Lewis Ch 24: Burns Flashcards
When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?
a. First-degree skin destruction
b. Full-thickness skin destruction
c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction
d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction
b. Full-thickness skin destruction
With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery, and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema, swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.
On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the
following prescribed actions should be the nurse’s priority?
a. Monitoring urine output every 4 hours
b. Continuing to monitor the laboratory results
c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution
d. Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion
c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution
The patient’s laboratory results show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased. Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase once the patient’s fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit, the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours (likely every hour).
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased, and no wheezes are audible. What action should the nurse take?
a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again.
b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation.
c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient’s respiratory rate.
d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler’s position and reassess breath sounds.
b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation.
The patient’s history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema, and the health care provider should be notified at once so that intubation can be done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is inappropriate because immediate action should occur.
A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be given in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids?
a. 219 mL/hr
b. 625 mL/hr
c. 938 mL/hr
d. 1875 mL/hr
c. 938 mL/hr
Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr.
During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment is most useful in determining
whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion?
a. Check skin turgor.
b. Monitor daily weight.
c. Assess mucous membranes.
d. Measure hourly urine output.
d. Measure hourly urine output.
When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr. The patient’s weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions are maintaining adequate perfusion.
A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action?
a. Administer vitamins and minerals intravenously.
b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral nutrition.
c. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter.
d. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day.
b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral nutrition.
Enteral nutrition can usually be started during the emergent phase at low rates and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase, the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins and minerals may be given during the emergent phase, but these will not assist in meeting the patient’s caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely used in burn patients unless the gastrointestinal tract is not available for use.
Which nursing action prevents cross contamination when the patient’s full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed?
a. Using sterile gloves when removing dressings.
b. Keeping the room temperature at 70° F (20° C).
c. Wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care.
d. Giving IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization.
c. Wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care.
Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered. When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at 85° F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering. Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of circulation.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position?
a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort.
b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers.
c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head.
d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.
b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers.
The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a pillow for the head because this will put pressure on the ears, and the pillow may stick to the ears. Patients with neck burns should not use a pillow or rolled towel because the head should be kept in an extended position to avoid contractures.
A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Monitor the pulses every hour.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows.
d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes.
b. Notify the health care provider.
The decrease in pulse and numbness in a patient with circumferential burns shows decreased circulation to the legs and the need for an escharotomy. Monitoring the pulses is not an adequate response to the decrease in circulation. Elevating the legs or increasing toe movement will not improve the patient’s circulation.
Esomeprazole is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the drug?
a. Bowel sounds
b. Stool frequency
c. Stool occult blood
d. Abdominal distention
c. Stool occult blood
H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors are given to prevent Curling’s ulcer in the patient who has sustained burn injuries. Proton pump inhibitors usually do not affect bowel sounds, stool frequency, or appetite.
Which prescribed drug is best for the nurse to give before scheduled wound debridement on a patient with partial-thickness burns?
a. ketorolac
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. gabapentin (Neurontin)
d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
Opioid pain medications are the best choice for pain control. The other drugs are used as adjuvants to enhance the effects of opioids.
A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has been having difficulty with body image over the past several months. Which statement by the patient best indicates that the problem is resolving?
a. “I’m glad the scars are only temporary.”
b. “I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK.”
c. “Do you think dark beige makeup will cover this scar?”
d. “I don’t think my boyfriend will want to look at me now.”
c. “Do you think dark beige makeup will cover this scar?”
The willingness to use strategies to enhance appearance is an indication that the disturbed body image is resolving. Expressing feelings about the scars shows a willingness to discuss appearance but not resolution of the problem. Because deep partial-thickness burns leave permanent scars, a statement that the scars are temporary shows denial rather than resolution of the problem. Avoiding using a pillow will help prevent contractures, but it does not address the problem of disturbed body image.
A patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface 2 days ago now has dramatically increased urine output. Which action should the nurse plan to support maintaining kidney function?
a. Monitoring white blood cells (WBCs).
b. Continuing to measure the urine output.
c. Assessing that blisters and edema have subsided.
d. Encouraging the patient to eat adequate calories.
b. Continuing to measure the urine output.
The patient’s urine output indicates that the patient is entering the acute phase of the burn
injury and moving on from the emergent stage. At the end of the emergent phase, capillary
permeability normalizes, and the patient begins to diurese large amounts of urine with a low
specific gravity. Although this may occur at about 48 hours, it may be longer in some patients.
Blisters and edema begin to resolve, but this process requires more time. WBCs may increase
or decrease, based on the patient’s immune status and any infectious processes. The WBC
count does not indicate kidney function. Although adequate nutrition is important for healing,
it does not ensure adequate kidney functioning.
A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient?
a. Bananas
b. Orange gelatin
c. Vanilla milkshake
d. Whole grain bagel
c. Vanilla milkshake
A patient with a burn injury needs high-protein and high-calorie food intake, and the milkshake is the highest in these nutrients. The other choices are not as nutrient dense as the milkshake. Gelatin is likely high in sugar. The bagel is a good carbohydrate choice but low in protein. Bananas are a good source of potassium but are not high in protein and calories.
A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment?
a. Oral temperature
b. Peripheral pulses
c. Extremity movement
d. Pupil reaction to light
c. Extremity movement
All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for cervical spine injury, and assessment of extremity movement will provide baseline data. The other assessment data are necessary but not as essential as determining the cervical spine status.