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Radar > Level 3/Validation > Flashcards

Level 3/Validation Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum safe altitudes

A

Within 25NM - 3500FT
Out to 42.5NM
- NE - 3500FT
- SE - 3800FT
- SW - 4800FT
- NW - 4300FT

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2
Q

Squawks

A

7002 - Danger area general
7003 - Red Arrows
0022 - Helicopter receiving a service from ship
1730 - Spadeadam
0024 - Flight calibration

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3
Q

Frequencies

A

NCL Director - 125.830
Swanwick Mil North - 124.050
Currock Hill - 125.185

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4
Q

Level Verification

When is an aircraft considered to be at a level?

A

When mode C readout indicates 200ft or less from reported level

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5
Q

When is an aircraft considered to have left a level?

A

When mode C readout indicates change of 400ft or more and continuing in anticipated direction

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6
Q

When is an aircraft considered to have passed through a level?

When is an aircraft considered to have reached a level?

A

Passing through a level when mode C readout indicates change of 400ft or more and continuing in anticipated direction

Reached a level when 3 successive mode C readouts indicate 200ft or less from that level

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7
Q

Standard vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between?

A
  • All flights in Class A
  • IFR flights in Class C/D and E
  • IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C
  • IFR and Special VFR flights
  • Special VFR flights, except where reduction authorised by CAA
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8
Q

How would you identify an aircraft using PSR?

A
  • Turn method - heading alteration of at least 30 degrees
  • Departing aircraft method - to be achieved within 1 mile of end of runway
  • Position report method: - exact reporting point on situ display
  • over notified VRP/prominent geographical feature on situational display provided flight is visual with surface and 3000ft or less
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9
Q

What is the weather associated with a cold front?

A

Cumuliform clouds, showers, thunderstorms possible, good visibility away from showers

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10
Q

What is the weather associated with a warm front?

A

Stratiform clouds, precipitation, reduced visibility

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11
Q

Weather associated with occluded front?

A

Thick band of cloud and rain

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12
Q

Drone actions for flights below and outside CAS?

A
  • Shall provide 3nm lateral separation between IFR flights and operating location of UAS
  • With reference to vertical limit, controller shall round up maximum operating height and add at least 500ft to this number
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13
Q

Drone actions for along climb out/final approach?

A

Cease operations until more information is obtained

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14
Q

Drone actions - unknown drone scenario A: report or sighting of drone close to airfield perimeter or within critical area including climb out/approach

A
  • Cease runway ops
  • Contact police ops
  • ‘at (time) an unmanned aircraft was reported at (location) operating at approximately (height). Report your intentions?
  • if not located within 30 mins, decision lies with accountable manager to resume ops
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15
Q

Drone: scenario B/C/D: reports of UAS inside buffer zone/inside FRZ/within CTA/CTR but outside FRZ

A
  • contact police units
  • all aircraft due to operate within 5NM are to be advised in order to support ‘detect and avoid’ principle
  • after 30 minutes has passed and no further reports, normal ops can continue
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16
Q

Distress definition?

A
  • condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance (MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY)
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17
Q

Urgency definition?

A

Condition concerning safety or an aircraft/vehicle/person on board or within site but which does not require immediate assistance (PAN PAN x 3)

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18
Q

Urgency definition?

A

Condition concerning safety or an aircraft/vehicle/person on board or within site but which does not require immediate assistance (PAN PAN x 3)

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19
Q

What are the 5 receiver sites associated with the WAM system?

A

GS-00 New Airport TWR
GS-01 Warden Law
GS-02 High Spen
GS-03 Corby Craggs
GS-04 Ottercorp Moss

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20
Q

Vehicle tracking WAM receivers?

A

GS-05 GP07
GS-06 GP25
GS-07 Old Apron TWR
GS-08 Old Apron TWR

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21
Q

Objectives or air traffic services shall be to?

A
  • prevent collisions between aircraft
  • prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  • expedite and maintain orderly flow of air traffic
  • provide advice and info useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
  • notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR
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22
Q

What is visual approach criteria?

A
  • reported cloud ceiling is at or above beginning of initial approach segment
  • pilot reports at any time after commencing approach that visibility will permit a visual approach and landing
  • controller shall not clear aircraft for visual approach when RVR is less than 800m
  • APR to ensure aircraft remains within CAS and pilot is to be advised of their position in sequence
  • aircraft to adhere to noise abatement
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23
Q

What is the localiser protected range?

A

Out to 17nm, 35 degrees off centreline
Out to 25nm, 10 degrees of centreline

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24
Q

Who should special air reports be transmitted to?

A
  • Other aircraft concerned and shall cover portion of the route up to 1 hour
  • MET office
  • Other ATS units concerned
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25
Q

Actions to take in event of PSR failure?

A
  • Inform aircraft PSR unavailable
  • ATCO should: resume standard 5NM separation
  • Consider reducing traffic load
  • Reduce TI and services
  • Inform adjacent ATSUs
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26
Q

Actions to take in event of SSR failure?

A
  • Inform aircraft SSR unavailable
  • Limit services/reduce traffic
  • Inform adjacent ATSUs
  • Utilise adjacent units for ident if necessary
  • UK FIS should be assigned consp. squawk
  • To aid ident to receiving ATSUs, squawks may be allocated prior to handover, but unit to be informed not validated or verified
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27
Q

What conditions would require a special air report?

A
  • MOD/SEV icing
  • MOD/SEV turbulence
  • SEV mountain wave
  • thunderstorms with or without hail
  • volcanic ash cloud
  • pre-eruption activity
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28
Q

What is special VFR and what should it not do?

A
  • A clearance that allows pilots to operate below VFR minima
  • SVFR is not to hinder IFR flights
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29
Q

What conditions preclude VFR?

A

When MET conditions at aerodrome in Class D airspace reduce below 5KM visibility and/or cloud ceiling less than 1500ft

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30
Q

Who is exempt from the VFR minima?

A
  • Police, HEMS, Power/Pipeline, SAR
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31
Q

What is a pilots responsibility when operating SVFR?

A
  • Comply with ATC instructions
  • Remain clear of cloud, surface in sight
  • Ensure aircraft flown IAS 140kts or less
  • Fly within limitations of licence
  • Avoid ATZ unless told otherwise
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32
Q

What is the SVFR minima?

A

When MET conditions at aerodrome ground visibility is less than 1500m (800m for helicopters) and/or cloud ceiling less than 600ft

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33
Q

What are the flight priorities?

A
  • A - emergency, police emergency, ambulance/medical/SAR when threat of life
  • B - SAR humanitarian, normal police flights, others auth. by CAA
  • C - Royal flights/heads of state
  • D - PM/Chancellor/Home Sec/Sec State, heads of govt
  • E - HEMS/SAR positioning, flight check
    NORMAL flights incl. ‘EXAM’
  • Z - training
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34
Q

What is an example of avoiding action phraseology as per CAP413?

A

‘G-CD, avoiding action, turn left immediately heading 180 degrees, traffic was right 2 miles indicating 100ft below converging’

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35
Q

When is an aircraft considered to have infringed controlled airspace?

A

Mode C indicates aircraft is 100ft or more above/below the lower/upper limit of controlled airspace

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36
Q

An aircraft is shown to be flying at the same level as the base of controlled airspace. Has it infringed?

A

No. Aircraft can fly at the same level and be considered to be outside CAS

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37
Q

What does TAA stand for?

A

Terminal arrival altitude. Lowest level that will provide 1000ft clearance above all objects within an arc defined by a 25NM radius centered on the IAF

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38
Q

What is the maximum holding speed at ETSES?

A

220kts IAS

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39
Q

What is the normal descent level for ERUXI RNP approach?

Can this be lower?

A

5500ft

Yes, TAA for ERUXI is 3300ft

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40
Q

When should a pilot be informed of their position?

A
  • Being identified using turn method
  • At pilots request
  • When aircraft flying off correct track
  • When aircraft estimate differs significantly from controllers estimate based on surveillance equipment
  • When pilot is requested to resume own nav, if considered necessary
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41
Q

Basic Service. Definition. Who to and minima.

A
  • Provided for purpose of giving advice and info useful for safe and efficient conduct of flight. May include weather, conditions at aerodrome, general airspace activity
  • IFR/VFR
  • No minima, pilot responsible for own separation
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42
Q

Traffic service. Definition, who to and minima

A
  • In addition to basic service, controller provides surveillance derived traffic information to assist pilot in avoiding traffic. Controller may issue headings and/or levels for positioning/sequencing. Pilot responsible for collision avoidance.
  • IFR/VFR
  • Traffic considered relevant when going to pass between 3NM and 3000ft
  • To be passed before conflicting traffic is within 5NM
  • May be provided below terrain safe. Pilot responsible for terrain clearance
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43
Q

Deconfliction service. Definition, who to and minima

A
  • In addition to basic service, controller provides surveillance derived traffic information and issues headings/levels aimed at achieving deconfliction minima, or for sequencing/positioning
  • IFR only
  • Pilot responsible for traffic avoidance
  • Minima against uncoordinated traffic is 5NM and/or 3000ft
  • Minima for traffic being provided service with same controller is 3NM and/or 1000ft, or aircraft subject coordination
  • Only available at or above terrain safe level
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44
Q

What is the missed approach procedure for runway 25 ILS?

A

Climb straight ahead to 2500 or I-NWC D4 (whichever later), turn right to hold at NT at 2500, or as directed

45
Q

What is the missed approach procedure for runway 07 ILS?

A

Climb straight ahead to 2500 to hold at NT. Aircraft unable to achieve 2000 by NT are to climb to 2000 then turn right to NT climbing to 2500 or as directed

46
Q

Missed approach procedure for 07 RNP?

A

Climb straight ahead to 2000 to hold at NTM01 or as directed

47
Q

Missed approach procedure for 25 RNP?

A

Climb straight ahead to 2500 to hold at NTM02 or as directed

48
Q

Typically, how much warning of a collision is given by TCAS?

A
  • RA 30 seconds
  • TA 45 seconds
49
Q

When radar ops are split, Newcastle Director is typically responsible for…?

A
  • Control of inbound IFR traffic within CAS
  • Coordinating IFR traffic inside CAS with Prestwick or other ATSUs
  • Coordinating IFR traffic that will leave NCL CAS with radar
  • Coordinating runway in use, ILS and LVPs with tower, advising radar
50
Q

When radar ops are split, typically what is Newcastle radar responsible for?

A
  • IFR and VFR traffic outside CAS, provision of FIS
  • Departing IFR traffic
  • VFR traffic within CAS
  • Coordinating IFR traffic arriving/transiting from outside CAS
  • Coordinating VFR traffic intending to route which would conflict with director’s traffic
51
Q

What does a surveillance service comprise of?

A
  • Separation of arriving, departing and en-route traffic
  • Vectoring
  • Position information to assist in nav of aircraft
  • Monitoring traffic (procedural controller)
  • Assistance to aircraft crossing CAS
52
Q

As per MATS2, when are training flights permitted?

A
  • Mon - Sat 0730-2300
  • Sun 0900-2300
53
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation at Newcastle?

A

266ft

54
Q

What is the frequency of the ILS LLZ?

A

111.500 MHz

55
Q

What is the frequency of the ILS GP?

A

332.900 MHz

56
Q

At what point should aircraft be told they are leaving CAS?

A
  • Between 5-10NM of the boundary or 3-6000ft
57
Q

As per the AIP, when can training flights not take place?

A

Between 1 May to 30 September, between 1200 and 1500

58
Q

What are the 2 STARS at Newcastle?

A

POL1N and RIMTO1N

59
Q

What are the transition names of the RNP approaches?

A
  • 25 ETSES1K
  • 07 ETSES1J
60
Q

What are the waypoints associated with the 25 RNP approach?

A
  • ASGEB (North)
  • SUPIG (centreline)
  • UPMOP (south)
61
Q

What are the waypoints associated with the 07 RNP approach?

A
  • ERUXI (South)
  • NT07I (Centreline)
  • KUSEG (North)
62
Q

What is the maximum speed for the ILS procedural approach?

A

185Kts

63
Q

Who does the 250kt below FL100 speed limit not apply to?

A
  • Flights in A/B
  • IFR in class C
  • Exempted VFR in C when auth
  • Exempted flights in D when auth
  • Test flights
  • Flying displays
  • Aircraft subj to permission by CAA
  • Military
64
Q

Opening hours for P18N?

A
  • 1500 Friday to Monday 1000 (or day following BH)
  • Tue to Fri 0530-0900
  • May to Sep Mon to Thu 1900-0900
65
Q

What are the dimensions of D514?

A
  • FL85 to FL660
66
Q

What is the protected range of the Glide Path?

A

10NM, 8 degrees off centreline

67
Q

What is the flow of traffic at the Hexham Gap?

A

Northbound passes to the West
Southbound passes to the East

68
Q

What is the minimum spacing for departures required in P18 South?

Slow climbing aircraft?

A

10NM.

Aircraft unable to achieve FL140, 5NM before TILNI must be coordinated with EGNV

69
Q

What is the usual distance between aircraft passed from East sector along P18?

A

No less than 5NM in trail

70
Q

What is the radio fail procedure for an aircraft expecting ILS approach?

A

Follow standard RT fail procedure and route to NT (unless on closing heading or visual)

71
Q

What is the radio fail procedure for an aircraft expecting RNP approach?

A

If not yet reached ETSES, complete STAR and take up hold at ETSES at last assigned level.

Aircraft will adopt RT fail procedure as detailed in AIP ENR

If aircraft passed ETSES, expect to continue transition and land using RNP

72
Q

VFR radio failure?

A

Squawk 7600 and land at nearest suitable aerodrome.

Do not enter CAS unless permission previously given

73
Q

IMC radio failure?

A

Maintain for a period of 7 minutes, last assigned speed/level from when 7600 selected.

If following SID, complete it then continue until 7 minutes up

Following 7 minutes, adjust speed and level in accordance with FPL and continue

If being radar vectored, continue last acknowledged instructions for 3 minutes then proceed in most direct manner possible to rejoin FPL

74
Q

When can you vector off a SID?

When can you vector off an NPR?

A
  • Not until passed 4000ft, or NTS12 (G1T) or NTS08 (G1Y)
  • NPR, passing 4000ft
  • Aircraft turning right dep 25 only after passing 4NM
75
Q

What is QDM and QTE?

A
  • QDM is magnetic bearing to a station from aircraft
  • QTE true bearing from a station to aircraft
76
Q

What should the ATCO do in morning checks?

A
  • Test emergency radios
  • VCCS Setup
  • HRDF
  • Runway in use, SID, NPR
  • ILS - equipment status panel
  • RMB Test
  • Radar status panel
  • Radar situ display (Permanent echoes)
  • EFPS
  • Metcom and anemometers
  • BOCA printer
77
Q

Currock Hill, what are the heights?

A
  • CCT only, 3000ft
  • Area 1 and all areas 5000ft
  • 0.5NM buffer zone
78
Q

What is the transition altitude at NCL and Class G?

A
  • 6000ft within NCL CTA/CTR
  • 3000ft in class G
79
Q

What is contained in a radar handover?

A
  • Ident
  • Position
  • SSR Code
  • Heading/observed track
  • Level
80
Q

What is the maximum holding level at NT?

A
  • No max, however APR will not hold above FL160 without coordinating with East and Tay and notifying Swanwick Mil
  • Lowest level is 3500ft, but can use 2500ft with coordination with ADV
81
Q

Castle and Derwent max height?

A

FL120
Unavailable if PSR U/S

82
Q

What is enhanced mode S

A
  • Selected altitude
  • IAS
  • Ground speed
  • magnetic heading
  • rate of climb/descent
83
Q

When should the WAM not be used?

A
  • System not available when 2 or more sites U/S
  • Amber means problem but serviceable
  • Red mean station failed and U/S
84
Q

Transfer of identity may be done by PSR:

A
  • Direct designation (pointing)
  • Designation of position indication in terms of direction and distance from common ref point. Must be within 3nm of position stated
  • PI must not exceed 30nm if aircraft is flying along published ATS route or given as bearing in degrees
  • 15nm in other circumstances
85
Q

What is the DOC for APP/TWR and DIR?

A
  • App/Dir 60nm and 25,000ft
  • TWR 25nm and 5000ft
86
Q

What can an ATCO do with an unidentified aircraft?

A
  • info on position of aircraft likely to constitute a hazard
  • avoiding action
  • info about observed wx for pilots and ATCOs
  • assistance to aircraft in emergency
87
Q

What action should an ATCO take by a pilot who reports minimum fuel

A
  • Indicates no further fuel diversion options available
  • Controller shall respond by confirming estimated delay in minutes or no delay
  • pilot will determine whether or not they can continue
88
Q

When does transfer of control normally take place?

A
  • At an agreed point
  • Estimate for a FIR boundary
  • At or passing an agreed level
  • While aircraft climbing/descending to an agreed lvl, provided controller has ensured separation
89
Q

Inbound noise abatement procedures

A
  • Not to join FAT to either runway at range of 7nm, not below 2000ft
  • Prop driven with MTWA between 5700kg and 12,000kg join FAT to either runway not less than 3.5NM and 1300ft
  • aircraft less than 5700kg must join CCT not below 1300ft
90
Q

LVO Criteria

A
  • Safeguarding: vis of 1500n or less and/or cloud ceiling 300ft or below
  • LVP: IRVR of 1000m or less and/or cloud ceiling of 200ft or below (or cloud base of 200ft or below affecting airfield)
91
Q

What is a red bomb threat?

A

Credible threat to specific target.

Caller has positively identified themselves or organisation involved

92
Q

What is an amber bomb threat?

A

Doubtful credibility but where it is prudent to consider taking additional protective measures

93
Q

What is a green bomb threat?

A

Non-credible. Requires no further action

94
Q

Aircraft reports laser attack. What are your actions?

A
  • 999
  • Subsequent aircraft to be notified of the attack and vectored away from area if necessary
  • passed to subsequent aircraft for at least 30 minutes or longer if deemed appropriate
95
Q

Unless planned to leave CAS, aircraft should not be vectored outside CAS unless…?

A
  • Emergency situ arises
  • Avoiding weather
  • When requested by the pilot
96
Q

How much notice is required for activation of Castle and Derwent?

What is it?

A

5 minutes.

Portion of airspace that allows gliders to X CAS north of uvavu below FL125.

Max heigh is FL120

97
Q

What is wind shear?

A

A sustained change in the wind velocity along the aircraft flight path, occurs significantly faster than the aircraft can accelerate or decelerate

98
Q

What should a windshear report contain?

A
  • warning of the presence of windshear
  • height or height band where encountered
  • time at which it was encountered
  • details of the effect (gain/loss)
99
Q

If intentions of mode C transponding aircraft are unknown, what is the minimum separation? (Airspace infringement)

A
  • IFR increased to 5000ft
100
Q

Radar control service is provided to who?

A
  • IFR aircraft
  • Special VFR
  • VFR in class B-D
101
Q

Radar Handar may be effected provided…?

A
  • satisfactory 2-way speech between controllers
  • identity has been transferred to, or established by accepting controller
  • accepting controller informed of any speed/level or vectoring instructions applicable to aircraft at stage of transfer
102
Q

When would aircraft be subject to radar handover to EGNV?

A
  • Operating PSR only
  • ATCOs request
  • Aircraft subject to coordination
103
Q

Phraseology for aircraft to select altitude?

A

‘Squawk Altitude’

104
Q

Phraseology to deselect altitude reporting?

A

‘Stop squawk altitude, wrong indication’

105
Q

Check the correct altitude phraseology?

A

‘Check selected level, cleared level is XXX’

106
Q

APS shall provide svcs to aircraft?

A
  • Arriving aircraft released from area until transferred to aerodrome
  • Acft approaching from outside CAS place themselves under control of APS until transferred to ADI
  • Departing aircraft taken over from ADI until transferred to area or
  • Clear of CAS
107
Q

Which aircraft operators are involved in plan 39?

A
  • BA
  • Ryanair
  • Jet2
  • TUI
108
Q

GNSS Jamming at Spadeadam - implications?

A
  • RNP App not available
  • SIDs flown with ref to DME/DME
  • Any critical navaids U/S then SIDs withdrawn
  • STAR available using DME/DME

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