell carcinoma

A

overexposure to sunlight

185
Q

what is a cyst

A

a closed cavity or sac containing a liquid or semisolid material beneath the skin

186
Q

what is dermatitis

A

a group of inflammatory conditions of the skin

187
Q

what does a dermatologist specialize in

A

diagnosing and treating skin problems

188
Q

what is dermatofibroma

A

a benign tumor, a nodule, arising from connective tissue cells

189
Q

what is dermatology

A

the study of a vast field of knowledge about the physiology and pathology of the skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, and oil glands

190
Q

what is the medical term for a bruise

A

ecchymosis

191
Q

what is a crack or split in the skin referred to as

A

a fissure

192
Q

what is the disorder of keratinization called

A

follicular hyperkeratosis

193
Q

what is folliculitis

A

inflammation of the hair follicle

194
Q

what is impetigo

A

a superficial skin infection most commonly found in children, caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal bacteria

195
Q

what are large permanent scars that develop after injury to the sin

A

keloids

196
Q

what is keratin

A

protein containing high amounts of sulfur that is primary component of the outermost layer of the skin, nails, horny tissue, and hair

197
Q

what is a common benign tumor that is composed of mature fat cells that almost never become malignant called

A

lipoma

198
Q

what is a macule

A

a flat spot on the skin, visible only differing color that is less than 1 or 2 cm in diameter

199
Q

what is the deadliest form of skin cancer

A

melanoma

200
Q

what does ecchymosis mean

A

the medical term for a bruise

201
Q

what is the name of the second layer of skin

A

dermis

202
Q

what layer are the sebaceous (oil) glands found in

A

reticular layer

203
Q

what glands creates sebum

A

sebaceous glands

204
Q

what causes our skin to detect pain

A

free nerve endings

205
Q

how do we know when we are being touched or are in pain

A

the sensations are relayed via nerve impulses to the brain from the area with the pain, pressure, or vibrations

206
Q

what is one way a cyst of the skin can form

A

blocked duct leading from a fluid-forming sebaceous gland to the skin

207
Q

what are milia

A

small, firm white papule are usually found in clusters on the upper cheeks and around the eyes

208
Q

a birthmark or skin malformation characterized by too much (or not enough) normal epidermal, connective, adnexal, nervous, or vascular tissue is called what

A

nevus

209
Q

a nodule is

A

a solid mass of tissue larger than 1 cm in diameter that may protrude from the skin or occur deep underneath the surface

210
Q

what is a small, solid slightly raised area of the skin less than half an inch in diameter

A

papule

211
Q

what type of lesion is commonly found in acne and lichen planus

A

papule

212
Q

what is a purpura

A

group of disorders characterized by purplish or reddish-brown areas of discoloration, visible through the skin and caused by bleeding within the underlying skin

213
Q

what is the product of inflammation

A

pus

214
Q

what is a pustule

A

a small pus-containing skin blister found on skin that may or may not be caused by infection

215
Q

what is pus

A

the product of inflammation, this is a pale yellow or green creamy fluid composed of millions of dead whit blood cells, fluid, partly digested tissue, bacteria, and other substances found at the site of a bacterial infection

216
Q

what is the cancer of the connective tissue, blood vessels, or the tissue surrounding and supporting organs called

A

sarcoma

217
Q

what is a scab

A

a crust that forms on a healing superficial skin wound or infected area

218
Q

an area of fibrous tissue left behind on the skin after damaged tissue has healed is called what

A

a scar

219
Q

how old should a scar be before you tattoo over it

A

2 years

220
Q

what does the sebaceous gland secrete

A

sebu or oil

221
Q

what is a sebaceous gland

A

tiny glands that secrete a lubricating substance called sebum either into hair follicles or directly onto the skins surface

222
Q

what is squamous cell carcinoma

A

this type of cancer begins in the squamous cells that compose most of the upper layer of skin

223
Q

the second most common skin cancer is

A

squamous cell carcinoma

224
Q

what causes staphylococcal infections

A

staphylococcal bacteria

225
Q

what shape are cocci bacteria

A

round/sphere

226
Q

what shape are bacilli bacteria

A

rod

227
Q

what shape are spirilla bacteria

A

spiral/corkscrew

228
Q

what is tinea

A

group of common fungus infections of the skin, also known as ringworm

229
Q

what is an ulcer

A

an open sore on the skin caused by the destruction of surface tissue

230
Q

ultraviolet radiation is what

A

the energy that comes to the earth from the sun is emitted as radiation of various wavelengths, called the electromagnetic spectrum

231
Q

what is vitiligo

A

a common disease in which the skin loses pigment due to the destruction of pigment cells

232
Q

what is a wart

A

harmless, contagious growths on the skin or mucous membranes caused by any of more than 50 varieties of papillomavirus

233
Q

what is a wheal

A

a smooth, raised area of skin that is usually itchy, also known as a hive

234
Q

what is the latin word for tattoo

A

stigma

235
Q

what are the two most common types of needles

A

stainless steel and plain steel

236
Q

what is the single needle size that most tattoo artists use

A

standard #12, .014 sharps needle

237
Q

what does it mean when you have a hooked/barbed needle

A

the tip of the needle is bent back towards the other end of the needle bar

238
Q

what does it mean when you have a bent needle

A

the end is bent at an angle

239
Q

what can happen to your needle after extended use

A

it can become blunted

240
Q

what instrument can you use to check your needles up close

A

eye-loupe

241
Q

the needles that utilized the tight round configurations are called what

A

liners

242
Q

what is the needle configuration called when the needles are in a row rather than grouped together

A

shaders or flats

243
Q

what is the needle configuration that has two shader bars offset

A

mags

244
Q

do mags have an even or an odd number of needles

A

odd

245
Q

what does a mag needle configuration ALWAYS have

A

an odd number of needles

246
Q

which row of needles goes on the top when making a mag needle configuration? the lower or higher number

A

the row with the fewer number of needles stacks on top of the row with more needles

247
Q

what does a needle bar have at the end that attaches to the machine

A

a hook of loop that allows the needle bar to attached to the machine

248
Q

shaders needle bars have a flat surface on one side of the bar for what reason

A

this is where the needle configuration is soldered to the bar

249
Q

when pressing down on the armature bar, how far out of the tube should the needles be extended

A

1/16” to 1/8”

250
Q

which direction should the opening on the tube be facing, away or towards the machine

A

away from the machine so you can see into the tube while tattooing

251
Q

what does a textured needle mean

A

a type of needle that have many pits in it by design, this is thought to allow the needle to hold more ink that is then deposited into the skin

252
Q

what does every needle configuration require

A

its own needle tube

253
Q

are there different tubes for liners and shaders

A

not only are there different liner and shader tubes, there are different tubes based on the number of needles in the configuration

254
Q

liner tubes come in what two shapes

A

round and square

255
Q

what are the three parts of the stainless-steel tubes

A

tube, grip, and tip

256
Q

what part of the stainless-steel tube does the tattoo artist hold onto

A

the grip

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

257
Q

what does the grip wrap around

A

the tip and the tube

258
Q

Why is the grip textured

A

to allow for less slipping

259
Q

what does the coil on a traditional tattoo machine do

A

determines the amount of power the machine has

260
Q

what do the springs do on a traditional tattoo machine do

A

allow the needle to bounce up and does, penetrating the skin

261
Q

the contacts on the traditional tattoo machine allow what to happen when the machine is powered on

A

the contacts allow for the completion of the electrical current when connected

262
Q

what is the soldering lug for

A

this is where the wires are soldered, allowing for better contact

263
Q

what does the binding post hold

A

the contact screw

264
Q

the armature bar has what function on a traditional tattoo machine

A

this part holds the needle bar and drives it up and down

265
Q

when setting up a traditional tattoo machine, why does a tattoo artist put rubber bands on during the setup

A

the rubber band put tension on the needle bar, forcing them to not bounce around inside the tube. the book states… help hold the pieces in place and keep them steady

266
Q

how many times can a tattoo machine cycle the needles in a second

A

a modern tattoo machine can cycle the needle up to 150 times each second

267
Q

the majority of traditional coil machines fall into what coil count categories

A

the 8-coil, 10-coil, and the 12-coil categories

268
Q

what does the capacitor do on a tattoo machine

A

the capacitor is the device that stores electrical charges, allowing an even flow of power going to the tattoo machine during use

269
Q

other that the needles and tubes, what else is needed to set up the tattoo machine

A

power supply, clip cord, and the foot pedal

270
Q

what does the clip cord do

A

this cord connect the power supply to the machine

271
Q

the foot pedal serves what purpose

A

the foot pedal serves as the on/off switch for the machine, it connects to the power supply directly

272
Q

what is the range of voltage to run a tattoo machine

A

anywhere from 5-12 volts

273
Q

what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine

A

break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same

273
Q

what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine

A

break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same

273
Q

what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine

A

break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same

273
Q

what should every tattoo artist do to their traditional coil machine before ever using the machine

A

break the machine down to smaller parts and rebuild it so that you can understand how it operates and how all the pieces fit together. most machines are similar, but not exactly the same

274
Q

what should always be done to the tattoo artists machine after every use

A

always clean the machine after use

275
Q

which step during set up should NEVER be skipped

A

all equipment, including cords, should be checked for wear and tear. cords can get ran over, stepped on, or wound improperly and should be checked to make sure they can not cause injury if used

276
Q

what are the two main ingredients in tattoo ink

A

the pigment (color) and the carrier fluid

277
Q

what does the pigment to for the ink

A

the pigment is what gives the tattoo ink its color

278
Q

what kind of reaction can a person have to tattoo ink

A

allergic

279
Q

what should the carrier fluid ALWAYS be before making your own pigments

A

sterile

280
Q

why are stencils used in the art of tattooing

A

stencils are created to give the artist a guide from which to work

281
Q

how must you create a stencil if you are hand making a stencil

A

in reverse, using a light table and carbon paper. this ensure the image is reading correctly on the skin

282
Q

what type of paper can an artist use to make a hand stencil

A

carbon paper, also known as ditto or duplicating paper

283
Q

what is the first thing you should do after placing a stencil on the body part to be tattooed

A

allow your client to check the placement of the design. once the client has approved the placement, then the tattoo can begin

284
Q

when are times that the tattoo artist does NOT need to create a stencil

A

when a touch up of a previous design is being done or when the artist is free handing the design directly on the skin

285
Q

what does the tattoo artist use to mark the skin if free handing the design

A

a single use skin scribe

286
Q

what is a skin scribe

A

a single use non-toxic pen

287
Q

when the skin isn’t pulled tight or taut, the needles in the machine can do what

A

the needles can get caught in the skin or even bounce off it without penetrating and leaving any ink behind

288
Q

does the tattoo artist stretch the skin the exact same way for different parts of the body

A

the skin needs to be stretched in different ways depending on the area of the body that is being tattooed

289
Q

when starting a tattoo, where should one start in order to not smear or wipe away the stencil

A

on either the top or the bottom with your tattooing hand on the outside of the design. it is most common for tattoo artists to start on the bottom of the design

290
Q

what is a weight of a line

A

he thickness of the line

291
Q

which line would be thicker, a 7 liner or a 3 liner

A

the 7 liner

292
Q

how often should you dip the needle in the ink to refill the reservoir

A

about every 15 seconds

293
Q

what should the needles be doing when they are put to the skin

A

the machine should be in the on position also referred to as running

294
Q

what type of pressure should the tattoo artist have during the tattooing process

A

even pressure

295
Q

what may be the cause of faint line

A

the machine is running too slowly, the artist is moving the needle too quickly, too little ink in the tip, worn out needles, or the skin needs to be stretched more tightly

296
Q

what could be the cause of the needles snagging in the skin

A

the machine could be running too slowly causing the needles to get caught or the skin needs to be stretched more to allow for better penetration

297
Q

what is sweep or whip shading

A

this is a sweeping motion from the line out, the tattoo artist is starting the shading then lifting the machine in a fluid motion to give a gradient in the ink left behind in the skin from dark to light

298
Q

when packing in solid color, what technique should be used

A

small, barely overlapping circles to fill in the appropriate areas of the tattoo

299
Q

what should the tattoo artist do regularly to guarantee the coverage is full and even when packing color

A

wipe away the excess ink to be able to see the coverage underneath

300
Q

what can happen to lighter colors if they are tattooed before darker colors

A

the lighter color can become muddled by the darker color

301
Q

what should a completed tattoo be cleaned with before the bandage is placed on

A

antiseptic (green soap)

302
Q

what MUST the artist give to the client before the client leaves the building

A

aftercare (verbally and in written form)

303
Q

what is the quality by which we distinguish one color from another color know as

A

hue

304
Q

what is the quality we use to determine light colors from dark colors

A

value

305
Q

what are the primary colors

A

red, blue, and yellow

306
Q

what colors are mixed together to create the secondary colors

A

primary colors

307
Q

what colors are mixed together to create tertiary colors

A

secondary colors with primary colors

308
Q

what colors can all other colors be mixed from

A

red, blue, and yellow

309
Q

where do complementary colors sit on the color wheel

A

directly across from one another

310
Q

what are analogous colors

A

they are colors that sit right next to each other on the color wheel

311
Q

what is the complementary color to red

A

green

312
Q

what is the complimentary color to blue

A

orange

313
Q

what allows two elements of a tattoo to work both with and against one another in such a way that they are distinguished from one another

A

contrast created differences in the values and colors to allow for elements to stand out while others fade into the background

314
Q

what colors can provide the most contrast in a tattoo design

A

complementary colors

315
Q

what should be taken into consideration when palling the scale of a tattoo

A

location and placement on the body

316
Q

what organ is the body’s largest organ

A

skin

317
Q

what is one of the most important functions of the skin

A

protection

318
Q

what percentage of the body’s weight does the skin account for

A

15%

319
Q

what is the third layer of the epidermis

A

stratum granulosum

320
Q

what is the fifth layer of the epidermis

A

stratum basale

321
Q

what is the inability to make melanin referred to as

A

albinism

322
Q

what is the thickening of the stratum corneum due to friction called

A

hyperkeratosis

323
Q

what does your sebaceous glands produce

A

sebum

324
Q

what do free nerve endings detect

A

Pain

325
Q

what do Merkel’s disks detect

A

touch

326
Q

which corpuscles detect weak pressure and vibrations

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

327
Q

which corpuscles detect stronger pressure and vibrations

A

pacinian corpuscles

328
Q

blood is considered a connective tissue

A

true

329
Q

what percent of body weight does the blood take up on average

A

8%

330
Q

what is a cyst

A

a closed cavity or sac containing a liquid or semisolid material beneath the skin

331
Q

basal cell carcinoma in the ____ form of skin cancer

A

most common

332
Q

what type of nodule is found most often on the arms and legs

A

dermatofibroma

333
Q

what is the medical term for a blue or purple hemorrhage in the skin or mucous membrane

A

ecchymosis

334
Q

what is a fissure

A

a crack or split in the skin

335
Q

what is the inflammation of a hair follicle

A

folliculitis

336
Q

what is follicular hyperkeratosis

A

a disorder of keratinization characterized by the thickening of the skin around and/or on hair follicles

337
Q

what is a superficial skin infection most commonly found in children, caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal bacteria called

A

impetigo

338
Q

what is a keloid

A

a large permanent and sometimes disfiguring scar that may develop after surgery or other injury to the skin

339
Q

what is the definition of keratinization

A

the process by which cells become tough and horny due to deposits of keratin placed within them

340
Q

what is lipoma

A

a common benign tumor that is composed of mature fat cells that almost never become malignant

341
Q

what is the deadliest form of skin cancer that are brown, black, or multicolored patches, plaques or nodules with an irregular outline

A

malignant melanoma

342
Q

what is a papule

A

a small solid slightly raised area of the skin less than half an inch in diameter

343
Q

what is a group of disorders characterized by purplish or reddish brown area of discoloration, visible through the skin and caused by bleeding within the underlying tissue

A

purpura

344
Q

what is a small pus-containing skin blister found on skin that may or may not be caused by infection

A

pustule

345
Q

what is a scar

A

an area of fibrous tissue left behind on the skin after damaged tissue has healed

346
Q

all wound should be ____ and kept slightly ____ during healing

A

clean and moist

347
Q

what is an open sore on the skin caused by the destruction of surface tissue

A

ulcer

348
Q

what is a common disease in which the skin loses pigment due to the destructions of pigment cells

A

vitiligo

349
Q

what does ‘Office’ refer to in the Oregons Laws and Rules

A

Health Licensing office

350
Q

If you move to a new residential address or change any of your information, how long do you have to notify the Health Licensing Office of the change

A

30 days

351
Q

how must you notify the Health Licensing Office of the change

A

Both B & C, with are in writing or by email

352
Q

what is a chemical agent, registered with the EPA, which has demonstrated tuberculocidal activity

A

high level disinfectant

353
Q

when the test is referring to equipment used during tattooing services, what will they be called

A

instruments

354
Q

what is the acronym for the Food and Drug Administration

A

FDA

355
Q

what is the acronym for the Environmental Protection Agency

A

EPA

356
Q

what kind of container must be puncture resistant, leak-proof, can closed, and have a biohazard label visible

A

sharps container

357
Q

what is considered a completed procedure by the Oregon health licensing office

A

a tattoo which has been finished on a live human being, including any touchups or additional work following initial healing, and the client is released from service

358
Q

how many completed procedures are needed to complete a tattoo artist licensing program

A

50

359
Q

how many times can you take the state licensing exam and fail before you have to go back to school to complete more hours

A

3

360
Q

how many hours do you have to complete if you fail the state licensing exam 3 times in a row

A

100

361
Q

how many days do you have to wait to retake the state licensing exam if you fail it 3 times in a row

A

30 calendar days

362
Q

is continuing education required even if your license is inactive

A

yes

363
Q

if you have 20 hours of continuing education in one year, how many of those hours can be carried over into the next year

A

8

364
Q

what must be clearly marked on all tattoo inks, pigments and dyes by law

A

expiration date

365
Q

if an ink, pigment or dye is banned by the FDA, when is it permitted to be used in the skin

A

this is prohibited

366
Q

when can an artist use expired ink in the skin

A

never

367
Q

which is considered an antiseptic

A

green soap

368
Q

what must the skin be cleaned with prior to the procedure

A

antiseptic

369
Q

when is tattooing prohibited

A

open lesions are present in the area of the tattoo
sunburn in the area of the tattoo
rashes in the area of the procedure
all of the above

370
Q

how must all equipment/instruments be used

A

in a manner described in the manufacturer’s instructions

371
Q

when storing chemicals in the facility, how must this be done

A

in labeled, closed containers

372
Q

ensure all _____ are kept at adequate strengths to maintain effectiveness

A

disinfecting solutions

373
Q

when is it acceptable to use towels and linens

A

this is strictly prohibited

374
Q

can you use the sink in the restroom to wash your hands before or after a tattoo

A

False

375
Q

when a service is completed, what type of waste receptacle must the regulated waste be put into

A

all service-related waste must be enclosed in a glove or bag and disposed of in a covered container with a biohazard label that has a garbage liner

376
Q

should biohazard labels or red biohazards bags be available on the facility premises

A

true

377
Q

can a service animal that is recognized by the American with disabilities act be in the facility

A

true

378
Q

is a poisonous snake permitted to be in the facility

A

no

379
Q

how should all substances be dispensed

A

must be dispensed into a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure

380
Q

how many people are on the Board of Electrologists and Body Art Practitioners

A

7

381
Q

How many tattoo artists are on the Board of Electrologists and Body Art practitioners

A

2

382
Q

How long is a term that is served by a member of the board of electrologists and body art practitioners

A

4 years

383
Q

how many consecutive terms can a member of the board of electrologists and body art practitioners serve

A

2

384
Q

what should armature bars be made of

A

plain steel

385
Q

what can cause your machine to rattle and deflect on the rear coil

A

dust, lint, and/or debris

386
Q

how often should you clean the contact area on your tattoo machine

A

once a day

387
Q

what should you clean the contact area with

A

alcohol

388
Q

where can inks, pigments, or dyes be stored

A

in a closed cabinet or drawer

389
Q

when must an artist wear protective eye wear

A

when spattering is possible

390
Q

how should all substances be dispensed

A

must be dispensed into a single use container and discarded at the end of each procedure

391
Q

what is the difference between ferrous and non-ferrous metals

A

ferrous metals contain iron while non-ferrous metals do not

392
Q

what word means free of dirt, unsoiled, and unstained

A

clean

393
Q

what word means to destroy disease germs

A

disinfect

394
Q

which word means to destroy microorganisms in or on, usually by bringing to a high temperature with steam and heat

A

sterilization

395
Q

how long do integrator strips need to be kept after use

A

60 days

396
Q

when do integrator strips need to be used

A

in every cycle ran through the autoclave

397
Q

how long do you need to keep spore test results

A

2 years

398
Q

when is the expiration date for sterilized instruments, after the initial date of sterilization

A

one year from the date of sterilization unless the package is compromised

399
Q

what does the steam sterilization integrator measure

A

time, temperature, and presence of steam during the sterilization cycle

400
Q

what does the Rockwell Hardness Scale test measure

A

the Strength of the steel tested

401
Q

What equipment used during the tattoo procedure is considered instruments

A

needles and tubes

402
Q

how many years after renewing your license do you have to complete your continuing education

A

1 year

403
Q

what agency is responsible for the safety of the inks/pigments tattoo artists use

A

FDA

404
Q

what does OHA stand for

A

Oregon Health Authority

405
Q

What is another name for the tube vise on coil machine

A

Crusher/Cruncher

406
Q

What agency does high level disinfectant have to be registered with

A

EPA

Tattoo Licensing (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions