LFNORRIE2

Question 1

What are the 3 Golden rules to follow when applying foam?

Answer 1

(1) Do not begin to apply foam unless you have enough to extinguish the fire or cover the fuel spill.
(2) Point branch away from fire until good foam is being produced.
(3) You cannot mix different foam concentrates.

Question 2

List 3 hazards or considerations when using CAFS at a structure fire.

Answer 2

(1) CAFS hose lines have a build up of pressure when the branch is closed, this causes a larger jet reaction than a standard hose
(2) Slug flow – When the proportion of foam, air and water is wrong. It will cause the finished foam to “shudder” or “pulsate” as it is exiting the branch. if you experience slug flow, notify the motor driver so that they can adjust the settings at the pump.
(3) A CAFS line must never be used for an internal attack, that is because the mixture does not contain enough water to cool the hot fire gasses. This will result in dangerous conditions that goes against our SOG’s for internal firefighting.

Question 3

List 5 actions to take when combatting a natural gas leak with no fire involved.

Answer 3

• Structural PPE and SCBA.
• Evacuate all persons from the immediate area.
• Remove all sources of ignition.
• Respond Gas company.
• Only use intrinsically safe equipment.
• Dampen ground around the site of the gas release to prevent static electricity.
• Keep protection line in place using fog.
• If possible, crimp line to stop release of gas.

Question 4

How many hours after the acetylene cylinder is removed from the fire or heat source, if it is not cooled, can this explosion occur?

Answer 4

The explosion can occur up to 24 hours after the cylinder is removed from the fire or heat source, if it is not cooled

Question 5

What are the most important indicators we need to base our decisions on when reading a fire?

Answer 5

The most important indicators are in the acronym B - S A H F which stands for
B - Building
S - Smoke
A - Air Track
H - Heat
F - Flame

Question 6

What techniques enable us to control the interior environment during a structure fire?

Answer 6

Gas cooling and hose stream techniques enable us to control the interior environment during a structure fire as we strive to access and extinguish the fire and then perform search & rescue.
SHORT PULSE: is used as soon as there is hot fire gases above (or around) a hose crew. It is also used to dilute and cool gases that may present a FGI risk.
LONG PULSE: should always be used aggressively when there are large amounts of fire gases and/or compartment size requires greater penetration.

Question 7

List 2 common hose laying techniques that can be used by firefighters?

Answer 7

Technique (1) - S-LAY (traditional lay)
Used at medium or larger building with chance of structural collapse, hose is positioned outside collapse zone by MD. It is 2 x lengths of 38mm hose, flaked in hose tray. Run out by Motor Driver. Second length near entry point. Easier to pull hose into structure. Slowly charged to stop knots in the hose. Number 2 untangle hose if needed.

Technique (2) - Cleveland Load (coil lay)
An American method that is fast and simple. It is easier to manage the hose and quicker to deply. Used in tight areas where hard to lay hose for example high rise building stairwells, structure fires that cannot be accessed directly from the footpath, investigating AFA, bushfires property protection, difficult to access locations.

Question 8

Complete the following: Brigades to proceed with speed to suspected fires or hazardous material incident………?

Answer 8

(1) When there is an alarm of fire, a fire brigade must, despite anything to the contrary in any Act, proceed with all speed to the fire and try by all possible means to extinguish it and save any lives and property that are in danger.
(2) When there is a report of a hazardous material incident, a fire brigade must, despite anything to the contrary in any Act—
(2a) proceed with all speed to the site of the incident, and
(2b) try by all possible means to render the site of the incident safe and save any lives and property that are in danger.

Question 9

Complete the following: Investigation of reported fires and Hazardous material incident………?

Answer 9

(1) The officer in charge may, with or without members of a fire brigade, enter any place—
(1a) in respect of which an alarm of fire is raised to ascertain whether there is a fire at the place, or
(1b) in respect of which a report of a hazardous material incident has been made to ascertain whether there is any hazardous material at the place that is, or is about to be, the subject of a hazardous material incident.
(2) Reasonable force, whether by breaking down gates or fences or breaking open doors or otherwise, may be used to gain entry.

Question 10

State the provisions of the FRNSW Act “General Powers of Officers at fires and hazardous material incidents”.

Answer 10

(1) At a fire, the officer in charge—
(1a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property and for the control and extinguishing of the fire, and
(1b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
(1A) At the site of a hazardous material incident, the officer in charge—
(1aa) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property, for confining and ending the incident and for rendering the site safe, and
(1bb) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
The site is taken to be such area in the vicinity of the incident as is for the time being determined by the officer in charge.
(2) If the fire is a bush fire (including a grass fire), the officer in charge is, as far as practicable, to carry into effect any plan of operations in force under section 52 of the Rural Fires Act 1997 in relation to the place where the fire occurs.

Question 11

State the provisions of the FRNSW Act: “General power to remove persons or obstacles.” at fires and hazardous material incidents.

Answer 11

The officer in charge at a fire or hazardous material incident may cause to be removed any person, vehicle, vessel or thing the presence of whom or which at or near a fire or hazardous material incident might, in the officer’s opinion, interfere with the work of any fire brigade or the exercise of any of the officer’s functions.

Question 12

At an incident that has been declared a crime scene, a member of the public seeks details from you, the senior firefighter or officer on duty, about the incident. State your response according to the Disclosure of information clause.

Answer 12

A firefighter must not disclose any information obtained in the firefighter’s capacity as a firefighter unless the disclosure is made–
(a) in the exercise of the firefighter’s functions, or
(b) about factual matters that are generally available to the public, or
(c) by an approved firefighter to media representatives concerning operations at a fire or other incident, or
(d) at the direction or with the permission of the Commissioner, or
(e) with other lawful excuse.

Question 13

List five circumstances when a firefighter’s behaviour would be deemed unacceptable.

Answer 13

(1) A firefighter must not–
(a) come on duty while under the influence of alcohol or a drug, or
(b) while on duty, consume, use or possess any alcohol or drug, or
(c) while on duty, gamble in circumstances that adversely affect the discipline or efficiency of Fire and Rescue NSW, or
(d) smoke at a fire or drill, in any departmental premises or in any departmental vehicle, or
(e) smoke in any public place while in uniform, or
(f) while off duty, enter or remain on departmental premises without authority, or
(g) while on or off duty, by words or action, behave in a manner that is subversive of discipline or calculated to bring discredit on Fire and Rescue NSW, or
(h) while on duty, by words or action, harass, intimidate or threaten another firefighter, or
(i) while on duty, by words or action, harass or discriminate against any person on the grounds of sex, marital status, pregnancy, age, ethnic or national origin, physical or intellectual impairment, sexual preference, transgender status, carer’s responsibilities or any other ground in respect of which discrimination is prohibited by the Anti-Discrimination Act 1977 .
(2) The officer in charge of any departmental premises must refuse to permit a firefighter to come on duty if of the opinion that the firefighter is under the influence of alcohol or a drug to the extent that the firefighter is unable to exercise the functions of a firefighter.
(3) In this clause–
“drug” has the same meaning as in the Road Transport Act 2013 (paragraph (a) of the definition of “drug” in section 4 (1) of that Act excepted).

Question 14

What actions should drivers of responding vehicles approaching a stop sign or red signal take?

Answer 14

(1) With a view to avoiding serious accidents at intersections when responding to an emergency, drivers of responding vehicles approaching a stop sign or red signal light must slow down and enter the intersection at a speed of not more than 8 kph. Having assessed the traffic conditions, and determined that it is safe to proceed, the driver may then continue across the intersection.
(2) Whenever passing through the stop sign or red light would involve the vehicle in an accident, the driver must come to a halt and not move off again until it is safe to proceed.

Question 15

When are seatbelts required to be worn when travelling in FRNSW vehicles (including tankers)?

Answer 15

All Fire and Rescue NSW employees, and any authorised passengers, are required to wear a seat belt, properly adjusted, when travelling in Fire and Rescue NSW vehicles. Any member travelling on a vehicle (including a water tanker) is to be seated inside the vehicle and must wear a seat belt.

Question 16

List the procedures to be followed if drivers of FRNSW vehicles are involved in an accident.

Answer 16

• Station Commanders and supervisors must complete an Agency member motor vehicle claim form for all accidents involving Fire and Rescue NSW vehicles, including fire appliances, and submit it to their Duty Commander or manager with a covering memo explaining how the accident occurred.
• The Duty Commander or manager must undertake an initial investigation of the accident to determine if any action is required.
• The Agency member motor vehicle claim form must then be forwarded to the Fleet Management Unit who will process the insurance claim.
• If the accident involved an injury, illness, exposure or near miss, a Notification of injury, illness, exposure or near miss form must also be submitted.

Question 17

List the provisions related to “Firefighters to acquire and maintain knowledge of legislation, orders, and functions.”

Answer 17

(1) A firefighter must acquire and maintain a thorough knowledge of, and must comply with the requirements of, the Act, this Regulation and the Commissioner’s Orders.
(2) A firefighter must acquire and maintain the knowledge and skills that are relevant to the performance of the firefighter’s functions.

Question 18

The National Construction Code classes buildings “Class 1” through to “Class 10”. The class of building is a measure of the buildings likely what? List these four points.

Answer 18

The Class of building is a measure of the building’s likely:
• use;
• fire load;
• population; and
• mobility of the occupants, such as whether they are sleeping or alert.

Question 19

When should you request FIRU for assistance?

Answer 19

Contact the Fire Investigation and Research Unit (FIRU) for assistance if:
• There has been a loss of life at a fire, or a person is not expected to live from their injuries, or
• The fire is considered major (i.e. 4th Alarm or above, significant community impact or unusual fire behaviour), or
• The Origin and Cause of the fire is not apparent.

Question 20

What form populated by firefighters gives the Fire Investigator a summary of firefighter actions at an incident.

Answer 20

SOFA Forms – a form populated by firefighters that gives the Fire Investigator a summary of the firefighters actions at an incident.

Question 21

List and describe how a structure fire will burn within one of two burning regimes.

Answer 21

• Fuel Controlled - In this initial phase of fire development the fire grows as a direct function of the fuel itself with little or no influence from the compartment environment. ie. The size, shape or number of openings. If we continue to add fuel the fire will grow in size. If we remove fuel, the fire will decrease in size. Therefore fires with more than enough air for combustion are said to be Fuel Controlled.
• Fires begin as fuel-controlled, and at some point within the fire growth, so much fuel vapour is produced that the Heat Release Rate (HRR) and growth become limited by the availability of oxygen. The fire then becomes a ventilation-controlled fire.
• Ventilation Controlled - Most structure fires will reach a stage where fire development and the Heat Release Rate (HRR) is now dictated by the availability of oxygen. This occurs during a fully developed fire when the fire is pyrolyzing more fuel than can be burnt with the available oxygen in the compartment. It will also occur prior to this if the enclosure has insufficient openings. Simply put, fire growth (and HRR) is limited by the available air (O2) supply.

Question 22

List the search priorities in multi storey buildings

Answer 22

• First Priority is the fire floor.
• Second Priority is the floor directly above the fire floor.
• Third Priority is the top floor as this is where the smoke will rise to if it can.
• Always check the roof for evacuees and for use as a possible evacuation point if the stairs are impassable.

Question 23

What message should be sent to draw attention to a firefighter becoming trapped, injured, missing or overdue?

Answer 23

Firefighters should not hesitate to send a Mayday message by pressing the emergency button on the readio to send an alert across the the radio network. For example “SO 16, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”

Question 24

When is an Incident Management System required to be used at incidents FRNSW attends?

Answer 24

IMS is a standardised method used to manage all types of incidents. This method is to be used at EVERY incident FRNSW attends.

Question 25

List all eight strategic functions of command the Incident Commander needs to address.

Answer 25

(1) Deployment – ensuring a steady, adequate and timely stream of appropriate resources at the incident, and knowing the position and function of each resource at all times.
(2) Command – having a strong command presence from the outset of an incident.
(3) Situation evaluation – continuously collecting and evaluating information about the incident in order to determine critical factors.
(4) Incident action planning – having an incident action plan that addresses the critical factors.
(5) Incident communications – having efficient and effective incident communications to describe the flow of information within and out of the incident.
(6) Incident structure – having an incident structure that is flexible and able to be scaled to meet the incident size and needs, with the ability to delegate functions and responsibilities as span of control is reached.
(7) Review and revision – once in operation, reviewing and revising the strategy and plan, to keep it current with the changing needs of the incident.
(8) Escalation and de-escalation – as additional officers or an Incident Management Team arrive, scaling up the strategic management level of the incident; and scaling down as operations conclude.

Question 26

Who is the only person to deploy resources at an incident?

Answer 26

The Incident Commander(IC) must be the only person to deploy resources. This ensures that the ICknows where the resources are and what they are doingand can ensure that their tasks are in line with theIncident Action plan (IAP).

Question 27

List the Smoke Management Systems found in road tunnels that could assist in clearing the smoke?

Answer 27

Road tunnel smoke management systems may use:
• longitudinal ventilation (jet fans),
• ducted ventilation,
• natural ventilation; or
• a combination of the above.

Question 28

Name and describe the two ways crews can be rested when they become fatigued at an incident.

Answer 28

(1) Recycle – Crew stops work for a short period just outside the Hot Zone, to rest, rehydrate, and replenish air cylinders if relevant. They remain accountable to IC or Sector, Group or Division commander (SGD Commander), as per the incident structure.
(2) Full rehabilitation – Crew is released and moves to the rehabilitation area. Once there, they are accountable to a Rehabilitation Officer.

Question 29

List and describe the three incident phases.

Answer 29

(1) Life at risk phase – there are savable human lives. Incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control risks to lives. A higher level of risk may be acceptable.
(2) Expanding phase – incident is likely to expand beyond accepted limits. Incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control risks to lives and property. Some level of risk may be acceptable.
(3) Contained phase – there are sufficient resources to contain incident within a defined area. There is no life at risk, or lives and property are already lost. Risk must be minimised as much as practicable.

Question 30

Who are the people authorised to ride on FRNSW appliances?

Answer 30

The people who are authorised to ride on an appliance are:
• firefighters in the course of their duty;
• employees of Fire and Rescue NSW whose duty requires their attendance at an emergency;
• members of other emergency services at the discretion of the member in charge; or
• other persons authorised by the Commissioner.

Question 31

REMOVED

Answer 31

REMOVED

Question 32

List and describe three ways foam controls and extinguishes fire.

Answer 32

Depending on technique, firefighting foam is used to control and extinguish a fire by:
• Excluding the fire’s supply of oxygen (smothering),
• Suppressing flammable vapours to stop them from igniting, or
• Cooling the surface temperature to prevent reignition.

Question 33

What are the characteristics of liquid petroleum gas?

Answer 33

Odourless, colourless and heavier than air.

Question 34

What is the term used when a liquid within a container reaches a temperature well above its boiling temperature, boils, expands and the container fails sending flammable gas outwards where it ignites.

Answer 34

The term is B.L.E.V.E

Question 35

What can be used to conduct a thermal check of an acetylene cylinder.

Answer 35

Use a thermal imaging camera (TIC) to conduct the thermal check every 15 minutes for 1 hour and record the results.
Note: Wetting the cylinder and making observations is not a thermal check. This is called a wetting test.

Question 36

What does the acronym SISIACMR stand for?

Answer 36

S.I.S.I.A.C.M.R.:
Safe approach
Incident control
Scene security
Identify hazardous materials
Assess potential harm and minimise environmental contamination
Call in resources
Monitor information
Render safe and decontaminate

Question 37

What is the most suitable extinguishing agent for rubber fires?

Answer 37

Water

Question 38

List and describe the stages of lithium-ion battery failure.

Answer 38

Stage 1: Battery Abuse Factor (cell damage); thermal, electrical or mechanical abuse.
Stage 2: Off-gas generation (heat release); occurs regardless of cell form-factor.
Stage 3: Smoke generation (ignition); catastrophic failure is imminent.
Stage 4: Fire generation (propagation); likelihood of propagation drastically increases.

Question 39

What should you complete when a work-related injury, near miss, exposure or illness occurs and in what timeframe after the occurrence should it be submitted?

Answer 39

A NIIENM form should be submitted for any incident that affects the health & safety of FRNSW workers. NIIENMs should be submitted within 24 hours of occurrence.

Question 40

If you are unable to submit or fill out a NIIENM who else can submit one for you?

Answer 40

If the injured person is unable to submit the report, their Supervisor or co-worker can submit it on their behalf.

Question 41

In New South Wales, Emergency Services carry out land-based rescues under what Act?

Answer 41

State Emergency and Rescue Management (SERM) Act 1989

Question 42

As stated in the SERM Act, 1989 who is responsible for coordinating rescue operations and for determining the priorities of action to be taken in rescue operations?

Answer 42

Section 50 Police to co-ordinate rescue operation
(Section 50 Part 1) The NSW Police Force is responsible for co-ordinating rescue operations and for determining the priorities of action to be taken in rescue operations.
(Section 50 Part 2) (Repealed)
(Section 50 Part 3) This section does not apply to a rescue operation if the control of the rescue operation is vested by law in another agency, such as—
(Section 50 Part 3a) a rescue operation in which the person or property is endangered by fire and at which a member of a Fire Brigade is in charge, or
(Section 50 Part 3b) a rescue operation which results from an emergency and which is subject to the control of another agency in accordance with Part 2.
(Section 50 Part 4) This section applies despite anything to the contrary in any other Act.

Section 51 Emergency services organisations to notify police of rescue incidents
(Section 51 Part 1) An emergency services organisation other than the NSW Police Force must, immediately after the organisation becomes aware of an incident that requires or is likely to require the rescue of any person, notify a member of the NSW Police Force of all relevant information concerning the incident.
(Section 51 Part 2) This section does not apply—
(Section 51 Part 2a) if the organisation is aware that the incident has already been notified to a member of the NSW Police Force, or
(Section 51 Part 2b) to Surf Life Saving New South Wales in relation to an incident that only requires, or is likely to only require, surf life-saving.

Question 43

FRNSW uses the YOU principle to establish priorities of safety at a rescue incident. What are these priorities of safety?

Answer 43

YOU:
Y - Yourself (and other rescuers),
O - Others (not involved eg; bystanders),
U - Unfortunate (person/s involved)

Question 44

What is the correct PPC and procedure for fire protection at an MVA?

Answer 44

Procedure for fire protection:• One firefighter to wear full structural turnout PPC and SCBA
• A manned line of 38mm hose charged to 400kPa, pump with recirculation valve open.
• If a fire occurs, charge to 800kPa at the pump to achieve 700kpa at the branch.

PPE/C must be appropriate to the task, and can include:
• Dutywear, long sleeve shirt, sleeves rolled down
• Bushfire jacket
• Firefighting boots
• Eye protection
• Hearing protection
• General purpose gloves (nitrile gloves also)
• Multi‐purpose helmet with visor
• Respiratory protection. (P2 mask/SCBA)
• High visibility vest/clothing (work safe on roads, construction sites, commercial
premises etc)

Question 45

What environments should SCBA be worn in?

Answer 45

HOTS:
H - High temperatures (also low temperatures, where the cold may damage the lungs but the firefighter is otherwise protected).
O - Oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched atmospheres. (Before entering oxygen enriched atmospheres, stop and report to the IC.)
T - Toxic atmospheres: gases, dusts, fumes, biological hazards or radiological hazards.
S - Smoke, particularly from structure, vehicle and other property fires, and heavy smoke from bushfires.

Question 46

Name the two forms that need to be completed when receiving keys to private premises from owners/occupiers.

Answer 46

Form 1 - Keys deposit – to be completed by the station commander.
Form 2 - Keys to private premises – to be completed by the applicant.

Question 47

What is a mandatory requirement to complete prior to undertaking the annual Fitness Drill?

Answer 47

It is a mandatory requirement for firefighters to annually complete a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (P.A.R.Q) prior to undertaking the drill.

Question 48

When an appliance is found to have unreported damage, the Fleet Operations Officer or Regional Maintenance Officer will notify the Station, Duty, and Zone Commander in writing. The responsible station must submit what form within 8 days?

Answer 48

The responsible station must submit an Agency Member Motor Vehicle Claim Form within 8 days.

Question 49

A fire permit issued within the ‘Bush Fire Danger’ period will be valid for a period of how many days from the date of issue?

Answer 49

During the declared Bush Fire Danger Period = 7 days maximum
Outside the Bushfire Danger Period = 14 days maximum

Question 50

According to the Fire ePermit policy, what aspect of the planned fire does the permit take into account.

Answer 50

A fire permit takes into account the safety aspect of the planned fire.

Question 51

Where should Warden Intercom Points be in a building?

Answer 51

Located:
• At E.I.C.I.E. (Chief Wardens Handset)
• Within 4 m of exit within each emergency zone
• Within 4 m of exit on each storey
• Within emergency lift shafts
• Adjacent to F.D.C.I.E if remote from E.I.C.I.E

Question 52

Name the components in an AS 2118.1 sprinkler alarm valve room.

Answer 52

(1) Main stop valve
(2) Test drain
(3) Sprinkler test facility
(4) Sprinkler alarm valve
(5) System pressure gauge
(6) Deluge valve
(7) Water supply with water supply pressure gauge

Question 53

List and describe the two control measures when dealing with live power at an incident.

Answer 53

(1) Turning off power
• Involves turning off the main switch, removing fuses and switching off circuit breakers at the switchboard. This removes internal power. Note that the consumer main is still live and poses real danger
(2) Isolating Power
• Is the best way to control an electrical hazard but this can only be done by an energy authority. They disconnect power from the network to the site.

Question 54

State the recommended procedure for firefighters to ‘turn off’ a solar power system to stop electricity feeding into the structure’s circuits or back to the electricity network if configured to do so.

Answer 54

(1) On-site consultation: determine whether it is appropriate to turn solar power system off and how best to do so.
(2) Assume switchboard is live: Don electrical safety gloves then over-gloves. Have your helmet visor down and look away.
(3) Follow the shutdown procedure: This may be on or near the switchboard or inverter. If not found, turn off the inverter main switch then turn off the solar panel main switch.
(4) Consider if benefits outweigh risks: Restrict work as far as reasonably practical to that required to protect life or prevent dangerous expansion of the incident.
(5) Isolate the power: If required, have the owner/occupier contact their electrician to isolate the power.

Question 55

When a battery energy storage system is present at a residence, there should be an indicator to alert you to this. What is an example of an indicator, located outside the switchboard.

Answer 55

Energy storage sticker, also known as an E S sticker or there may also be data sheets about the battery energy storage system type.

Question 56

List the operational actions to follow when dealing with Lithium-ion battery failure in small devices.

Answer 56

(1) Use caution when approaching the device
(2) If the device is connected to mains electricity (eg charging) ensure that electricity is switched off prior to applying water.
(3) Knock-down any fire using copious amounts of water.
(4) Cool the battery with a cooling stream of water.
(5) Submerge the device in a suitable container of water if safe to do so. Use a tool such as a long-handled shovel to move the device.
(6) If unable to submerge the device, continue cooling and conduct thermal checks every 15 minutes until ambient temperature is maintained for 60 minutes.
(7) Ensure that all cells are accounted for by searching the area around the device.
(8) Notify FireCOM that the incident involves a lithium-ion device. FireCOM will send a notification to FIRU.

Question 57

If solar panels, or the attached isolators, are on fire, in addition to the considerations with turning off an alternative power source what actions should firefighters take?

Answer 57

• Conduct firefighting from the ground or an aerial appliance. Do not get onto the roof to extinguish the fire. Do not put a ladder against the roof as the gutter may be electrified.
• Extinguish the fire with a spray nozzle, using a pulse spray in a dispersed pattern
• If the solar panel is at ground level, consider using CO2 to extinguish the fire, ensuring that there is at least 250 mm air gap between the CO2 extinguisher nozzle and any electrified components.
• NSW Fair Trading notification form to be completed at completion of incident

Question 58

REMOVED

Answer 58

REMOVED

Question 59

For your safety during “overhaul” what is it essential for you to do?

Answer 59

• Wear SCBA and a full set of firefighting clothing
• Perform atmospheric monitoring using a gas detector.

Question 60

What is the minimum PPE that can be worn at a bush fire?

Answer 60

(1) Multi purpose helmet
(2) Goggles
(3) Multi purpose jacket
(4) G P gloves
(5) Duty wear trousers
(6) Fire fighter boots
(7) P2
(8) Fire fighter gloves if undertaking direct attack

Question 61

Property protection is the act of protecting property from the impact of a wildfire. At a major wildfire, FRNSW crews generally engage in property protection roles. Name and describe the 3 strategies for carrying out property protection.

Answer 61

Line Defence Strategy - protect the perimeter of a property until resources are sufficient for an offensive attack. It involves preventing the approaching line of fire from closely approaching the property. A line defence is used when conditions would normally allow an offensive attack but there are not enough units to mount an offensive attack in time. It involves preventing the approaching line of fire from closely approaching the property.
Ember Defence Strategy - firefighter focus is on extinguishing embers and spot fires in and around structures. It is used when the approaching line of fire is too intense to be supressed by offensive means. An ember defence is used when the approaching line of fire is too intense to be
suppressed by offensive means and is producing significant ember attack.
It involves extinguishing small fires that occur in and around buildings, when and as they occur.
Firefighters operate from safe positions behind suitable shielding from the main fire front and pull back to safer refuge if needed.
Backstop Defence Strategy - firefighters retreat while fire front passes and move back in to save savable structures afterwards. A backstop defence is used when there is no safe defensible space around buildings and/or the approaching fire is so intense that firefighters cannot safely protect the
buildings during the impact of the fire. Firefighters withdraw temporarily a short distance away to a suitable safe refuge, with the intention of coming back after the fire front passes. After the main fire front subsides, they move forward to put out the property on fire. This type of defence is used when firefighters have run out of all other options.

Question 62

List all the hazards and risks at incidents involving Lithium-ion batteries in small devices.

Answer 62

• Thermal runaway
• Extreme fire behaviour
• Release of toxic vapour and gases
• Hazardous materials and leaked electrolytes
• Stranded energy
• Projectiles
• Secondary ignition

Question 63

When conducting ventilation using a fan, what is the most effective inlet or outlet ratio?

Answer 63

The most efficient ratio is 1 to 4 (where outlet 4 times larger than the inlet).

Question 64

When an LPG container is involved in fire, what area of the container is considered most crucial and a high priority area for cooling?

Answer 64

The container’s vapour space (area above the liquid) is most crucial and is to be considered a high priority area for cooling.

Question 65

When conducting ventilation with a fan, the fan should be set back approximately how far from the door.

Answer 65

The fan should be set back approximately the height of the door.

Question 66

What equipment is required for bagging contaminated gear (not PPC) at an incident to minimise the risk presented by hazardous contaminants during storage or transport?

Answer 66

(1) The appropriate bag for the type of contaminant
(a) Asbestos containment bags where asbestos is suspected
(b) Yellow clinical waste bags for waste produced by providing first aid
(c)Clear contaminated gear bags for other contaminants, including smoke
(2) Cable ties or strong tape to seal the bags
(3) A contaminated equipment tag to attach to the bag with relevant details

Question 67

You are responded to a bushfire with four Fire Rescue NSW pumpers two RFS tankers and one inspector, according to SOGs what class is the fire?

Answer 67

Class 1

Question 68

Electrical transformers in high density areas of cities maybe situated in underground vaults, if a fire occurs in one of these vaults, CO2 can be injected via a wall mounted or footpath CO2 connection box. What does the number on the connection box indicate?

Answer 68

The number on the connection box indicates the number of CO2 cylinders required to be injected.

Question 69

What factors affect voltage gradient at wires down?

Answer 69

• Composition of the ground – eg. Concrete, road surface, soil
• Moisture content
• Voltage of the electrical source

Question 70

Conductors allow electricity to easily pass through them. List five conductors.

Answer 70

• Metals (eg copper, aluminium, steel) – including ladders, fences, guttering, roofing.
• Human body.
• Timber and trees.
• Flame and dense smoke.
• Vehicle tyres
• Some fire extinguishing mediums.
• Wet or dirty rope.
• Water – including hose lines.

Question 71

Name four measures to control the risks associated with electricity.

Answer 71

(1) Stay away from the hazard. Always regard it as live until you know otherwise..
(2) Assess the risks from at least 8 metres away from the hazard..
(3) If suspected to be electrically hazardous, establish an Exclusion Zone.
(4) Have the electricity company isolate power.
(5) When leaving the incident site, if possible, provide information to the owner or other responsible person on the hazards still present at the site and the control measures in place.

Question 72

State the inventory stored in the green canvas bag of the electrical safety kit.

Answer 72

• 1 pair of insulating gloves
• 1 pair of leather overgloves
• 2 non-contact AC Voltage detectors, either Modiewark Rescue or G.L.M Mini Rescue

Question 73

When using the gloves from the electrical safety kit, what is the correct donning sequence?

Answer 73

(1) Put on electrical gloves first
(2) Put over-gloves on over the electrical gloves to protect the electrical glove from damage
(3) The cuff of the electrical glove must extend beyond the cuff of the over-glove
(4) The cuff of the electrical glove must be above the cuffs and sleeves of your PPC

Question 74

FRNSW has an interagency notification policy, list the reasons NSW Police are required to be notified.

Answer 74

• Possible Terrorist Activity
• Crime investigation
• Site, crowd, traffic and evacuation management
• Rescue Incidents

Question 75

You are responded to fire in a Correctional facility, centre or complex operated by government agencies or private contractors. On arrival what actions should be taken?

Answer 75

• Identify and liaise with the Emergency Coordinator
• While waiting to enter, start developing an IAP by accessing information – i.e. PIP’s, SOG’s and utilities
• Where entry to the facility is delayed, nominate a staging area and inform FireCOMS to inform responding resources. Remain in staging area until met by Emergency Coordinator. Notify FireCOM if entry is delayed.
• Always remain outside the facility on standby if it is unsafe to enter
• At the main entrance, access the Red Fire Emergency Plan Box containing the FRNSW PIP, Safety data sheets folder, site plans, and LEP’s and brief crew about the facility.
• Prepare the appliance and secure equipment before entering the facility. List all equipment to be taken in.

Question 76

What is the definition of workplace bullying?

Answer 76

Workplace bullying is repeated and unreasonable behaviour directed towards a worker or a group of workers that creates a risk to health and safety. A single incident of reasonable management action is not bullying.

Question 77

REMOVED

Answer 77

a. Fire & Rescue NSW Act 1989, No. 192

Question 78

List 5 Duties or Accountabilities required in the ‘Firefighter’ role description.

Answer 78

(1) Contribute to the station’s community prevention, risk reduction planning and engagement programs and activities.
(2) Attend fire and other emergency incidents providing expert knowledge and assistance commensurate with rank.
(3) Contribute to the Station’s operational readiness, including the maintenance of appliances, tools and equipment.
(4) Assist with investigations into the cause of fires.
(5) Support the Station Officer in actions to achieve FRNSW’s goals of protecting life, property and other initiatives under the Plus Plan.
(6) Undertake station duties including the completion of records, reports, correspondence and returns to facilitate the general running of the station.

Question 79

What general rule should be followed when tasking crews at a residential structure fire?

Answer 79

Task, Location & Objective.

Question 80

What is recommended configuration for relay pumping operation?

Answer 80

The recommended configuration for relay pumping is:
(1) A Base pump at the water source (open or closed water supply) and should be the largest capacity appliance
(2) A Relay pump 5 lengths between base pump and relay pump
(3) A fireground pump 7 lengths relay to relay pump or fireground pump
(4) A relay must be a minimum of 2 lines so that if one line is damaged, water can still be delivered to the fireground whilst the other is being repaired.

Question 81

‘Fire Safety and Investigation’ there are four classifications of cause. Name and describe them.

Answer 81

(1) Accidental. Fire which starts accidently from human activity or influence.
(2) Incendiary. Fire which starts from deliberate and intentional human act.
(3) Natural. Fire which starts by a natural act without human intervention or influence.
(4) Undetermined. Fire where the cause cannot be identified.

Question 82

Whilst participating in a community event at the local oval and armed offender attack occurs. What actions should you take?

Answer 82

(1) Escape. As a priority, remove yourself and others from close proximity to the offender/s or areas they might reasonably access. Consider removing or leaving cumbersome equipment so you can move quickly. If it is safe to do so, snatch and grab as many casualties as possible when exiting. Do not stop to provide first aid.
(2) Hide. If you don’t believe you can safely escape, consider sheltering in place. Mute all communications equipment, including private mobile phones, so as not to give away your hiding place. Do not turn off phones as text messaging may be used to update you on the situation. Constantly re-assess the situation and your options, based on the best available information.
(3) Tell. The more information you can pass on to FireCOM or the Police, the better, but never at the risk of your own safety or the safety of others.

Question 83

List five duties of the BA Control Operator.

Answer 83

(1) Establish BA Control as close to the entry/exit point as possible.
(2) Check and enter all details on the BA Control Board.
(3) Ensure that BA team members are identified by a call sign determined by the incident communications plan.
(4) Calculate and monitor entry and exit times.
(5) Monitor all radio communications within the sector.
(6) When exit time is reached: − Immediately contact the individual wearer or BA team leader. − If unable to contact, notify their Commander. − Activate the RIT immediately when required and notify the IC.
(7) Indicate to exiting BA crews the locations of the BA staging area and Rehabilitation Area.
(8) Provide updates to their Commander as required. A second radio transceiver may be required for communicating on the tactical channel.
(9) Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when extended duration BA (EDBA) is in use. This is indicated by the red tag from the EDBA twin manifold being attached to the wearer’s yellow tally on the board.
(10) Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when aerial appliance operators are wearing BA.
(11) Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when extension facemasks are in use:
11a. − With air trolley BA (ATBA).
11b. − On aerial appliances.
11c. − With auxiliary facemask from another BA set.
11d. − With an extension airline from a standalone BA set.

NOTE. When auxiliary facemasks are used, two operators breathe from the one BA set. BACOs must at least halve estimated operating times recorded on the BA Control Board.
(13) Notifying the IC or Sector/Group Commander if they require assistance.

Question 84

The numbers relayed back from FireCOM for the Hazmat Action Guide (HAG) sheet are used to determine PPE, form, hazards, effect with water, action, firefighting, and personnel decontamination. TX at the end of the transmission means there is text. What does the text usually refer to?

Answer 84

This TX or text usually relates to Additional Personal Protection (APP).

Question 85

What can P2 particle masks be used to protect against?

Answer 85

(1) Known low concentrations of inert dust, such as those produced when cutting metal or wood.
(2) Concrete, stone and masonry cutting operations where the work piece can be kept wet.
(3) The particles, but not the gases such as CO, in bushfire smoke.
(4) Contamination by body fluids.

Question 86

Describe the life at risk phase.

Answer 86

Where there are savable human lives. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control the risks to lives. A higher level of risk may be acceptable.

Question 87

What three principles should you keep in mind when forcing entry?

Answer 87

(1) enter without undue delay;
(2) enter with the minimum of structural damage; and.
(3) enter so as to provide access to as much of the building as possible.

Question 88

You respond to a building fire and the contaminated run- off/pollutant is impacting a canal that runs into a creek. Which agencies are you required to notify?

Answer 88

(1) Environment Protection Authority
(2) Roads and Maritime Services, Transport for NSW

Question 89

REMOVED

Answer 89

REMOVED

Question 90

What are the three basic principles for communication at incidents?

Answer 90

The three basic principles for communication at incidents are:
(a) to use the principles of ICS and ensure an effective span of control;
(b) to establish a flow of information at all levels of the incident, without overwhelming the IC or ComCen with superfluous data; and
(c) to ensure the safety of firefighters by using effective communication.

Question 91

REMOVED

Answer 91

REMOVED

Question 92

Name three activities Emergency Response Team can participate in.

Answer 92

• Specialist advice to the IC relating to hazards, industrial processes and installed fire systems.
• Operation of valves and other industrial processes.
• Fire attack under the control of NSWFB officers.

Question 93

What is de-escalation?

Answer 93

De-escalation is the scaling back of FRNSW involvement at an incident. Both the strategic and tactical levels scale back and delegated functions are handed back to the IC. The IC determines that the incident has been contained and that resources can be released.

Question 94

The Emergency Control Organisation may consist of people identified by coloured helmets, hats, caps, vests, or tabards. Name the members and the identifying colour.

Answer 94

• WHITE is worn by the Chief Warden, Deputy Chief Warden or Communications Officer
• YELLOW is worn by the Floor Warden or Area Wardens
• RED is worn by Wardens
• GREEN BACKGROUND with WHITE CROSS is worn by the First Aid Officer

Question 95

What are the correct meanings for the numerical codes:
- Code 3
- Code 6
- Code 4
- Code 1
- Code 7

Answer 95

Code 3 – Arrived at incident or move-up station (state location or address).
Code 6 – Incident in Rural Fire Service district
Code 4 – Available to respond
Code 1 – Responding to an incident or move-up (Clarify if under normal road conditions)
Code 7 – Unavailable to respond (State reason why)

Question 96

What features are included in a Fire Control Room?

Answer 96

A Fire Control Room is usually at or below ground level. Features include:
(1) a fire isolated room with a 2-hour fire rating and separate ventilation.
(2) two exit points, to the front of the building and directly into a fire exit.
(3) Fire Indicator Panel.
(4) Fire Fan Control Panel.
(5) Master Emergency Control Panel.
(6) controls for fire pumps.
(7) Security Alarm and Control Panels.
(8) telephone (direct line outside).
(9) whiteboard, corkboard and plan table.
(10) Tactical Fire Plans (maps and schematics).

Question 97

List the important issues to consider when cutting into an Insulated Sandwich Panel (ISP) at a large cold storage facility.

Answer 97

Important issues to consider include:
• if there is sufficient time and resources available.
• leaked refrigerant gas which may be pocketed behind panels or in ducting
• electrical wiring or refrigerant gas pipes that may be located behind the panels
• the potential to generate sparks that could ignite flammable refrigerant gas or
ESP panel cores
• Weakening of the structure when multiple panels are cut.
• An increase in fire activity due to the introduction of air;

Question 98

You are attending a 3rd Alarm structure fire and note the current incident commander is being overwhelmed by radio messages. Following span of control rules, what is the optimal amount an individual resources you should communicate with?

Answer 98

An individual should only have 5 people reporting to them (optimal is 1:5 ratio), but this can vary between 1:3 to 1:7, depending upon the activity, geography, or nature of the incident.

Question 99

It is the responsibility of the Incident Commander (IC) to ensure that in general, each tactical priority has been addressed. When involving structure fires, the IC should consider how many sides of the fire?

Answer 99

Consider the “seven sides” of the fire: front, rear, both sides, top, bottom and inside.

Question 100

On arrival at an incident, you observe the EWIS is operating. Upon closer inspection you note it has defects. What actions should you take?

Answer 100

If any defects are noted, advise the NSWFB Fire Safety Division to have the matter investigated. Do not initiate any action yourself.

Question 101

You attend a Hazmat incident involving Phosgene, you appreciate the importance of correct spelling of a substance when transmitting messages to Comms. You are requested to relay the message using the phonetic alphabet. What is the correct phonetic alphabet transmission for Phosgene?

Answer 101

P – Papa
H – Hotel
O – Oscar
S – Sierra
G – Golf
E – Echo
N – November
E – Echo

Question 102

An MVA has occurred between a truck and two cars requiring the attendance of a rescue unit, the MVA has occurred on the M5 Motorway in the GSA. There are multiple emergency services within NSW that are responsible for rescue incidents. Who determines which emergency service will send a rescue unit to this rescue incident?

Answer 102

NSW Police will determine which emergency service will send a Rescue unit to rescue incidents.

Question 103

Fumigation is a process of applying a pesticide chemical to a sealed area for a period, generally to treat insects or other vermin. The pesticide is applied in gas form (or a state that produces a gas) to the area. If a firefighter is exposed to chemicals at a fumigation what actions need to be taken on arrival back at station?

Answer 103

On return to station:
(1) Have the firefighter shower and dress in clean clothing.
(2) Record the exposure in the Occurrence Book and in the eAIRS report.
(3) Ensure that Notification of Injury, Illness, Exposure or Near-Miss (NIIENM) form is completed.

Question 104

FRNSW priorities guide the strategy and incident action plan (IAP) for the incident. What are our priorities at an incident?

Answer 104

• The first priority is the safety of firefighters.
• The second priority is protecting savable lives.
• The third priority is protecting savable property and the environment.
Resources should not be committed to save what is already lost.

Question 105

REMOVED

Answer 105

REMOVED

Question 106

Describe onsite decontamination.

Answer 106

• Onsite decontamination occurs as people and equipment leave the Hot Zone to recycle, when entering rehabilitation, or when leaving the incident. All people and equipment that have been in the Hot Zone are considered to have been exposed to contaminants and require decontamination.
• The aim of decontamination is to ensure zero exposure for firefighters, with all contaminates removed and left at the incident, where possible. All PPE, including boots, require cleaning before leaving the incident.
• All breathing apparatus need to be cleaned after exposure to reduce contamination by carcinogens.
• Helmets are to be cleaned on-scene and then contained (bagged

Question 107

During a bushfire with CFUs, list the roles and responsibilities of CFU members.

Answer 107

• like all residents, must follow Fire Danger Rating instructions and their Bushfire Survival Plan.
• do not fight fires or enter bushland; they are only empowered to protect properties in their area of activity from spot fires and ember attack.
• are no different to other residents during a bushfire, and do not have any authority, responsibility or role in FRNSW bushfire operations.
• must obey instructions from FRNSW firefighters or other emergency service agencies to deactivate and/or evacuate.
• after the front has passed, can carry out mopping up on their area of activity, freeing up firefighters to respond to the moving fire front.

Question 108

A medical emergency access incident is an actual or probable situation where either the Police Rescue Coordinator or the Ambulance Service of NSW (ASNSW) Communication Centre Manager considers serious. What do they consider a person at risk of if access is not gained quickly?

Answer 108

• a patient is at risk of further serious injury or death if medical assistance is not provided quickly, and
• a physical barrier or incorporated security system requires the assistance of an accredited rescue unit and/or other resource with the capability to gain access to the patient.

Question 109

Workers must not be in the workplace with a blood alcohol concentration of how many grams or above of alcohol per 210 litres of breath.

Answer 109

0.02 grams or above

Question 110

What actions should you take upon noticing signs of structural collapse?

Answer 110

• Notify all personnel in the collapse zone
• Notify SO or Sector commander
• Evacuate premises
• Set up exclusion zone
• Use appropriate water streams

Question 111

Radio codes for automatic fire alarms (AFAs) are used by the Incident Commander (IC) to send an incident completed (Stop) message to FireCOM at the conclusion of an AFA-reported incident. When AFA call is to an actual fire - i.e., one which FRNSW has been alerted to by the activation of an AFA or manual call point. What is required to be reported to FireCOM?

Answer 111

Use code 100 where an AFA call is to an actual fire – ie one which FRNSW has been alerted to by the activation of an AFA or manual call point. The IC must ensure that a detailed message is sent with the 100 code. The code is passed to eAIRS, but, on return to station, the eAIRS report needs to be updated to reflect the nature of the incident.

Question 112

Describe each letter of the acronym LACES.

Answer 112

Lookouts —know the current fire behaviour, location and size in relation to crew location.
Awareness —be situationally aware
Communications — maintain communication.
Escape Routes — Identify two escape routes.
Safety Zones — Identify safety zones (refuge areas)

Question 113

List the Fire Danger Ratings (FDR) ratings.

Answer 113

Catastrophic
Extreme
High
Moderate
No rating

Question 114

When sending radio messages, ensure they are easy to understand and hear. How should they be formulated?

Answer 114

All radio messages must follow the Conditions, Actions, Needs (CAN) format, to succinctly describe the conditions present, the actions being taken, and any needs. The incident management system stresses that communications must follow the incident structure, with communication only occurring up or down one level.

Question 115

There are three strategies used during bushfires operations. Name and describe them.

Answer 115

(1) Offensive Strategy - FRNSW initiates offensive operations at bushfires. The factors that determine the success of an offensive operation are the location and size of the attack and support for the attacking crew.
Direct attack is at the fire edge to extinguish or control the flames directly, eg applying water, smothering with foam or soil, beating, or starving of fuel by raking the fuel into the fire. This then becomes the established control line.
Parallel attack is used to control the intensity of the fire. A fire line is constructed parallel to, and just far enough from the fire edge, to allow firefighters and equipment to work effectively away from heat and smoke. There are many factors that determine the distance from the edge including terrain; number of firefighters available; fire’s rate of spread; the fire’s intensity.
Indirect attack involves falling back some distance from the fire perimeter – this could be up to a few kilometres at times – and burning back from a strong control line such as natural barriers, roads, tracks, firebreaks, or from trails or fire lines constructed.
Where a fire is too intense for direct or parallel attack eg when flame height is greater than 3 metres, spotting is occurring, or the terrain is inaccessible to firefighters, the indirect method of control may be used. If the fire’s behaviour is too severe, an indirect attack may only be possible on the flanks of the fire.

(2) Defensive Strategy -
The first-priority in defensive operations is safety and all crews must always be accounted for. Focus of effort is concentrated on property protection or structural triage.
Line defence is used when conditions would normally allow an offensive attack (eg the fire is not intense, weather conditions are favourable), but there are not enough resources to mount an offensive attack in time. It involves preventing the approaching line of fire from closely approaching the property.
Ember is used when the approaching line of fire is too intense to be suppressed by offensive means and is producing significant ember attack. It involves extinguishing small fires that occur in and around buildings.
Firefighters operate from safe positions behind suitable shielding from the main fire or pull back to a safer refuge, until the main fire front has passed.
Backstop is used when there is no safe defensible space around buildings; the approaching fire is so intense that firefighters cannot safely protect the buildings.
Firefighters withdraw temporarily a short distance away to suitable safe refuges, with the intention of coming back after the fire passes.

(3) Safeguarding strategy -
When offensive or defensive strategies are no longer viable with intense fires under the worst conditions, the actions during safeguarding strategy, while not fire suppression, warns, escorts (moves) and protects community members to ensure their safety.

Question 116

To minimise the risk of heat related illness, what is the minimum level of PPE that should be worn at a bushfire.

Answer 116

To minimise the risk of heat-related illness, level 2 PPE must be worn (at a minimum) unless a higher risk is present. Level 2 PPE refers to:
• Multi-purpose coat
• Duty wear trousers and belt
• Multi-purpose helmet
• Firefighting boots and socks
• Firefighting gloves
• Goggles
• Protective hood (carried)
• Respiratory protection (P2 particle mask minimum)
• Duty Wear shirt or T-shirt (worn underneath)

Question 117

Name three symtpoms of heat stress.

Answer 117

(1) Dizziness
(2) Weakness
(3) Nausea

Question 118

The status of a bushfire is the degree to which it is under control. What terminology is to be used in radio messages and sitreps to FireCOM?

Answer 118

• Going
• Being Controlled
• Contained
• Patrol
• Out

Question 119

REMOVED

Answer 119

REMOVED

Question 120

Describe offensive and defensive firefighting strategies.

Answer 120

An offensive strategy aims at immediately limiting fire spread, operating in close proximity to the hazards.
A defensive strategy aims at life and property protection and containment of large, rapidly moving fires, operating away from the hazards.

Question 121

What does the Incident Action (IAP) usually describe?

Answer 121

The IAP describes, at any point in time, the risk assessment, strategy and objectives, incident structure, layout of the incident, and any other relevant information.

Question 122

REMOVED

Answer 122

REMOVED

Question 123

At a high-rise structure fire, what are the actions of the first arriving Station Commander?

Answer 123

Because the first-arriving crew needs to commence operations on the fire floor as soon as possible, the Station Commander will accompany them. The first Station Commander becomes the Sector Commander for the fire floor, establishes a Forward Control Point and commences fire operations from the floor below the fire. The actions of the first arriving station commander are:
• identify the fire location from the Fire Indicator Panel (FIP), Sub Indicator Panel (SIP) or occupants
• brief the Pump Operator according to the situation. Actions may include:
− monitor communications
− establish BA Control
− leave lift/fire control room/pump room keys for next arriving stations
− send a sitrep message to the ComCen as instructed by the Station Commander
and provide a sitrep to next arriving officer.
• go to the reported fire floor with the crew using the emergency lift to the floor below the fire floor—if safe to use—or the fire stairs
• familiarise the crew with floor layout
• charge a line of 38mm hose from the fire stairs or the floor below before entering the fire floor
• use the fire stairs to the fire floor
• conduct fire operations on the fire floor.

Question 124

Twin bore tunnels, where traffic flows occur in separate tunnels, the tunnels are usually separated by 4-hour fire-resisting construction. Crossover passages between the tunnels are usually how many metres apart?

Answer 124

120 meters

Question 125

List the roles of FRNSW at incidents involving bomb threats or detonations?

Answer 125

The role of FRNSW at incidents involving bomb threats or detonations is to:
• Support NSW Police Force or the Australian Defence Force (ADF) by protecting life and property from the effects of fires or hazardous materials that may occur.
• Act as the lead agency in urban search and rescue (USAR) operations, if required.
• If requested, assist NSW Ambulance.

Question 126

When referring to storage facilities describe-
- Bulk
- Flatbed storage
- Ventilated
- Sealed

Answer 126

Bulk - more than 4 tonnes (net), or more than 4 cubic metres of a substance, not in individual packages.
Flatbed storage - a single level building or other structure designed for the storage of solids in bulk of more than 40 tonnes.
Ventilated - containers open to the atmosphere, including silos with explosion vents that have activated.
Sealed - a grain container is sealed during fumigation and semi sealed at other times – includes semi-sealed and oxygen limiting containers.

Question 127

Standards Australia refers to Breathing Apparatus (BA) as supplied air respirators. Fire and Rescue NSW uses positive pressure supplied air respirators to provide the highest level of protection. Name and describe them.

Answer 127

• Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).  
• Extended duration breathing apparatus (EDBA): An SCBA set in twin cylinder configuration which allows firefighters to work for approximately twice the time as single cylinder SCBA.
• Airline respirator: An extension facemask with an airline supplied from a source of compressed air.

Question 128

What are the three ways decontamination can be implemented.

Answer 128

(1) Standard decontamination
(2) Emergency decontamination
(3) Mass decontamination

Question 129

What are the main considerations for protecting people at radiological incidents?

Answer 129

Time – minimise the duration of exposure.
Distance – maximise the distance from the radiological source.
Shielding – maximise shielding between the radiological source and people.

Question 130

What are three types of radiation.

Answer 130

The three main types of ionising radiation are:
(1) Alpha particles
(2) Beta particles
(3) Gamma rays and x-rays

Question 131

Materials that contain asbestos are known as asbestos containing materials (ACM). If asbestos is encountered at an incident, as far as practical, employ dust suppression tactics and leave ACM in situ. Provide three examples of dust suppression tactics.

Answer 131

• Minimise disturbance – ie restrict salvage and overhaul work.
• Keep it lightly dampened down with fog spray.
• Apply a bonding agent such as a foam blanket or coloured PVA/water mix.
• Bag into marked asbestos containment bags.
• Wrap or cover with salvage plastic sheeting.

Question 132

Materials that contain asbestos are known as asbestos containing materials (ACM). There are generally two categories of ACM name and describe them.

Answer 132

• Friable - Any ACM that is in powder form, or that can be crumbled, pulverised, or reduced to powder by hand pressure when dry. Examples are loose-fill insulation, pipe lagging, and fire damaged ACM.
• Nonfriable - Any ACM that is not friable, including materials containing asbestos fibres reinforced with a bonding compound. (Non-friable ACM that has been reduced to powder by fire or severe impact will become friable.) Examples include fibre cement sheeting (‘fibro’), corrugated or moulded fibre cement, and electrical switchboards.

Question 133

The minimum number of new PIPs to be completed by each platoon yearly is?

Answer 133

A minimum of four (4) new PIPs a year must be completed by each platoon

Question 134

Why does FRNSW conduct hydrant inspections?

Answer 134

The purpose of hydrant inspections is to:
• ensure that hydrants work when needed
• notify water authorities of problems with hydrants, and
• familiarise crews with hydrants in their area

Question 135

AARs are held for the purpose of reviewing organisational performance, resulting in a series of observations, which are analysed to produce thematic insights. What time frame should a Type 1 review be conducted?

Answer 135

AARs are held after all incidents, particularly where a safety issue has been identified and may also be held following exercises and major events. The principles can be applied to any event or exercise and may be as simple as a mess room discussion, or a formal strategic review. AARs must be held after any activation of the Major Incident Management Plan (MIMP).

Question 136

FRNSW has shared values with the NSW Government Sector. Name all the shared values.

Answer 136

• Integrity
• Trust
• Service, and
• Accountability.

Question 137

Any offer of a gift or benefit in excess of $50 or not token in nature, whether it is accepted or not, must be declared and registered with who?

Answer 137

Professional Standards (PSB).

Question 138

An infection occurs when another organism enters your body and causes disease. There are six main transmission routes, list four.

Answer 138

• Direct contact transmission with blood or body substances
• Indirect contact transmission
• Droplet transmission
• Airborne transmission
• Gastrointestinal transmission
• Vector borne (Zoonotic) transmission.

Question 139

What is the unit of measurement for external radiation?

Answer 139

The unit of measurement of radiation is a sievert (symbol Sv) Frequently abbreviated to dose. A sievert is a large unit therefore, measurements are more likely to be given as millisieverts (mSv) or microsieverts (μSv).

Question 140

The risk of developing asbestos related disease depends on many factors. List three factors.

Answer 140

Concentration of exposure: Greater quantities of inhaled fibres will increase the likelihood of developing disease.
Duration of exposure: The longer the duration you are exposed, the greater the likelihood of developing disease.
Fibre characteristics: The type of fibres inhaled have an effect on the likelihood of developing disease. Shorter, straight fibres are more likely to be breathed deeper into the lungs.

Question 141

List and define the three zone systems as outlined in SOGs Scene Security.

Answer 141

• Hot Zone – where no personnel enter until a DRA determines appropriate actions and level of PPE.
• Warm Zone – where Fire and Rescue NSW conducts its operations.
• Cold Zone – where the Incident Control Point and support agencies are located and where the Police implement overall site control.

Question 142

Operators of aged care facilities have emergency plans, which include a staged evacuation plan. List the stage numbers including the stage FRNSW would likely be involved.

Answer 142

Stage 1 – Residents removed from immediate danger – evacuated to an adjoining room
Stage 2 – (FRNSW likely to be involved from this stage) – Residents removed from adjoining rooms and corridoors, away from the emergency (fire, smoke, gas)- evacuated to an adjoining fire or smoke compartment, or another floor below the emergency.
Stage 3 – Residents completely evacuated from the building – evacuated to a nominated safe assembley area.

Question 143

During bushfire operations safeguarding strategy is not fire suppression but can be used when defensive operations are not safe. Describe the actions taken in this strategy.

Answer 143

When offensive or defensive strategies are no longer viable with intense fires under the worst conditions, the actions during safeguarding strategy, while not fire suppression, warns, escorts (moves) and protects community members to ensure their safety. 

Question 144

At a high-rise structure fire, what area provides a safe location with building communications, control equipment and plans?

Answer 144

The Fire Control Room (FCR) provides a safe location with building communications, control equipment and plans.

Question 145

In some cases, mostly at larger structures and complexes it may not be appropriate to turn off power to the entire structure. List three of these structures or complexes.

Answer 145

• Industrial complexes – some processes may be difficult to shut down quickly
• High-rise buildings – lights or lifts may be needed during evacuation of residents
• Health care facilities – life-sustaining equipment may be in use.

Question 146

When installing a smoke alarm in a residential dwelling, what is the most suitable fixing method to attach to surfaces.

Answer 146

Use heavy-duty double-sided tape.

Question 147

The level of risk can be identified by a colour. What are these colours?

Answer 147

Red – High Risk Incidents
Blue- Medium Risk Incidents
Green – Low Risk Incident

Question 148

Sexual Harassment is against the law and never acceptable. What constitutes sexual harassment as described in the Act?

Answer 148

 Anti Discrimination Act 1977 (NSW) defines sexual harassment as a person making an unwelcome sexual advance, or an unwelcome request for sexual favours, or engaging in other unwelcome conduct of a sexual nature in relation to the other person in circumstances in which a reasonable person, having regard to all the circumstances, would have anticipated that the other person would be offended, humiliated or intimidated.

Question 149

List the requirements regarding qualifications for a full or part change of shift.

Answer 149

Qualifications of replacements Replacement firefighters must have similar qualifications required to meet the needs of the position being filled on the particular shift, e.g. rescue, hazmat, pumper or aerial operator qualifications.
Duty Commanders can refuse applications for part or full change of shift if the replacement firefighter does not have the required qualifications.

Question 150

Arrangement for a full or part change of shift- The applicant must submit the form to their Station Commander or Supervisor at least how many hours in advance?

Answer 150

At least 24 hours in advance.

Question 151

What is the definition of a hazardous material incident?

Answer 151

Hazardous material incident means an actual or impending land-based spillage or other escape of hazardous material that causes or threatens to cause injury or death or damage to property.

Question 152

According to the NSW RFS and FRNSW Memorandum of Understanding, when responding to AFAs within the jurisdictional, responsibility of the RFS, the first arriving brigade can de activate the local alarm, who can carry out resetting of the alarm?

Answer 152

Resetting of the alarm will only be carried out by FRNSW.

Question 153

When must each FRNSW-owned or leased workplace be inspected by each year?

Answer 153

Zone Commanders and Managers are to ensure that each FRNSW-owned or leased workplace is inspected by 31 May each year.

Question 154

REMOVED

Answer 154

REMOVED

Question 155

When using a hydrant booster, the IC will instruct the pump operator to run the hydrant booster system in one of three modes. List and describe all three.

Answer 155

Stand by mode
(1) Connect up to four 70 mm hoses from the feed or street hydrant to the collector.
(2) Connect an equal number of 70 mm hoses from the deliveries to booster inlets.
(3) Remove leather strap and test movement of the main wheel valve.
(4) Note the reading on the booster pressure gauge.
(5) Advise IC ‘Hydrant/Sprinkler booster is now in Standby mode’.
(6) Await instructions from the IC to go to another mode.

Activation mode
(1) Determine the required operating pressure from the IC.
(2) Connect up to four 70 mm hoses from the feed or street hydrant to the collector and open the feed hydrants.
(3) Connect an equal number of 70 mm hoses from the deliveries to the boost inlets and open the deliveries.
NOTE: The pump is bypassing the main wheel valve and supplying water at the same pressure
(4) Remove leather strap and close the main wheel valve. (This will prevent backflow and contamination of the public water supply)
(5) Increase pressure to the required level (allow 30 kPa per floor).
(6) Advise IC ‘Hydrant booster is now in Activation mode at … kPa’.
(7) Maintain pressure and flow, especially when hydrant pump is running.
(8) Await instructions from the IC to vary the pressure or go to another mode.

Deactivation mode
(1) Reduce pressure and disengage the pump.
(2) Open the main wheel valve and restore the leather strap.
(3) Shut off the feed hydrants to the collectors.
(4) Shut down the deliveries to the boost inlets.
(5) Remove the hose.
(6) Shut down the hydrant pump to further reduce pressure if required.

Question 156

Every workplace should have a prominently displayed Health & Safety Notice Board, list all documents that should be attached?

Answer 156

• SIRA Poster - If you get injured at work
• Commissioner’s Safety Statement
• Safety and Wellbeing Plan 2021-2022
• FRNSW Return to Work Policy and Program Summary
• Workplace Evacuation Diagrams – Email your request to propertyhelpdesk@fire.nsw.gov.au
• WHS Issue Resolution Flowchart
• Guide - NIIENM Submission Workflow
• Safety information and Contacts
• Safety Representatives Template
• First Aid Officers Template (not necessary for stations)
• Fire Warden Template (not necessary for stations)

Question 157

Smoke screen security devices produce a barrier of dense white fog when a monitored security alarm system is activated. FRNSW may be responded to buildings where the smoke screen has been activated and mistaken for a fire. What are two things’ firefighters should consider before entering the building?

Answer 157

Firefighters should consider that:
• intruders may still be in the building;
• a real fire may have set off motion detectors and activated the smoke screen device.

Question 158

What is the definition of thermal capacity?

Answer 158

The amount of heat absorbed for any given increase in temperature.

Question 159

Flash fires and dust explosions are similar in conditions. Three conditions occur in both flash fires and dust explosions. Which conditions do NOT occur in both?

Answer 159

A dust explosion is a flash fire that occurs in a confined space. A dust explosion includes a rapid build-up of excessive pressures. The explosive chemical reaction must occur in a confined space.

Question 160

REMOVED

Answer 160

REMOVED

Question 161

During a bushfire, a helicopter is carrying out hot refuelling operations to prepare for ongoing water bombing operations. A designated Fire Protection Crew should follow what procedures?

Answer 161

When working with water bombing aircraft fire crews should:
• Be alert, watch and listen for the noise of low flying aircraft. If near a water bombing target, move to a safe distance clear of the target area.
• Evacuate the area, when seeing an aircraft make a dummy run, and take cover. Dummy runs are often conducted by the pilot to correctly identify the target.
Helicopter pilots will often use a siren to warn that they are about to water bomb.
Forward Commanders are to ensure that ground crews are cleared from target areas before water is released.
Fire protection operations for helicopter hot refulling:
Locate the appliance uphill, upwind and at least 50 metres from:
• the helicopter landing site
• fuel pumps and fuel storage areas
• any incident on the airbase.
During refuelling, firefighters in full PPE will stand by with lines of hose charged, foam eductor attached and B Class foam ready to be inducted.
Prevent water or foam streams from hitting moving rotors as this may cause catastrophic failure of the rotors and cause serious injury or death for people nearby.
When life is not at risk, advice should be sought on how to minimise damage to the aircraft before applying foam or water streams.
When life is at risk, the NSWFB Commander should direct firefighters to apply foam to a fuel fire immediately.

Question 162

A six-level building has a fire burning on the third-level. Heat smoke and fire gases are gradually rising through vertical openings and spreading to floors above the fire. What factors will mostly affect the levels reached by these stratified layers?

Answer 162

Other factors affecting the levels reached by these stratified layers include:
• the type of fuel in the fire;
• size of the fire;
• size of the internal openings;
• height of the building; and
• the weather.

Question 163

At a 4th alarm industrial unit fire, the Incident Commander (IC) had assigned Sector Commanders, a Safety Officer and a Staging Officer with four pumps initially in Staging. The IC later requested an extra six firefighters and a Station Commander from Staging, but there was only one pump in Staging. Why was this error not identified?

Answer 163

The Staging Officers has not advised the IC when spare resources in Staging were low, or had fallen below the number specified by the IC.

Question 164

You are responding to a fire call in a Scania 320 pumper through small roundabouts in wet weather and the driver reports that the vehicle’s brakes are operating independently and intermittently. In accordance with the Operations Bulletin 2014- 02, what actions should be taken?

Answer 164

The ESP system cannot be disabled in Scania P320 pumpers. Scania P320 pumpers should not be driven on a surface likely to result in significant wheel slippage. If drivers of Scania P320 pumpers are continually activating the ESP system, they are travelling too quickly for the road conditions and must alter their driving behaviour.

Question 165

Provide a detailed description of Hazard and Risk.

Answer 165

A hazard is anything in the workplace that has the potential to cause harm to a person. Hazards can be an object or thing; for example, an acetylene cylinder; a hazardous manual task; or the way work is done.

Hazards are often grouped into categories by their type, for instance:
• Physical hazards ‐ such as plant & equipment
• Chemical hazards ‐ such as hazardous substances
• Ergonomic hazards ‐ such as hazardous manual tasks
• Psychosocial hazards ‐ such as critical incidents

A risk is the harm that may occur to a person exposed to a hazard.
The level of risk is dependant on the severity of harm (consequence) that may be caused and the likelihood of that harm occurring.
Consequences:
Insignificant, Minor, Moderate, Major and Extreme
Likelihood:
Almost Certain, Likely, Possible, Unlikely and Rare
Risk evaluation results/scores:
Very Low (1-3), Low (4-7), Moderate (8-15), High (16-20), Very High (21-25)

Question 166

REMOVED

Answer 166

REMOVED

Question 167

REMOVED

Answer 167

REMOVED

Question 168

What is the Safety Officer responsible for? List five.

Answer 168

Safety Officer role
• Identify unsafe conditions or operations and report these to the IC (or Operations Officer if in place).
• Correct unsafe work practices through the appropriate commander. If this affects strategy and tactics, inform the IC so that the incident action plan can be reviewed.
• Communicate with commanders, to identify safety concerns and the control measures implemented.
• Identify hazards likely to affect the safety, health, or welfare of personnel. Through the appropriate commander, ensure all those at the incident are properly briefed on these hazards, including measures to eliminate, prevent, or mitigate risks.
• Assist the IC to complete the operational risk assessment and the risk assessment worksheet. Alternatively, conduct the operational risk assessment for the IC and communicate the assessment to the IC.
• Confirm that all health and safety systems are in place – eg breathing apparatus control, rehabilitation, health monitoring.
• Confirm that all utilities are identified and rendered safe.
• Confirm that all those at the incident are aware of the location of the hazard zone, any exclusion zones, and any other designated areas.
• Request the appointment of additional Safety Officers if needed.
• Maintain awareness of the incident communications plan and incident action plan.

Question 169

FRNSW use different methods to ventilate a structure. All ventilation methods require safety precautions. What safety precautions should you practice during vertical or trench ventilation?

Answer 169

Safety precautions that you should practice during vertical or trench ventilation:
• don’t walk on spongy roofs. Sponginess in the roof is usually a sign that structural members have been weakened;
• take care to prevent firefighters from sliding and falling;
• exercise caution when working near electric wires;
• ensure that firefighters making the opening are standing to the windward side of the cut and wearing the correct protective equipment;
• watch for indications of weakening structure or other hazards;
• apply extreme caution when using power tools;
• keep a firm footing;
• always have a means of retreat

Question 170

You are performing a fire duty after a fire at a factory. The cause is yet to be determined; the Fire Investigation and Research Unit (FIRU) and Police are at work. An employee asks if he can go and retrieve some personal belongings. According to Part 3 Section 32 of the Fire Brigades Regulation 2014, what is your correct course of action?

Answer 170

A firefighter on fire duty or watch duty at the site of a fire, hazardous material incident or other emergency must–
(a) ensure that–
(1) any premises at the site are not entered, and
(2) goods are not interfered with or removed from any such premises,
otherwise than by persons who can establish their identity and authority to do so, and
(b) report any breach of security to the officer in charge at the site.

Question 171

What does fast attack enable the IC to do?

Answer 171

Fast attack enables the IC to:
• More fully size up the incident.
• Directly supervise the crew.
• Assist the crew with task level work if needed.
• Take advantage of the limited window of opportunity available while the incident is in its early stages.

Question 172

Hazardous chemical (Hazchem) emergency action codes provide information for the fire brigade and police on how to deal with a fire or spillage. What does the 3-digit code give basic information on?

Answer 172

First digit - dictates the suprressant agent that should be used to extinguish a fire
Second digit - safety parameters or precautions need to be taken
Third digit - letter E will be present if there is the need to evacuate the premises in the event of a spill

Question 173

To extinguish a fire, we must remove one or more factors that form the fire triangle or fire tetrahedron. What methods are used to remove one of these factors. List four.

Answer 173

The methods we use to remove one of these factors include:
• starvation;
• smothering;
• cooling; and
• interruption of the flame chain reaction.

Question 174

The use of water as an extinguishing medium on ships has some disadvantages. List three of the disadvantages.

Answer 174

The use of water has some disadvantages in that:
• it is likely to damage cargo;
• it may react dangerously with cargo;
• it can affect a ship’s stability;
• it always presents a danger of flooding; and
• NSWFB equipment may not fit shipboard connections.

Question 175

REMOVED

Answer 175

REMOVED

Question 176

Crews operating on levels above the fire should be constantly alert for the potential of fire extension. List the actions should crews take.

Answer 176

Action from crews should include:
• Checking concealed spaces, including ducting and pipework with the TIC
• Closing windows and moving flammable material away from windows
• Always having charged lines of hose
• Maintaining communication with outside crews, who can report any externally visible indicators of changed fire activity

Question 177

How does the fire risk of a radial engine compare to an in-line engine and what extinguishing medium would you use?

Answer 177

In a radial engine, the piston assemblies are arranged around the crankshaft like the spokes of a wheel. Large engines are usually of the radial type. This type of engine presents the greater fire risk. The greater fire risk in this type of engine is in the ancillary equipment. This equipment is usually housed in a bay behind the cylinders. The fire risk in this area is in the oil pumps, generators, carburetors, and superchargers and in the pipework and wiring. Halons or CO2 are most effective in controlling these fires. Foam should be avoided as piston engines must be completely dismantled if foam is used.
In an in-line engine, the piston assemblies are arranged one behind the other as in motor vehicles.

Question 178

Short-term fatigue management is the management of acute fatigue that may occur as a result of tasks undertaken by firefighters during work hours. As a guide, a break from these tasks should be taken how often?

Answer 178

Control measures to reduce the severity or likelihood of short-term fatigue include Regular breaks should be taken away from physically or mentally demanding tasks during working hours. As a guide, a break from these tasks should be taken at least every four hours.

Question 179

You have been instructed to commence ventilation. When determining where ventilation needs to be carried out, what considerations need to be taken into account?

Answer 179

• the nature and proximity of exposures;
• the size of the fire;
• the seat of the fire;
• the wind and weather conditions;
• the type of building construction; and
• the presence of vertical or horizontal openings and how they may affect ventilation.

Question 180

If co2 is used to extinguish a fire in an underground vault substation what is the minimum time it needs to be kept sealed within the vault?

Answer 180

Upon discharge of the gas, keep the vault closed and openings sealed for at least 20 minutes

Question 181

What is the definition of decontamination?

Answer 181

Decontamination is the process of removing contaminants from people and equipment to prevent further injury and reduce the spread of the contaminant.

Question 182

During a bushfire, your sector contains an area where trees and grass are alight under high voltage power lines. What are the safe working distances and what firefighting activities can you perform?

Answer 182

• Do not engage in firefighting under high voltage power lines.
• Keep people and vehicles a minimum of 25 metres clear of a fire burning under or near power lines.

Question 183

You need to attach a delivery to the hydrant outlet. Hydrants have what types of deliveries?

Answer 183

Hydrants have three types of deliveries:
• double delivery;
• elbow delivery; and
• standpipe delivery.

Question 184

A BA team reports to a Breathing Apparatus Control Operator (BACO) two floors below the fire floor at a high-rise structure fire. They provide their BA tallies to the BACO and proceed to the fire floor but remain in the fire stairs for ten minutes before donning BA and beginning firefighting tasks. Ten minutes after that the BACO is trying to contact the Sector Commander urgently stating that they are running low on air when they are not. What went wrong?

Answer 184

The BA wearer DID NOT notify the BACO when they don their facemask and begin using their air supply.

Question 185

Name all members five members of a decontamination team.

Answer 185

(1) Decontamination Officer
(2) Wash Operator
(3) Wash Assistant
(4) Disrobe Assistant
(5) Pump Operator

Question 186

What are possible signs of accelerant use?

Answer 186

Some of the possible signs of use of accelerant are:
• characteristic burn pattern,
• indication of fire trailers,
• rapid fire development inconsistent with available combustible materials,
• unusual odours, or
• damage to building consistent with a vapour explosion.

Question 187

You are in charge of firefighters providing fire protection during helicopter refuelling. You instruct them to wear full PPE. What full PPE will they wear?

Answer 187

• full structural firefighting ensemble, including helmet and gloves
• flash hood
• SCBA
• ear plugs.

Question 188

Under the FRNSW Act 1989, define flammable matter?

Answer 188

flammable matter includes—
(a) any substance capable of ignition or combustion by the application of heat, by means of sparks or spontaneously, and
(b) any substance prescribed as flammable for the purposes of this definition.

Question 189

Describe a Class 3 bushfire?

Answer 189

 A major bushfire or fires where an appointment is made or is imminent under the provisions of Section 44 of the Rural Fires Act 1997.

Question 190

What are the four main types of military warfare agents?

Answer 190

• Nerve or G agents
• Blister agents or H agents (vesicants – skin & eye irritants)
• Blood agents (chemical asphyxiants)
• Choking agents (respiratory irritants)

Question 191

You are first arriving Station Commander at a fire to find smoke issuing from a single level house. You have not conducted a 360° size up but have given your crew initial tasks. What actions would most assist in formally assuming command?

Answer 191

If you are first on scene, formally assume command of the incident as follows:
• Confirm via initial radio report to FireCOM that an IC is in place.
• Name command.
• Select an appropriate command position – ie fast attack or stationary

Question 192

High Rise buildings are generally described by what characteristics?

Answer 192

High-rise buildings are generally described as being more than 25 metres high or having more than 10 levels.

Question 193

REMOVED

Answer 193

REMOVED

Question 194

What conditions should be determined before carrying out ventilation?

Answer 194

Conditions Required before Ventilating Before ventilating a building, you should determine the existence of the following four conditions:
• the seat of the fire has been located;
• crews are ready to enter with charged hose lines;
• back-up crews are ready to enter; and
• communications have been established amongst all crews.

Question 195

You are the Incident Commander at a hazardous materials incident and find wastewater coming from an adjoining business is entering the Hot Zone and spreading contaminants. You order this water supply to be shut off, but the business owner next door complains that he will lose money by shutting down production. What are your general powers in this situation as stipulated under the FRNSW Act?

Answer 195

General powers of officers at fires and hazardous material incidents
(1A) At the site of a hazardous material incident, the officer in charge—
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property, for confining and ending the incident and for rendering the site safe, and
(b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
The site is taken to be such area in the vicinity of the incident as is for the time being determined by the officer in charge.

The officer in charge at a fire or hazardous material incident may, for the purpose of extinguishing or controlling a fire or confining or ending the incident or rendering the site of the incident safe, without payment—
(a) take and use any water from any source on any land, and
(b) cause water to flow into or be shut off from any main or pipe.

Question 196

What are the key principles of AIIMS?

Answer 196

The key principles of AIIMS are:
• Flexibility – the method must be able to be applied across all types of incidents, with an incident structure and plans that reflect the needs of the incident.
• Management by objectives – for every incident a set of objectives must be identified and a plan developed for managing those objectives. There can only be one set of objectives and one incident action plan.
• Functional management – there are eight functional areas, or activates, that need to be managed – ie Control, Planning, Intelligence, Public Information, Operations, Investigation, Logistics and Finance. The Incident Commander is responsible for all functional areas but may choose to delegate one or more of the functions, depending upon the size and nature of the incident.
• Unity of command – there must be only one Incident Commander; each individual must only report to one supervisor.
• Span of control – an individual should only have 5 people reporting to them (optimal is 1:5 ratio), but this can vary between 1:3 to 1:7, depending upon the activity, geography, or nature of the incident.

Question 197

Describe the term “All Clear.”

Answer 197

The term all clear indicates that primary and secondary searches have been completed – ie primary all clear and secondary all clear – for a compartment, location, or the entire structure, at a fire or hazmat incident. This confirms to the IC that firefighters have checked for occupants in those locations and none have been located.

Question 198

REMOVED

Answer 198

REMOVED

Question 199

You are the Incident Commander at a large factory fire. There are 8 pumps code 3 at the incident. According to SOGs, list two combinations could you allocate these pumps to achieve three-deep deployment?

Answer 199

Combination 1
Sector Alpha – P1 Hotzone, P2 Recycle, P3 On Deck, P4-P8 Staging
Combination 2
Sector Alpha – P1 Hotzone, P2 Recycle, P3 On Deck, P4 Staging
Sector Charlie – P5 Hotzone, P6 Recycle, P7 On Deck P8 Staging

Question 200

FRNSW is committed to achieving the principles and requirements of the Equity, Diversity, and Inclusion Policy, to achieve this what are all employees responsible for?

Answer 200

All employees are responsible for:
• Creating a culturally safe workplace environment which is free from discrimination and everyone is valued and treated with respect;
• Working collaboratively to recognise and appreciate equity, diversity and inclusion;
• Identifying and addressing any form of discrimination in the workplace.

Question 201

List the reasons permanent Officers and Firefighters may seek transfer or be transferred to other locations.

Answer 201

• Career development
• Operational capability (skills and qualifications development)
• Compassionate issues or staff welfare
• Location based transfers
• Performance or disciplinary

Question 202

What does the term latent heat of vaporisation refer to?

Answer 202

The amount of heat required to vaporise a unit weight of the extinguishing medium.

Question 203

Water is drawn from various types of water mains. Name the types of mains.

Answer 203

Trunk Mains - Supply water from the original source to a secondary distribution point.
Distributary Main – Supply water from the secondary distribution point to sub devided areas such as a suburb
Reticulation Main - Feed off distributary mains and feed individual streets and building

Question 204

REMOVED

Answer 204

REMOVED

Question 205

Insulated Sandwich Panels (ISPs), especially those with Expanded Polystyrene (EPS) cores can create an extremely hazardous environment for firefighters and may force adoption of a defensive strategy from an early stage. What are the reasons for this?

Answer 205

(1) EPS melts and flows like a liquid. It is highly flammable, inducing rapid fire spread, which is undetectable with thermal imaging cameras (due to the insulating properties of the panels) and can spread to areas remote from the fire origin.
a. Panel delamination, where the hot metal panel skins bow and open up, rapidly increases the rate of fire spread, which heats the ceiling void, creates secondary pool fires from melted EPS, and causes panels to collapse (Figure 2).
b. There is an increased risk of flashover and backdraught.
c. Large volumes of toxic, thick, black, acrid smoke are produced.
(2) Sudden, loss of structural integrity may cause substantial building collapse.

Question 206

What are the main types of aircraft?

Answer 206

a. Civil Aircraft
b. Military Aircraft
c. Helicopters

Question 207

When responding into a Rural Fire District, when are you required to send a Code 6?

Answer 207

A Code 6 must be transmitted:
• Immediately it becomes apparent to the Officer-in-Charge (OIC) of an FRNSW appliance that they have received a call to an incident located within a Rural Fire District, or
• With the Code 1 (responding) message if it is known at the time of the call that the incident is in a Rural Fire District.

Code 6 should be transmitted for all types of incidents in Rural Fire Districts, including rescue and hazmat calls, whether or not Rural Fire Service attendance is required.

Question 208

List the risk management measures that should be taken when attending incidents involving hydrogen fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV).

Answer 208

• Conduct atmospheric monitoring with a four head gas detector for LELs to detect if hydrogen is leaking.
• Use a thermal imaging camera (TIC) to identify if hydrogen fire is present.
• Conduct thermal checks on the battery using a TIC to determine whether thermal runaway may be occurring within the lithium-ion battery. Increasing temperature is an indication that a thermal runaway event may be occurring. If so, use a hose stream to cool.
• Establish an exclusion zone (minimum 15 m) around any hydrogen FCEV incident.

Question 209

According to the Firefighters Training Manual, what are indicators of a possible BLEVE?

Answer 209

This can be indicated by the following:
• any increase in the noise level from the valve; or
• any sign of bulging or blistering on the outside of the tank or cylinder.

Question 210

when developing objectives, strategies and tactics what should be considered?

Answer 210

When developing objectives, strategies and tactics, consider the following points:
• the response time for requested support;
• the requirements for relief crews and refreshments; and
• whether a change of shift might be necessary.

Question 211

You are the Officer in Charge at a hazardous materials incident, and the site manager is failing to cooperate. You advise the site manager of your authority to enter and operate under the FRNSW Act, what does it state?

Answer 211

13 General powers of officers at fires and hazardous material incidents
(1A) At the site of a hazardous material incident, the officer in charge—
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property, for confining and ending the incident and for rendering the site safe

Question 212

What is the tool that will help employees to communicate clearly when addressing difficult topics.

Answer 212

Straight Talk is a tool that will help employees to communicate clearly when addressing difficult topics.

Question 213

What program offers an external service that provides professional and confidential counselling or coaching to help you with challenges, issues or concerns that may be affecting you at work or home.

Answer 213

The Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

Question 214

During the de-escalation of an incident, at what stage is command terminated?

Answer 214

Command is only terminated when the last resource leaves the incident.

Question 215

What are principles of situation evaluation in incident management?

Answer 215

There are 10 principles of situation evaluation in incident management to collect and evaluate relevant information about the incident, to determine incident critical factors.
(1) The Incident Commander (IC) must identify a set of critical factors – ie elements that, if not dealt with rapidly, could cause expansion of the incident or a threat to firefighters or others – and process them into an incident action plan (IAP).
(2) The IC can only deal with 3 to 7 critical factors at any one time. If there are more than this, consider expanding the incident structure so that delegation can occur.
(3) Collecting and evaluating information may start before arriving on scene.
(4) Once on scene, further information is collected and rapidly evaluated via an initial size up from the vehicle. Whenever possible, the IC should collect additional information via a 360 degree size up.
(5) Critical factors must be communicated to FireCOM.
(6) The IC should continually collect information during the incident from commanders and other external sources such as onsite experts, Bureau of Meteorology, and other agencies.
(7) Critical factors may change rapidly as the incident evolves. The IAP must be modified as critical factors change.
(8) The IC’s initial size up and decision-making about critical factors may need to be rapid. Once the incident is contained, the IC should take a more deliberate approach.
(9) Situation evaluation only ends when command is terminated.
(10) Anyone at the incident may collect information regarding critical factors. These need to be communicated to the IC. Critical safety concerns can be addressed immediately if required, before informing the IC.

Question 216

State why the thermal imaging camera may or may not be suitable for use in a flammable atmosphere.

Answer 216

Thermal imaging cameras are not intrinsically safe. Do not use these cameras in potentially flammable atmospheres.

Question 217

What is an incident action plan?

Answer 217

An Incident Action Plan (IAP) is the plan developed by the IC that describes, at any one point, how the IC plans to resolve or control the incident, the risk assessment, strategy and objectives, incident structure, layout of the incident, and any other relevant information.

Question 218

What are the terms used in an initial radio report, to indicate the size of a structure at a fire incident.

Answer 218

Structure fire size The terms small, medium, large, very large and mega are useful in an initial radio report, to indicate the size of a structure at a fire incident. They are used in conjunction with building type – eg terrace, free-standing house, factory.

Question 219

The initial radio report (IRR) is sent by the first arriving officer to FireCOM. It time-stamps command, confirms and identifies the IC, and records initial details about the incident. It should be in Conditions, Actions, Needs (CAN) format and should include-

Answer 219

• Confirmation of address.
• Conditions: Brief description of the incident; obvious critical factors including hazards.
• Actions: Initial incident action plan (IAP); assumption of command and naming of incident; strategy.
• Needs: Increase of alarm level as per the Alarm Response Protocol (ARP), or, in areas where this does not operate, request for particular resources as per local arrangements (FireCOM will confirm the availability of requested resources).

Question 220

Who is authorised to enter completed activities in CARs.

Answer 220

Any member of the crew participating in the activity provided they have direct knowledge of the information being submitted.

Question 221

Employees are expected to complete Cyber Security Awareness Training how often?

Answer 221

Each employee must complete annual Cyber Security Awareness Training.

Question 222

There are two types of broad area prescribed burns. What are they?

Answer 222

There are two types of broad area prescribed burns - simple and complex.

Question 223

Pile burns may be carried out by FRNSW to dispose of vegetation resulting from what activities?

Answer 223

• Removal of bushfire fuels
• Bush regeneration/weed removal from authorised activities eg Landcare on behalf of local council agricultural activities.

Question 224

List occasions when prescribed burning conducted by FRNSW is not permitted in a fire district.

Answer 224

Burning is not permitted in a fire district on days when:
• There is a total fire ban (TOBAN)
• The EPA has issued a No-Burn Notice (unless prior exemption has been granted)
• The Fire Behaviour Index (FBI) is greater than 23**
**The RFS allows burning on days with FBI greater than 23. If FRNSW is assisting RFS with a prescribed burn, they may be required to continue assisting on these days.

Question 225

What is FRNSWs definition of unauthorised equipment as described in the case study?

Answer 225

Unauthorised equipment is any item which is purchased, introduced, or used within an FRNSW workplace that has not first met the requirements of the Procurement Manual.
This includes equipment which has not been obtained via the Electronic Supply Catalogue (ESCAT) or through an approved Request Purchase Order (RPO)

Question 226

When conveying sensitive information on an open channel what should be considered as listed in SOGs?

Answer 226

Messages containing details of injuries, fatalities or personal information should be sent by alternative means of communication such as mobile phone, GRN private call facility, or face-to-face.

Question 227

REMOVED

Answer 227

REMOVED

Question 228

Who must give consent for PIP inspections to be conducted on a premises?

Answer 228

There is no legislated power of entry into a building when conducting a PIP inspection. PIP inspections shall only be conducted with the consent of the building owner or occupier of the building and in accordance with FRNSW standing orders.

Question 229

What are the door entry techniques that can be used with the Halligan tool?

Answer 229

Inward Adze Roll Technique or alternatively the Outward Adze or Fork Drive techniques

Question 230

What are the five steps to forcing a door?

Answer 230

(1) Size up – Assess how urgent the situation is. If it is not time critical, consider passive ways of making entry- Through a window, wait for keys etc. Conduct 360 of premises, trying all windows and doors.
(2) Gap – Usually starting with the Adze blade, work the tool between the door and door stop or door frame to create a workable gap. A second fire fighter may be required with sledge axe to “strike” Halligan tool to get a start.
(3) Set – With a gap established between the door and frame (a wedge may be required), manoeuvre tool to complete the forced entry. This could be the Adze or fork end of the tool, depending on situation.
(4) Force – Final action to defeat the lock. Using the mechanical advantage leverage of the tool to complete the spread. Two fire fighters may be required for some doors.
(5) Control – Open the door in such a way so as not to have an adverse effect on the situation. Use Adze on Halligan to hook the back of the door to pull closed.

Question 231

During Firefighting Operations, what does fire attack crew never ignore?

Answer 231

FIRE ATTACK crew never ignores a casualty

Question 232

The objective of a search is to confirm an ALL CLEAR, this is usually broken into what two components?

Answer 232

The PRIMARY SEARCH is rapid and systematic, usually carried out simultaneously with fire attack, if fire conditions and crew response allow.
A SECONDARY SEARCH is more thorough and methodical, undertaken to confirm casualties have not been missed. The secondary search is often conducted once Fire control has been achieved and at times can be done simultaneously with ventilation.

Question 233

Describe the terms withdraw and abandon as used by the IC to indicate to crews the urgency required to move from offensive to a defensive strategy.

Answer 233

• Withdraw – this indicates that firefighters have enough time to exit the structure or the position they are working in, with all their equipment, in a controlled manner. It is usually given by the IC in response to a tactical CAN report. An example of a message given to a Sector Commander or crew could be: Sector Commander Bravo we are changing strategy to defensive for the entire structure withdraw all crews and report PARS on exit. If there is more than one sector then this would be conveyed to all sectors.

• Abandon – this indicates that there is an immediate threat to firefighter lives and the firefighters must exit the structure or position they are working in immediately and only bring equipment with them if it will not compromise their safety. This could be that a fire has rapidly escalated, wall collapse is imminent, or a trench is about to collapse. An example of a message is: All sectors roof collapse imminent we are going to a defensive strategy abandon your positions and report if you do not have a PAR. The term abandon should be the exception rather than the rule

Question 234

What signs would indicate it’s time to withdraw during search and rescue during firefighting operations?

Answer 234

• Worsening fire/smoke conditions
• Signs of structural collapse (see STP 33Z)
• Previously unknown hazards e.g. Acetylene
• Emergency Radio Message signaling:
- Loss of PAR
- Change to a Defensive Strategy via an order from the I.C. to Withdraw or Abandon.

Question 235

If the TIC needs to be handed between members of firefighting or search and rescue teams what is the safest method to pass to the front firefighter?

Answer 235

If the TIC needs to be handed between members of firefighting or search and rescue teams then it is safest to do so around the side of the body of the front firefighter and not over the shoulder.

Question 236

What is the purpose of placing an appliance in the fend off position?

Answer 236

It uses the appliances bulk and visibility to form a physical barrier protecting FRNSW personnel, other emergency services and patients from oncoming traffic

Question 237

Warning gear is used to mark off incidents sites and warn the public that FRNSW operations are nearby. List three forms of warning gear.

Answer 237

Eflare or strobe kit,
the Hazard Ahead sign,
barrierand hazmat Hot Zone tape,
witch’s hats, and
breakdown road triangles

Question 238

All extinguishers are inspected and serviced by who and at what timeframes?

Answer 238

All extinguishers are inspected and serviced by a competent person six monthly, annually and five yearly (AS 1851). Ensure this service has been undertaken and report any deficiencies to the Station Commander.

Question 239

What removal technique provides a time efficient technique that removes an unconscious or decreased level of consciousness firefighter from their equipment providing access for assessment and further medical intervention?

Answer 239

The Mayday Drag

Question 240

What should you do when you are responded to a Community First Responder incident and the patient refuses care.

Answer 240

If care is refused, observe the patient until the ambulance arrives. Assume an unconscious patient wants assistance. If a patient previously refusing treatment loses consciousness, treat them.

Question 241

REMOVED

Answer 241

REMOVED

Question 242

List the PPE that firefighters can wear to ensure visibility, when working on roadways.

Answer 242

• Structural firefighting coat
• Multi-purpose coat
• High visibility vest
• High-visibility raincoat
• Duty wear trousers
• Structural firefighting trousers

Question 243

List the points to be considered when FRNSW personnel may have to prepare a helicopter landing site.

Answer 243

• position the landing site in an area 30 m x 30 m minimum, on solid, level ground away from power lines or wires, and clear of trees or similar obstacles
• mark the corners of the landing site by placing a firefighter at each corner and cordon off to prevent unauthorised entry. Do not use tape or loose materials
• clear all loose debris from the area, e.g. paper bags, cigarette cartons, aluminium cans etc, and secure all NSWFB equipment near the landing site
• in dry, dusty conditions, the landing site may require wetting down to maintain visibility during landing and take off.

During night landings, place a strobe light and two vehicles with beacons flashing facing into the wind and facing inwards at 45° to the approach line with their headlights on. Ensure that the strobe light is turned off once the helicopter has identified or flown over the landing site.

CAUTION Do not face lights into the aircraft approach path. The light may diffuse on the windscreen and blind the pilot.

Question 244

Regarding structure fires in Rural Fire Districts- Where FRNSW is requested to assist the NSW RFS at a structure fire in a rural Fire District who will be the Incident Controller?

Answer 244

Where the NSWFB is requested to assist the NSW RFS at a structure fire in a rural Fire District, the senior officer from the NSW RFS present at the fire will be the Incident Controller.

Question 245

List four safety precautions when using extension ladders.

Answer 245

(1) The maximum number of persons permitted on the ladder at any time is two.
(2) Exercise care when ascending and descending ladders.
(3) Firefighters climbing the ladder must ensure they have 3 points of contact on the ladder. A point of contact is either a hand holding a rung, or a foot firmly placed on a rung.
(4) An firefighter must always foot the ladder by standing on the anti-slip feet and holding either the rungs or the handles when anybody is on the ladder.
(5) Maintain a working angle of 4:1. For every 4 metres the head of the ladder extends up the wall, the base of the ladder must be a metre from the wall. If the head extends 8 metres up the wall, the base must be 2 metres from the wall, etc.
(6) Firefighters must wear personal protective clothing and equipment as determined by the Incident Commander according to the nature of the incident. At a minimum, wear Level 3 PPE with eye protection while handling ladders.

Question 246

When must Level 1 or Level 2 Rehabilitation be considered?

Answer 246

Level 1 Rehab – recommended for small incidents not requiring the response of a specialist incident ground rehabilitation capability. Level 1 Rehab uses equipment carried on front line firefighting appliances. Generally, the Incident Controller (IC) manages Level 1 Rehab.
Level 2 Rehab – recommended for:
• long duration incidents
• in circumstances where crew rotation is limited
• hot and dry, or cold and wet, conditions
• where working conditions are arduous
• where breathing apparatus usage and rotation is high, or
• where conditions are such that specialist incident ground rehabilitation capabilities are required. Generally, the IC appoints a dedicated Rehabilitation Officer for these incidents.

Question 247

What two items do FRNSW use that lays out safe working practices to manage the safety of firefighters at incidents?

Answer 247

FRNSW manages the safety of firefighters at incidents by providing training and doctrine that lays out safe working practices.

Question 248

There are many aspects to ensuring safety at an incident, from the IC implementing the correct strategy, down to the firefighters wearing the right PPE for their assigned tasks. Incident safety can therefore be described in terms of what three levels?

Answer 248

(1) Individual – task level
Work safely to implement tactics
(2) Commanders – tactical level
Organise and deploy resources safely to meet the IAP objectives
(3) Incident Commander – strategic level
Implement and maintain systems of work for safety and monitor the impact of hazards outside of the incident

Question 249

Describe the term Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL).

Answer 249

The short term exposure limit (STEL) is the maximum concentration of a substance to which a worker may be exposed for no more than 15 minutes, 4 times a day over an 8 hour day with 60 minutes between exposures.

Question 250

What safety related worksheet is used as method of documenting hazards or risks and control measures at an incident?

Answer 250

Incident safety worksheet