Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biochem Final > Leys > Flashcards

Leys Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major intracellular compartments of the cell?

A

Cytosol, mitochondria, rough ER, smooth ER, golgi, nucleus, peroxisomes, lysosomes, endosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proteins that have crossed a membrane are no longer ________ the cell. They must _____ the membrane to get back inside the cell.

A

topologically inside

recross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vesicles move from compartment to compartment within a cell by ?

A

budding off and membrane fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Many proteins have signal sequences at their _____ that direct the proteins to cross the membrane. Fewer proteins have ____ signal sequences.

A

amino terminus

internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do signal sequences on proteins signal for?

A

crossing the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The nucleus is surrounded by a double lipid membrane bilayer, however _____ allow molecules, including proteins to pass from the cytosol into the nucleus and back.

A

nuclear pores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What pass through nuclear pores by an active process?

A

Larger proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What binds to nuclear transport signals found on some nuclear bound proteins and facilitate transport into the nucleus?

A

Nuclear import receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It generally requires multiple signals to transport proteins from the cytosol into?

A

lumen of the mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

There are multiple protein ____ in the mitochondrial membrane. Each ____ interacts with a specific set of proteins.

A

translocators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Transport of protein into the mitochondria requires ____.

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proteins enter ____ using a mechanism similar to mitochondrial entry.

A

Peroxisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Proteins travel from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), through the _____ to many sites.

A

golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A signal recognition protein (SRP) binds to the signal sequence during ____ and directs the _____ to the ER membrane.

A

translation

nascent peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A signal recognition protein (SRP) binds to the _____ during translation and directs the nascent peptide to the ____.

A

signal sequence

ER membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Proteins bound for the mitochondria are translated in the _____ and than transported through the mitochondrial membrane. A process that requires____.

A

cytosol

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Proteins that are headed into or through the ER are transported through the ER membrane during ____. This process requires ______.

A

translation

No energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of modification of proteins in the ER helps direct them to their ultimate location?

A

Carbohydrate modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Carbohydrate modification of proteins in the ___ helps direct them to ??

A

ER

their ultimate location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the “default pathway” if there are no other signals directing the protein to other locations?

A

To send the protein to the cell surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the regulated secretory pathway?

A

cells store proteins in secretory vesicles until they are signaled to release them from the cell by fusion of the vesicles with the cellular membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Several factors contribute to the state of nutrition including:

A 
appetite, 
energy expenditure, 
genotype, 
digestion, 
metabolism, 
availability of food, 
customs and presence of disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Three important regulators of food intake

A

Leptin, Ghrelin and Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Leptin circulates, in the body, at levels proportional to ?

A

body fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Leptin signals the brain that the body has _____

A

had enough to eat, or satiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adipose tissue produces______ that regulate ______ to meet the body’s needs.

A

adipokines

metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

AMP and AMP/ATP regulate AMP-activated kinase (AMPK), which does what?

A

senses cellular energy levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AMPK regulates?

A

rate-limiting enzymes in energy-producing and using pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

High levels of AMPK activity inhibit ________ and stimulate ______

A

energy-utilizing pathways

energy generating pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does increased ghrelin affect hunger?

A

increased hunger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ghrelin favors accumulation of lipids in

A

the visceral fatty tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Estimated average requirements (EAR) for calories changes with _____. Estimated daily protein requirements also vary with ______.

A

age and sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The ideal amount of calorie intake in a day is equal to

A

the calorie utilization for that day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

RDA vs EAR

A

Recommended daily allowance (RDA) for a nutrient is a value that is adequate for the great majority of individuals.

The estimated average requirement (EAR) reflects amount that is adequate for half of the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Different nutrients have different energy content.

_____ has the highest energy content per weight. _____ also has a high-energy content.

A

Fat

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Increases in obesity are correlated with an increase in the use of _______

A

high fructose corn syrup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is HFCS made?

A

By breaking down cornstarch into glucose using amylase followed by conversion to fructose with glucose isomerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

There are several potential health issues associated with comsumption of high fructose corn syrup including:

A 
mercury exposure, 
hypertension, 
elevated cholesterol
long-term liver damage
increased risk of diabetes 
and weight gain and obesity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Protein-calorie malnutrition causes a number of health problems including:

A 
decreased protein synthesis and glucose transport
fatty liver
liver necrosis and fibrosis
depression
hypothermia
compromised immune function and would healing
decreased cardiac and renal function
loss of muscle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Obesity is associated with an increased risk for several conditions including:

A 
type 2 diabetes
hypertension and stroke
dyslipidemia
gall stones
respiratory disorders
musculoskeletal disorders
several cancers including breast, endometrial, ovarian, gall bladder and colon.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Know the difference in the structures of cis and trans fatty acids.

A

Trans form have H groups on opposite sides

Cis form is more kinked

42
Q

____ fatty acids are not essential and provide no benefit to human health.

A

Trans

43
Q

____ fats increase levels of LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol).

A

Saturated

44
Q

_____ fats increase levels of LDL and also lower levels of HDL (good cholesterol); thus increasing the risk of ____

A

Trans

coronary heart disease.

45
Q

The differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins.

A

Water soluble:

  • Act as coenzymes
  • No storage (except B12)
  • Not toxic in excess
46
Q

Measurements of vitamin levels in the blood relate more to recent intake or to overall body status?

A

Recent intake

47
Q

Water-soluble vitamins act as ____ in many metabolic pathways

A

coenzymes

48
Q

The body has no storage capacity for water-soluble vitamins– except _____?

A

B12

49
Q

Evidence is emerging that suggests an excess of some ____ vitamins can be toxic

A

B

50
Q

Most vitamins are modified before they become _____

A

active

51
Q

B Vitamins are co-enzymes in different types of reactions:

B1 – 
B2/B3 –
B6 –
Biotin –
Folic acid/B12 –
A 
B1 – carboxylations
B2/B3 – oxidoreductases
B6 – transaminases
Biotin – carboxylases
Folic acid/B12 – single carbon transfers
52
Q

Lack of riboflavin causes

A

angular stomatitis

53
Q

Eating raw egg whites can cause

A

Biotin deficiency

54
Q

Folic acid is needed, indirectly, for

A

DNA synthesis`

55
Q

Inhibitors of _____ are used as antibiotics (trimethoprim) and cancer therapy (methotrexate).

A

folate reduction

56
Q

When is there an increased demand for folic acid?

A

Pregnancy

57
Q

_____ deficiency is one of the most common vitamin deficiencies

A

Folic acid

58
Q

The functions of _____ and_____ are interrelated

A

folic acid and B12

59
Q

B12 is concentrated in

A

the liver

60
Q

Vitamin C deficiency causes _____ resulting in ____

A

scurvy

defective collagen synthesis

61
Q

Lack of vitamin C also impairs

A

immune function

62
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins are not as ______ as water-soluble vitamins, but can be stored in tissues

A

readily absorbed

63
Q

Some fat-soluble vitamins (_________) can be toxic in excess

A

A and D

64
Q

_______ is teratogenic and should be avoided during pregnancy

A

Vitamin A

65
Q

Retinoic acid is a signaling molecule that interacts with __________

A

ligand-activated transcription factors

66
Q

Deficiency of vitamin A causes

A

night blindness

67
Q

Vitamin D regulates __________ homeostasis

A

calcium and phosphorous

68
Q

The majority of vitamin D is produced by

A

UV exposure of skin

69
Q

People in northern climates have a difficult time getting sufficient

A

vitamin D in the winter

70
Q

Deficiency of vitamin D causes

A

demineralization of bones with increased susceptibility to fractures

71
Q

Vitamin D deficiency is linked to early childhood

A

caries

72
Q

Vitamin K is necessary for

A

blood coagulation

73
Q

Know the structure of lactic acid

A

3 C w/ Polar OH group and carboxylic acid

just google it

74
Q

There are close to 3 billion bases of the human genome, but only 20,000-25,000 _______.

A

protein-coding genes

75
Q

Alternative splicing and alternative gene promoters result in

A

4-6 different mRNAs from a single gene

76
Q

Number of _____ may be as large as 100,000

A

protein-coding mRNAs (transcriptome)

77
Q

The original Human Genome Project used ‘clone-by-clone’ and ‘shotgun’ approaches for _____.

A

sequencing

78
Q

There are ____ gaps remaining in the Human genome (compared to 150,000 in draft)

A

250

79
Q

Since the completion of the human genome, ______ has increased dramatically while costs have declined.

A

sequencing capacity

80
Q

What database has >10,000 entries that associate human genes with inherited diseases?

A

Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man (OMIM)

81
Q

What are SNPs or single nucleotide polymorphisms?

A

mapped base positions in the genome where the nucleotide varies among people.

82
Q

Companies (e.g. 23 and me) are offering full genome scans to individuals for less than $100. This analysis is based on

A

SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism analysis).

83
Q

What is Chromosomal Microarray Analysis (CMA) and what can it be used for.

A

Labeled DNA hybridized to array several million oligonucleotide on chips.

This can be used for prenatal screening for early detection of chromosomal defects.

84
Q

Transcriptome =??`

A

complement of mRNAs, containing protein-coding sequences but there are also other RNAs produced that play structural or regulatory functions (miRNA, siRNA, etc.)

85
Q

How can the transcriptome be studied?

A

Using Microarrays, a collection of complementary (cDNA) made from mRNA or synthetic oligonucleotides arranged on a solid phase slide in a defined order

86
Q

Generally, several oligonucleotide probes per ____ are used.

A

gene

87
Q

Two samples can be compared by labeling each with a different fluorescent dye and ________ . (e.g. Two-color arrays can compare normal and cancer cells).

A

hybridizing them to the same array

88
Q

With advances in sequencing technology, RNAseq or sequencing the entire compliment of RNA in a sample is rapidly replacing _________.

A

microarray approaches

89
Q

Data analysis is bioinformatics intensive and requires ______.

A

stringent statistical analysis

90
Q

Proteomics is the study of

A

the protein complement of a cell.

91
Q

Comparative proteomics is the analysis of protein profiles from two or more samples (e.g., diseased vs. healthy cells) to identify ______ that could be responsible for ______

A

quantitative differences

observed phenotypes.

92
Q

Proteomics can identify _________ that cannot be detected by transcriptome analysis.

A

posttranslational modifications

93
Q

Proteins can be separated by ___________ or by ___________.

A 
two dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE)
Liquid chromatography (FPLC, HPLC)
94
Q

Proteins are identified by

A

Mass spectrometry.

95
Q

Metabolomics is the identification and quantification of

A

steady-state levels of intracellular metabolites (sugars, amino acids, lipids, nucleotides etc.)

96
Q

Because the technology to identify every metabolite in a biological sample is not available, _______ is often carried out, where a few specific metabolites are measured.

A

targeted metabolomics

97
Q

Drug metabolism can take place anywhere in the body (Plasma, kidney, lung, gut wall) but ______ is prime site.

A

liver

98
Q

There are three potential outcomes of drug metabolism:

A

1) Increase in drug hydrophilicity and ability to be excreted (hepatic)
2) Metabolic products are less pharmacologically active than the substrate drug
3) Inactive prodrugs converted to their active forms (hepatic)

99
Q

There are several mechanisms of Drug Resistance including:

A

1) decreased permeability
2) alteration of the target site for the drug
3) enzymatic inactivation of the drug
4) active transport of the drug out of the cell
5) amplification of the gene coding for the target of the drug.

100
Q

An increase in _______ can decrease effectiveness of drugs that target DNA.

A

DNA repair activity

101
Q

Multidrug resistant results from _______ that can pump many different drugs out of the cell.

A

an increase in the amount of transporter proteins

Biochem Final (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions