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x virology term 2 quiz 4 > levinson questions > Flashcards

levinson questions Flashcards

1
Q

160: many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane of the host cell. each of teh following statements regarding these viruses is correct except:
A: some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell formation
B; some new viral antigens appear on teh surface of the host cell
C: some of the se viruses contain host cell lipids
D: some of these viruses do not have an envelope

A

D

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2
Q 
184: which one of the following viruses possesses a genome of single-stranded RNA that is infectious when purified?
A: influenza virus
B: rotavirus
C: measles virus
D: poliovirus
A

D

A and B are ortho and paramyxovirus, so both are - ssRNA.

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3
Q

189: each of the following statements about both measles virus and rubella virus is correct except:
A: they are RNA enveloped viruses
B: their virions contain an RNA polymerase
C: they have a single antigenic type
D: they are transmitted by respiratory aerosol

A

B

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4
Q

223: each of the following statements about mumps is correct except:
A: mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a single-stranded RNA genome
B: meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps
C: mumps orchitis in children prior to puberty often causes sterility
D: during mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream (viremia) to various internal organs

A

C

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5
Q

226: the role of an infectious agent in the pathogenesis of kuru was best demonstrated by which one of the following observations?
A: a 16-fold rise in antibody titer to the agent was observed
B: the viral genome was isolated from infected neurons
C: electron micrographs of the brains of infected individuals demonstrated intracellular structures resembling paramyxo-virus nucleocapsids
D: the disease was serially transmitted to experimental animals

A

D

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6
Q

230: scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics except:
A: a histologic picture of spongiform encephalopathy
B: transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation period
C: slowly progressive deterioration of brain function
D: prominent intranuclear inclusions in oligodendrocytes

A

D

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7
Q

231: each of the following statements concerning subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is correct except:
A: immunosuppression is a frequent predisposing factor
B: aggregates of helical nucleocapsids are found in infected cells
C: high titers of measles antibody are found in CSF
D: slowly progressive deterioration of brain function occurs

A

A

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8
Q

237: which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to base a decisive diagnosis of acute mumps disease?
A: a positive skin test
B: a four-fold rise in antibody titer to mumps antigen
C: a history of exposure to a child with mumps
D: orchitis in young adult male

A

B

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9
Q

256: each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is correct except:
A: the vaccine contains live, attenuated virus
B: the vaccine should not be given at the same time as the mumps vaccine because the immune system cannot respond to two viral antigens given at the same time
C: virus in the vaccine contains only on serotype
D: the vaccine should not be given prior to 15 months of age because maternal antibodies can prevent an immune response

A

B

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10
Q

271: which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct?
A: although the salivary glands are the most obvious sites of infection, the testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved as well
B: because tehre is no vaccine against mumps, passive immunization is the only means of preventing the disease
C: the diagnosis of mumps is made on clinical grounds because the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and serologic tests are inaccurate
D: second episodes of mumps can occur because there are two serotypes of the virus and protection is type-specific

A

A

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11
Q

block 2, 32: regarding prions and prion-caused diseases, which one of the following is most accurate?
A: prions are highly resistant to both UV light and to boiling but are inactivated by hypochlorite
B: prions are protein-containing particles surrounded by lipo-protein envelope with a DNA polymerase in the envelope
C: the diagnosis of prion-caused diseases such as creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is typically made by observing cytopathic effect in cell culture
D: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurs primarily in the children younger than the age of 2 years because they cannot mount an adequate immune response to the prion protein

A

A

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12
Q

252: each of the following statements is correct except:
A: coxsackie viruses are enteroviruses and can replicate in both the respiratory and GI tracts
B: influenza viruses have multiple serotypes based on hemagglutinin and neuraminidase proteins located on the envelope surface
C: flaviviruses are RNA enveloped viruses that replicate in animals as well as humans
D: adenoviruses are RNA enveloped viruses that are an important cause of STDs

A

D

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13
Q

257: each of hte following statements concerning rubella is correct except:
A: congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a pregnant woman is infected during the first trimester
B: women who say that they have never had rubella can, nevertheless, have neutralizing antibody in their serum
C: in a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild, self-limited disease with few complications
D: acyclovir is effective in the treatment of congenital rubella syndrome

A

D

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14
Q

259: each of the following statements concerning arboviruses is correct except:
A: the pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic shock syndrome is associated with the heterotypic anamnestic response
B: wild birds are the reservoir for encephalitis viruses but not for yellow fever virus
C: ticks are the main mode of transmission for both encephalitis viruses and yellow fever viruses
D: there is a live, attenuated vaccine that effectively prevents yellow fever

A

C

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15
Q

270: each of the following statements concerning yellow fever is correct except:
A: yellow fever virus is transmitted by the aedes aegypti mosquito in the urban form of yellow fever
B: infection by yellow fever virus causes significant damage to hepatocytes
C: nonhuman primates in the jungle are a major reservoir of yellow fever virus
D: acyclovir is an effective treatment for yellow fever

A

D

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16
Q 
select the lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items
A: yellow fever virus
B: rabies virus
C: rotavirus
D: rubella virus
E: rhinovirus

276: diarrhea

A

C

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17
Q 
select the lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items
A: yellow fever virus
B: rabies virus
C: rotavirus
D: rubella virus
E: rhinovirus

277: jaundice

A

A

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18
Q 
select the lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items
A: yellow fever virus
B: rabies virus
C: rotavirus
D: rubella virus
E: rhinovirus

278: congenital abnormalities

A

D

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19
Q 
select the lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items
A: yellow fever virus
B: rabies virus
C: rotavirus
D: rubella virus
E: rhinovirus

279: encephalitis

A

B

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20
Q

block 1, 39: regarding parvovirus B19, which one of the following is most accurate?
A: parvovirus B19 has a double-stranded DNA genome but requires a DNA polymerase in the virion because it replicates in the cytoplasm
B: parvovirus B19 is transmitted primarily by sexual intercourse
C: parvovirus B19 causes severe anemia because it preferentially infects erythrocyte precursors
D: patients infected by parvovirus B19 can be diagnosed in the laboratory using the cold agglutinin test
E: patients with the disseminated disease caused by parvovirus B19 should be treated with acyclovir

A

C

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21
Q

clinical case 41: a 6-year-old girl has a rash on her face that appeared yesterday. the rash is erythematous and located over the malar eminences bilaterally. the rash is macular; there are no papules, vesicles or pustules. a few days prior to the appearance of the rash, she had a runny nose and anorexia
what is the diagnosis?

A

diagnosis: slapped cheek syndrom caused by parvovirus B19. this virus also causes aplastic anemia becuase it preferentially infects and kills erythroblasts. it also infects the fetus, causing hyrops fetalis, and causes an immune complex-mediated arthritis, especially in adult women

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22
Q 
162: latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one of the following virus groups?
A: polioviruses
B: herpesviruses
C: rhinoviruses
D: influenza viruses
A

B

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23
Q

176: which one of the following is the best explaination for the selective action of acyclovir (acycloguanosine) in herpes simplex virus (HSV)-infected cells?
A: acyclovir binds specifically to viral receptors only on the surface of the HSV-infected cells
B: Acyclovir is phosphorylated by a virus-encoded phosphokinase only within HSV-infected cells
C: Acyclovir selectively inhibits the RNA polymerase in the HSV virion
D: Acyclovir specifically blocks the matrix protein of HSV, thereby preventing release of progeny of HSV

A

B

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24
Q 
187: each of the following viruses possesses double-stranded nucleic acid as its genome except:
A: coxsackie virus
B: herpes simplex virus
C: rotavirus
D: adenovirus
A

A

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25
Q 
Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: DNA enveloped virus
B: DNA nonenveloped virus
C: RNA enveloped virus
D: RNA nonenveloped virus

193: herpes simplex virus

A

A

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26
Q 
Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: attachement and penetration of virion
B: viral mRNA synthesis
C: viral protein synthesis
D: viral genome DNA synthesis
E: assembly and release of progeny virus

197: main site of action of acyclovir

A

D

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27
Q 
Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: poliovirus
B: epstein-barr virus
C: prions
D: hepatits B virus
E: respiratory syncytial virus

202: part of the genome DNA is synthesized by the virion polymerase

A

D

28
Q 
213: each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent infection except:
A: cytomegalovirus
B: hepatitis A virus
C: hepatitis B virus
D: herpes simplex virus
A

B

29
Q 
229: A 24-year-old woman has had fever and a sore throat for the past week. moderately severe pharyngitis and bilateral cervical lymph-adenopathy are seen on physical examination. which one of the following viruses is least likely to cause this picture?
A: norwalk virus (norovirus)
B: adenovirus
C: coxsackie virus
D: epstein-barr virus
A

A

30
Q

238: Varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus share many characteristics. which one of the following characteristics is not shared?
A: inapparent disease, manifested only by virus shedding, is common
B: persistence of latent virus after recovery from acute disease
C: vesicular rash
D: linear, double-stranded DNA genome

A

A

31
Q

239: herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. which one of the following features is least likely to be shared?
A: important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn
B: congenital abnormalities due to transplacental passage
C: important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed individuals
D: mild or inapparent infection

A

B

32
Q

241: which one of the following statements concerning infectious mononucleosis is the most accurate?
A: multinucleated giant cells are found in the skin lesions
B: infected T lymphocytes are abundant in peripheral blood
C: isolation of virus is necessary to confirm the diagnosis
D: infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by virus in saliva

A

D

33
Q

242: which one of the following statements about genital herpes is least accurate?
A: acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently infected cells
B: genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions
C: multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions
D: initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes

A

A

34
Q

246: regarding the serologic diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis, which one of the following is correct?
A: a heterophil antibody is formed that reacts with a capsid protein of epstein-barr virus
B: a heterophil antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or horse red blood cells
C: a heterophil antigen occurs that cross-reacts with proteus OX19 strains
D: a heterophil antigen occurs following infection with cytomegalovirus

A

B

35
Q

247: herpes simplex virus type I (HSV-1) is distinct from HSV-2 in several different ways. which one of the following is the least accurate statement?
A: HSV-1 causes lesions above the umbilicus more frequently than HSV-2
B: infection by HSV-1 is not associated with any tumors in humans
C: antiserum to HSV-1 neutralizes HSV-1 much more effectively than HSV-2
D: HSV-1 causes frequent recurrences, whereas HSV-2 infection rarely recurs

A

D

36
Q

261: each of the following statements concerning herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is correct except:
A: primary infection with HSV-2 does not confer immunity to primary infection with HSV-1
B: HSV-2 causes vesicular lesions, typically in the genital area
C: HSV-2 can cause alterations of the cell membrane, leading to cell fusion and the formation of multinucleated giant cells
D: recurrent disease episodes due to reactivation of latent HSV-2 are usually more severe than the primary episode

A

D

37
Q

262: each of the following statements concerning epstein-barr virus is correct except:
A: many infections are mild or inapparent
B: the earlier in life primary infection is acquired, the more likely the typical picture of infectous mononucelosus will be manifest
C: latently infected lymphocytes regularly persist following an acute episode of infection
D: infection confers immunity against second episodes of infectious mononucleosis

A

B

38
Q

267: each of the following statements concerning herpesvirus latency is correct except:
A: exogenous stimuli can cause reactivation of herpesvirus replication in latently-infected cells
B: during latency, antiviral antibody is not demonstrable in the sera of infected individuals
C: reactivation of latent herpesvirus are more common in patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity than in immunocompetent patients
D: herpesvirus genome DNA persists in latently infected cells

A

B

39
Q 
Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: bronchiolitis
B: meningitis
C: pharyngitis
D: shingles
E: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

284: varicella-zoster virus

A

D

40
Q 
Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered letters:
A: adenovirus
B: parainfluenza virus
C: rhinovirus
D: coxsackie virus
E: epstein-barr virus

289: causes infectious mononucleosis

A

E

41
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

574: leading cause of congenital malformations; no vaccine available

A

J

42
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

575: causes a painful vesicular rash along the course of the throacic nerve

A

C

43
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

576: causes encephalitis; killed vaccine available

A

B

44
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

577: causes pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and a positive heterophil test

A

E

45
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

578: causes retinitis and pneumonia in patients deficient in helper T cells

A

J

46
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

579: causes encephlalitis, especially in temporal lobe

A

A

47
Q 
each set of matching questions in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.
A: herpes simplex virus I
B: rabies virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: measles virus
E: epstein-barr virus
F: influenza virus
G: rubella virus
H: herpes simplex virus type 2
I: mumps virus
J: cytomegalovirus
K: parainfluenza virus
L: respiratory syncytial virus

580: causes pneumonia primarily in infants; induces giant cells

A

L

48
Q

clinical case 1: a 22-year-old woman has a severe sore throat. findings on physical examination include an inflamed throat, swollen cervical lymph nodes, and an enlarged spleen. her heterophile agglutinin test (monospot test) is positive. Diagnosis?

A

infectious mononuclosis caused by EBV. other viruses and bacteria, espeically sterptococcus pyogenes, can cause pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy, but an enlarged spleen and a positive monospot test make infectious mononucleosis the most likely diagnosis

49
Q

clinical case 7: a 60-year-old man has had a nonproductive cough and fever for 1 week. he received a kidney transplant 6 weeks ago and has had one episode of rejection that required increased prednisone. there was no response to erythromycin, indicating that legionella and mycoplasma are unlikely causes. see owl’s eye inclusion bodies within the nucleus of infected cells in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. diagnosis?

A

cytomegalovirus pneumonia. these intranuclear inclusions are typical findings in CMV infections. immunosuppression predisposes to disseminated CMV infections.

50
Q

clinical case 15: a neonate was born with a small head (microcephaly), jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly. urine contained multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. Diagnosis?

A

cytomegalovirus infection acquired in utero. CMV is the leading cause of congenital abnormalities. for fetal infection to occur, the mother must be infected for the first time during pregnancy. she therefore would have no preexisting antibodies to neutralize the virus prior to its infecting the placenta and the fetus

51
Q

clinical case 27: an 80-year-old man complains of a painful rash on his forehead. the rash is vesicular and only on that side. he is being treated with chemotherapy for leukemia. smear of material from the base of the vesicle reveals multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. diagnosis?

A

herpes zoster (singles) caused by VZV. the rash of zoster follows the dermatome of the neuron that was latently infected. herpes simplex type 1 virus can cause a similar picture. can distinguish these viruses using fluorescent antibody assay

52
Q

clinical case 48: the 10-day-old neonate has several vesicles on the scalp and around the eyes. the child is otherwise well, afebrile and feeding normally. a giemsa-stained smear of material from the base of a vesicle revealed multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. diagnosis?

A

neonatal infection caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. infection is acquired during passage through the birth canal. life-threatening encephalitis and disseminated infection of the neonate also occur

53
Q

case 17: your patient is a 25 yo woman with a sore throat since yesterday. on physical examination, her throat is red, but no exudate is seen. two enlarged, tender cervical lymph nodes are palpable. her temperature is 101. a throat culture reveals no beta-hemolytic colonies. after receiving this result, you do another physical examination, which reveals an enlarged spleen. a heterophil antibody test finds that sheep red blood cells are agglutinated by the patient’s serum

612: which one of the following is the most likely cause of the disease?
A: streptococcus pyogenes
B: corynebacterium diphtheriae
C: epstein-barr virus
D: influenza virus
A

C

54
Q

case 24: your patient is a 65 yo man who had an adenocarcinoma of the pancreas that was surgically removed. several blood transfusions were given, and he did well until 2 weeks later, when fever, vomiting, and diarrhea began. blood and stool cultures were negative, and tests for clostridium difficile and hepatitis B surface antigen were negative. A liver biopsy revealed intranuclear inclusion bodies.

622: of the following, which one is the most likely cause?
A: adenovirus
B: cytomegalovirus
C: hepatitis A virus
D: rotavirus
A

B

55
Q

block one, 22: regarding the mode of action of antiviral drugs, which one of the following is most accurate?
A: amantadine inhibits influenza A virus by inhibiting the RNA polymerase carried by the virion
B: foscarnet inhibits varicella-zoster virus by inhibiting the RNA polymerase carried by the virion
C: acyclovir action is greater in herpesvirus-infected cells than in unaffected cells because herpesvirus-infected cells contain an enzyme that phosphorylates acyclovir very effectively
D: azidothymidine inhibits HIV by inhibiting viral mRNA synthesis more efficiently than cellular mRNA synthesis
E: indinavir blocks HIV replication by inhibiting the protease required for the envelope protein gp120 to bind to the CD8 protein on the surface of the T cell

A

C

55
Q 
block 2, 15: a 50 yo woman has had a gradual onset of headaches that have become increasingly more severe during the past 3 weeks. on examination, she is confused regarding time, place, and person, and she is febrile to 39 degrees. her spinal fluid reveals a normal glucose, normal protein, and 17 cells, all of which were lymphocytes. gram stain of the spinal fluid shows no organism. an MRI reveals a 2-cm radiolucent lesion in the temporal lobe. a biopsy of the brain lesion was performed. a giemsa stain of th etissue shows multi-nucleated giant cells with intranucelar inclusion bodies. which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A: adenovirus
B: coxsackie virus
C: cytomegalovirus
D: herpes simplex virus I
E: influenza virus
F: measles virus
G: parvovirus B19
H: poliovirus
I: prion
J: rabies virus
A

D

56
Q

case 28: your patient is a 35-year-old man who is HIV antibody-positive and has a CD4 count of 85 cells. He recently had a seizure, and an MRI scan indicates a lesion in the temporal lobe. A brain biopsy specimen reveals multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions.

626: of the following, which one is the MOST likely cause?
A: herpes simplex virus-type 1
B: parvovirus B19
C: Coxsackie virus
D: Western Equine encephalitis virus
A

A

57
Q

case 30: your patient is a 20-year-old man with a sore through for the past 3 days. on physical examination, his temperature is 38 degrees C, the pharynx is red, and several tender submaxillary nodes are palpable.

628: of the following, which one is the most likely organism to cause this infection?
A: streptococcus agalactiae
B: streptococcus sanguis
C: parvovirus B19
D: epstein-barr virus
A

D

58
Q

case 39: your patient is a 66 year old woman being treated with chemotherapy for lymphoma. She develops fever to 38 degrees C and a nonproductive cough. A chest X-ray reveals an infiltrate. You treat her empirically with an appropriate antibiotic. The following day, several vesicles appear on her chest.

642: which one of the following viruses is the most likely cause of her disease?
A: measles virus
B: respiratory syncytial virus
C: varicella-zoster virus
D: rubella virus
A

C

59
Q

case 48: your patient is a 30-year-old man who is HIV antibody-positive and has had two episodes of pneumocystis pneumonia. he now complains of pain in his mouth and difficulty swallowing. on physical examination, you find several whitish plaques on his oropharyngeal mucosa.

651: regarding the most likely causative organism, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
A: it is a filamentous gram-positive rod that is part of the normal flora in the mouth
B: it is an anaerobic gram-negative rod that is part of the normal flora of the colon
C: it is a yeast that forms pseudohyphae when it invades tissue
D: it is a spirochete that grows only in culture

A

C

60
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: DNA enveloped virus
B: DNA nonenveloped virus
C: RNA enveloped virus
D: RNA nonenveloped virus

194: human T-cell lymphotropic virus

A

C

61
Q 
select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: DNA enveloped virus
B: DNA nonenveloped virus
C: RNA enveloped virus
D: RNA nonenveloped virus

195: human papillomavirus

A

B

62
Q

248: which one of the following statements about the src gene and src protein of Rous sarcoma virus is incorrect?
A: the src gene encodes a protein with epidermal growth factor activity
B: the src protein is a protein kinase that preferentially phosphorylates tyrosine in cellular proteins
C: the src protein is required to maintain neoplastic transformation of infected cells
D: the viral src gene is derived from a cellular gene found in all vertebrate species

A

A

63
Q

249: each of the following statements supports the idea that cellular proto-oncogenes participate in human carcinogenesis except:
A: the c-abl gene is rearranged on the philadelphia chromosome in myeloid leukemias and encodes a protein with increased tyrosine kinase activity
B: the N-myc gene is amplified as much as 100-fold in many advanced cases of neuroblastoma
C: the receptor for platelet derived growth factor is a transmembrane protein that exhibits tyrosine kinase activity
D: the c-Ha-ras gene is mutated at specific codons in several types of human cancer

A

C

64
Q

272: many of th eoncogenic retroviruses carry oncogenes closely related to normal cellular genes, called proto-oncogenes. Which one of the following statements concerning proto-oncogenes is incorrect?
A: several proto-oncogenes have been found in mutant form in human cancers that lack evidence for viral etiology
B: several viral oncogenes and their progenitor proto-onco-genes encode protein kinases specific for tyrosine
C: some proto-oncogenes encode cellular growth factors and receptors for growth factors
D: proto-oncogenes are closely related to transposons found in bacteria

A

D

65
Q 
290: select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.
A: hepatitis C virus
B: cytomegalovirus
C: human papillomavirus
D: dengue virus
E: st. louis encephalitis virus

290: it is implicated as the cause of carcinoma in the cervix

A

C

x virology term 2 quiz 4 (6 decks)

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