Liability of Principal and Agent to 3rd party Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two kinds of actual authority?

A

Express and Implied

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2
Q

Define

Express Actual Authority

A

1) oral or written words
2) clear, direct, and definite language
3) specific detailed instructions

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3
Q

What is Intent and Dissent when contemplating express actual authority?

A

Intent - P’s manifestation must cause A to believe that A is doing what P wants (subjective standard) and A’s belief must be reasonable (Objective Standard)

Dissent - P must give clear notice if P disagrees with A’s actions

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4
Q

Define

Implied actual authority

A

allows A to take whatever actions are properly necessary to achieve P’s objectives

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5
Q

What is the standard for A’s belief under implied actual authority?

A

implied actual authority must be based on A’s reasonable understanding of the manifestations and objective’s of P

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6
Q

Define

Custom (as used for implied actual authority)

A

absent contrary instructions, A has imlied authority to act within accepted business customs or general trade usage within an industry

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7
Q

Define

Acquiescence (as used for implied actual authority)

A

implied by P’s acceptance of A’s act or P’s failure to object to unauthorized actions of A that affirm A’s belief regarding P’s objectives and support A’s perceived authority to act in the future

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8
Q

Can express or implied actual authority be delegated?

A

Generally, A is prohibited from delegating express or implied actual authority to a 3rd party without P’s consent

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9
Q

Define

Apparent Authority

A

third party believes that a level of authority has been placed by P to A

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10
Q

What can a 3rd party’s reasonable belief as to apparent authority be based on?

A

1) past dealings between P and A
2) Trade customs
3) relevant industry standards
4) P’s written statements of authority
5) Transactions that do not benefit P
6) Extraordinary transactions for P

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11
Q

Can an Agent’s position create apparent authority?

A

Yes, for example being a VP or GM would likely grant apparent authority

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12
Q

Who may revoke or renounce an agency relationship and when is it effective?

A

Either party can revoke or renounce
Effective as soon as either party gives notice to the other

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13
Q

Can an agency be terminated by mutual agreement?

A

Yes

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14
Q

What two ways can agency be terminated by agreement?

A

1) mutually agree to terminate
2) the occurance of specified circumstances in an agreement

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15
Q

When do changes in circumstances terminate an agency relationship?

A

When they cause A to reasonably believe that P no longer consents to A acting on P’s behalf

Change of law, insolvency, dramatic change in business conditions, destruction of subject matter, or disaster

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16
Q

Can a passage of time terminate an agency relationship? How?

A

Yes. If a reasonable period of time has passed.

17
Q

How does P’s death or suspension of P’s power terminate an agency relationship?

A

It is NOT automatic. The modern trend is A’s actual authority would terminate upon notice to Agent

18
Q

What kind of authority terminates upon P’s loss of capacity?

A

Modern trend is A’s actual authority terminates upon notice

19
Q

How does A’s death or suspension of powers terminate the Agency relationship?

A

Agency terminates immediately upon A’s death or suspension of power

20
Q

Define

Estoppel

A

applies when a third party is justifiably induced to make a detrimental change in position because that third party believed the transaction was entered into for P and P failed to take reasonable steps and use ordinary care

21
Q

Define

Ratification

A

P ratifies the entire act/transaction after A enters into something that they did not have authority to do

  • P must have legal capacity
  • ratification must be timely
  • P must have knowledge of all material facts involved in the original act
22
Q

Define

Respondeat Superior

A

P is vicariously liable to a third party by A who is employee and who committed an act within the scope of employment

23
Q

Define

Scope of Employment

A

an employee is within the scope of employment when either (1) performing work assigned by the employer or (2) engaging in a course of conduct subject to the employer’s control

24
Q

When do employees intentional torts fall within the scope of employment

A

(1) when conduct is within the space and time limits of employment,
(2) the employee was motivated to act for the employer’s benefit, and
(3) the act was of the kind that the employee was hired to perform

25
Q

T/F Criminal conduct and personal acts may NOT fall within the scope of employment

A

FALSE

26
Q

Is commuting to work in the scope of employment

A

No

27
Q

Is travel to perform work and employer errands within the scope of employment?

A

Yes

28
Q

Define

Frolic

A

the employees personal errand involving a significant deviation from performing work is outside the scop of employment

29
Q

Define

Detour

A

travel for personal errand may be within scope of employment if it is merely a detour

30
Q

Independent contractors are not employees and thus employers are generally not vicariously liable expect when

A
  • P retains control
  • P hires IC for nondelegable duties
  • IC has apparent authority
  • P is negligent in selecting, training, or supervising IC
31
Q

How does apparent authority make a P vicariously liable?

A

if a third party reasonably believes that A acted with apparent authority and it is traceable to P’s manifestation, then P is vicariously liable for A’s tort even if the conduct does not benefit P

32
Q

Who is liable to a contract if P is disclosed?

A

Principal

3rd party must have notice of both the existence and indentity of P

33
Q

Who has contractual liability if P is partially disclosed?

A

Agent and Principal

3rd party knows of P’s existence but not identity

34
Q

Who is contractually liable when P is undisclosed?

A

both agent and principal

35
Q

A has implied warranty of authority. If A lacks power to bind P - what happens contractually?

A

there is a breach

36
Q

If A exceeds authority is A liable?

A

Likely no under the warranty of authority

37
Q

What is required for fraudulent concealment?

A

P or A must know at time of contract that the third party would not have contracted if they had known about P