Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMLEX Level 3 > Level 3 > Flashcards

Level 3 Flashcards

1
Q

T score between -1.0 and -2.5

A

Osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head in a child; mild pain, limp, and Trendelenburg gait

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common cause of osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Osteoporosis is diagnosed with a DEXA T score below

A

-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is treated with which medication?

A

Nimodipine (calcium channel blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drug of choice for patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and severely elevated BP

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The blue-dot sign is pathognomonic for this condition

A

Torsion of the appendix testis (remnant of the paramesonephric duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adult polycystic kidney disease is associated with

A

berry aneurysms, hepatic cysts, and thoracic aortic aneurysms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Goals of tx of hyperkalemia

A

1) Membrane stabilization (calcium chloride or gluconate)
2) Shift of K into cells (beta-agonist, IV sodium bicarb, or insulin + glucose)
3) Excretion (furosemide, sodium polystyrene sulfonate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Charcot’s triad

A

Fever, Jaundice, RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reynold’s pentad

A

Fever, Jaundice, RUQ pain, AMS, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patient presents with jaundice and pruritis, and is associated with Ulcerative Colitis

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inactivation of neutrophil elastase is associated with

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most important and accurate test to make the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Presents as red, itchy, macerated plaques and erosions within the skin folds; a border of fine scale as well as satellitle papules and pustules

A

Candidal intertrigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most commonly presents with abdominal pain, neuropathy, and non-specific psych symptoms; no rash; Urine porphobilinogen and aminolevulinic acid will be elevated

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neuroendocrine tumor that typically arises in the midgut (appendix) and releases serotonin; flushing, abdominal pain, and diarrhea; urine levels of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) will be increased

A

Carcinoid tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Uterine atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment of uterine atony starts with

A

uterine massage

Uterotonic drugs: oxytocin, carboprost, misopristol, and methylergonovine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patients with pellagra commonly display

A

Dermatitis, Diarrhea, and Dementia (niacin deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The majority of renal calculi are

A

calcium stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Used to treat ethylene glycol and methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CHA2DS2-VASc

A 
Congestive heat failure
Hypertension
Her (female sex)
Age
Diabetes
Stroke (hx)
Vascular disease (hx)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Blowing holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border that increases with inspiration

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common benign tumor in women

A

Leiomyomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A process in which a left to right cardiac shunt reverses to a right to left shunt due to pulmonary HTN

A

Eisenmenger syndrome (most commonly due to a large, VSD or ASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most common infection causing aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell disease

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Renal biopsy shows IgG and C3 deposits as the basement membrane, with a “spike-and-dome” appearance

A

Membranous Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Erb-Duchenne’s palsy is caused by injury to which nerve roots?

A

C5-C6 (most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Klumpke’s palsy is caused by injury to which nerve roots?

A

C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment of choice for central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Best initial test for acromegaly

A

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

First lab to be increased after the induction of warfarin

A

PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment of choice for H pylori

A

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and a PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Medications commonly implicated in drug-induced Lupus

A

Hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide, penicilliamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Caused by injury to C8-T1 nerve root causing Horner’s syndrome, ulnar nerve distribution numbness, and paralysis of the intrinsic muscles of the hand

A

Klumpke’s Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most sensitive test for ruling out drug-induced lupus erythematosus

A

Anti-histone antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies are diagnostic of this condition

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies or anti-thyroglobulin antibodies are diagnostic of this condition

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Patient wants treatment for depression but low risk of sexual side effects

A

Bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Atypical antidepressant that is contraindicated in patients with eating disorders

A

Bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The Five W’s of post-op fever

A 
Wind (atelectasis)
Water (UTI)
Wound (Infection)
Walking (DVT)
Wonder drugs (Med reaction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pinworm; can cause symptoms of appendicitis; associated with nocturnal pruritus ani (anal itching)

A

Enterobius vermicularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Muscle shortens

A

Concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Muscle lengthens

A

Eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The most specific tests for SLE

A

anti-Smith Ab and anti-dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most sensitive test for ruling out SLE

A

antinuclear antibody (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

First-line tx for Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Primitive neuroectodermal tumor most often arising in the diaphysis of extremity long bones in male patients; small round blue cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and minimal clear cytoplasm

A

Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Lymph nodes that drain the ovaries and testes

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Port wine stain of the face and seizures

A

Sturge-Weber (look for homonymous hemianopia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder that is characterized by the combination of medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and pheochromocytoma

A

MEN 2A Sipple Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm is with

A

PTU or methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Patients should be evaluated __________ weeks after initiating treatment with levothyroxine

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for lesions suspicious for malignant melanoma?

A

Excisional biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The prognosis for malignant melanoma is related to

A

the depth of invasion (Breslow thickness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sinusoidal heart rate pattern on fetal tracing indicates

A

severe fetal anemia, usually due to Rh isoimmunization or severe hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Late decelerations are caused by

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Umbilical cord compression causes

A

variable decelerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pressure of the fetal head causes

A

early decelerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most specific tests for RA

A

anti-CCP antibodies and radiographic findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Infectious epididymitis in patients under 35 is most often caused by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most common cause of infectious epididymitis in patients of 35 y/o

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most likely breast cancer to be missed on mammography, even with a palpable lesion

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Most common type of breast cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Most common cause of bloody nipple discharge

A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most common type of testicular germ cell tumors and malignancy in patients between 15-35 y/o

A

Seminoma (“fried-egg appearance”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most common testicular cancer in prepubescent males; always presents with significantly elevated AFP levels

A

Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor; may reveals Schiller-Duvall bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which types of HPV causes the majority of genital warts?

A

6&11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which types of HPV causes the majority of cervical cancers?

A

16&18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

First-line pharmacological treatment for OCD

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Drug of choice for essential tremor

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fat embolism is associated with a(n)

A

petechial rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The therapy of choice for TTP is

A 
plasma exchange (FAT RN)
Fever, Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal disease, Neuro dysfunction

ADAMTS13 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common fungal cause of otitis externa

A

Aspergillus niger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most common risk factor for dementia

A

Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults?

A

S. pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Very common cause of meningitis in neonates

A

Group B Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Meningitis associated with recent brain surgery or indwelling cath

A

Staph

82
Q

Immunocompromised or elderly patient with meningitis

A

Listeria

83
Q

Lymphocytes are more specific to which type of meningitis?

A

Viral

84
Q

Bacterial meningitis should be treated with

A

vancomycin, ceftriaxone and steroids

Chemoprophylaxis with rifampin or cipro is also recommended for close contacts

85
Q

A disorder of the breast in which the mammary duct becomes clogged. Classically, patients present with unilateral greenish nipple discharge. The discharge can also be bloody. Mostly seen in menopausal women and can mimic the presentation of breast cancer.

A

Ductal ectasia

86
Q

Renal biopsy in a patient with Henock-Schonlein Purpura reveals

A

IgA deposits

87
Q

MRSA is a S. aureus species with an oxacillin MIC greater than

A

4 mcg/mL

88
Q

What is the abx of choice in invasive MRSA infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients with comorbidities?

A

IV vancomycin

89
Q

Coarctation of the aorta most commonly occurs

A

just distal to the left subclavian artery

90
Q

Treating delirium tremens (three B’s)

A

Benzo, Beta blocker, Banana bag (thiamine/folate)

91
Q

Urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid level (5-HIAA)

A

Used when carcinoid tumor is suspected

92
Q

Urinary metanephrine level

A

Used to diagnose pheochromocytoma

93
Q

Most common etiology of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (diagnosed when PMN count > 250

A

E. coli (Klebsiella is the second most common cause)

94
Q

Occurs when IgA and the gliadin protein combine, forming an immune complex that is deposited along the papillary dermis; transglutaminase antibodies

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

95
Q

Anti-hemidesmosome antibodies are seen in

A

bullous pemphigoid

96
Q

What is the tx of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Dapsone

97
Q

What CHF med causes transient excess brightness of vision?

A

Ivabradine (SA nodal inhibitor)

98
Q

Muscle weakness associated with carpal tunnel syndrome can be noted in the LOAF muscles

A

Lumbricals one and two, Oppens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis

99
Q

Homozygous C282Y HFE gene mutation

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis

100
Q

Dystrophic bone disorder in which elevated levels of phosphate and lowered levels of calcium combine to incrase serum PTH levels; seen in patients with kidney failure

A

Renal ostedystrophy

101
Q

Patients with a family hx of FAP without genetic proof of disease should undergo annual flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy starting at

A

puberty

102
Q

Infants with confirmed sickle cell disease should receive

A

twice-daily penicillin V until at least 5 years of age

103
Q

Monosodium urate crystals which have strong negative birefringence and are needle-shaped

A

Gout

104
Q

First-line therapy for mild to moderate rosacea

A

Combo of topical metronidazole and topical azelaic acid

105
Q

Lead toxicity is best treated with

A

Succimer, EDTA and dimercaprol

106
Q

Reccurent, spontaneous abortions should raise suspicion for

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

107
Q

Decreased hemoglobin, decreased MCV, decreased iron, decreased TIBC, decreased transferring and high-normal or increased ferritin

A

Anemia of Chronic Disease

108
Q

Increased reticulocyte count, increased RDW, decreased haptoglobin, elevated LDH, and indirect hyperbilirubinemia

A

Hemolytic anemia

109
Q

Most common inherited hyperbilirubinemia; Mutation in the promoter region of UGT1A1 gene → ↓ activity of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase→ decreased conjugation of bilirubin → ↑ indirect bilirubin

A

Gilbert syndrome

110
Q

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity is (almost) absent; ↑↑ Indirect bilirubin (20–50 mg/dL)

A

Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

111
Q

Defective MRP2 transporter; → impaired movement of conjugated (direct) bilirubin from the hepatocyte to the bile canaliculi; Liver biopsy: darker granular pigmentation

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

112
Q

Defective organic anion transport proteins (OATP) 1B1 and 1B3 in hepatocytes → impaired transport and reduced storage capacity of conjugated (direct) bilirubin; ; ↑ Urinary coproporphyrins I and III (fraction of isomer I < 70% of total)

A

Rotor syndrome

113
Q

First line treatment for ascites

A

Spironolactone and/or furosemide

114
Q

What tests should be ordered when breast cancer is confirmed?

A
  • HER2 overexpression
  • ER expression
  • PR expression
  • CBC
  • Alanine aminotransferase
  • Aspartate aminotransferase
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Sentinel lymph node biopsy
115
Q

What is the best therapy for dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Dapsone and a gluten-free diet

116
Q

Post-resptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by

A

Skin infections (impetigo) or pharyngitis

117
Q

Rheumatic fever generally only comes after

A

Strep pharyngitis

118
Q

Imbalance of the normal vaginal bacterial; presents with increased vaginal discharge that is thin and gray-white with a fish odor; vaginal pH increases to greater than 4.5; clue cells

A

Bacterial vaginosis

119
Q

Presents with a green and frothy vaginal discharge, vaginal itching or burning, and pain with intercourse; actively motile protozoa

A

Trichomonas

120
Q

Postcoital contraception should be used within how many hours of coitus?

A

72 hours

121
Q

Anti-transglutaminase IgA and anti-endomysium IgA are useful screening tests for

A

Celiac disease

122
Q

A patient whom overdoses on acetaminophen and presents after 8 hours should be given

A

N-acetylcysteine

123
Q

Pharmacologic treatment for SIADH

A

Tolvaptan, conivaptan

124
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly caused by

A

Coxsackie A virus

125
Q

High fever which then resolves and then a maculopapular rash develops on the trunk, spreads to the neck

A

HHV-6; roseola infantum

126
Q

Abdominal distension, failure of passage of meconium within the first 48 hours of life, and bilious vomiting

A

Hirschsprung disease (rectal biopsy will reveal absence of ganglionic cells)

127
Q

This procedure is indicated for patients with significant left main coronary artery disease (more than 70% stenosis) or triple-vessel disease that cannot be treated with PCI

A

Coronary bypass

128
Q

May cause DM, necrolytic migratory erythema, weight loss and diarrhea

A

Glucagonoma

129
Q

First-line treatment for tinea capitis

A

Oral griseofulvin or oral terbinafine

130
Q

Feigning of an illness in order to achieve a secondary gain, which may include getting sick leave from work, applying for disability, acquiring drugs, or looking for accommodation in the hospital

A

Malingering

131
Q

Characterized by the conscious production of signs and symptoms in order to assume the “sick role”

A

Factitious disorder (Munchausen)

132
Q

Autosomal dominant disease characterized by multiple vascular malformations, including AVM’s that can occur anywhere; telangiectasias on the tongue

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu

133
Q

Pheochromocytoma should first be treated with

A

phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker) before beta blocker

134
Q

Treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer

A

Chemotherapy +/- radiation

135
Q

Chest x-ray reveals an “egg-on-string appearance”; large, void-shaped heart and a narrow mediastinum

A

Transposition of the great vessels

136
Q

Classic boot-shaped heart on X-ray

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

137
Q

Chest x-ray will reveal a “snowman” appearance

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

138
Q

Tumor of the pancreas that causes watery diarrhea, hypochlorhydria, and hyperglycemia

A

VIPoma (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide); treat with octreotide

139
Q

Which deficiency results in decreased calcium and phosphate absorption?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

140
Q

Caused by target organ resistance to PTH; pt’s will have hypocalcemia, elevated phosphate, and elevated PTH

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

141
Q

A rare inherited disorder characterized by the combination of primary brain tumors and colorectal cancer or polyposis. Associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (mostly medulloblastomas) and Lynch syndrome (mostly gliomas)

A

Turcot’s syndrome

142
Q

Atypical antipsychotic typically avoided due to its side effect of agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

143
Q

Which medication can be used to augment therapy when MDD is resistant to monotherapy with antidepressants?

A

Lithium

144
Q

Hepatic vein obstruction that leads to hepatomegaly, ascites, and abdominal discomfort. It is most commonly due to a thrombotic occlusion secondary to a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm (e.g., polycythemia vera), but may be caused by other conditions associated with hypercoagulable states. The obstruction of blood flow causes congestion of the liver with subsequent liver cell damage resulting in progressive liver failure.

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

145
Q

What type of hyperbilirubinemia results in elevated levels of urine urobilinogen?

A

Conjugated

146
Q

Only curative treatment of carcinoid syndrome

A

Surgery (look for episodic cutaneous flushing, wheezing, intestinal cramping, diarrhea and liver lesions)

147
Q

Positive antimitochondrial antibodies

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

148
Q

First-line treatment for hemochromatosis

A

Chronic phlebotomy

149
Q

The constellation of Convulsions, Confusion/Coma, and Cardiac Conduction irregularities

A

TCA overdose

150
Q

When to begin prophylaxis for P jiroveci (PCP) pneumonia

A

CD4 < 200 (TMP-SMX)

151
Q

When to begin prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis

A

CD4 < 100 (TMP-SMX)

152
Q

When to begin prophylaxis for mycobacteria avium-intracelullare

A

CD4 <50 (azithromycin)

153
Q

Ulcerative colotis should be treated with

A

5-ASA (mesalamine) or sulfasalazine

154
Q

Initial step in the evaluation of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)

A

Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio

155
Q

All Bacterial Meningitis gets empiric:

A

+Ceftriaxone, +Vanc, +Steroids, +/- Ampicillin

156
Q

CRAFFT screen for peds

A

Car, Relax, Alone, Forget, Friends, Trouble

157
Q

Allergic rhinitis, asthma, blood eosinophilia and positive p-ANCA

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome

158
Q

Most specific test for CREST syndrome

A

Anti-centromere antibodies

159
Q

Male adolescent with absent puberty, poor sense of smell, and undectable LH/FSH levels

A

Kallman syndrome

160
Q

Occurs after extensive postpartum hemorrhage; anterior pituitary hormones will be decreased

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

161
Q

Caused by antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, leading to muscle weakness, particularly after continued use

A

Myasthenia gravis

162
Q

A congenital disorder caused by microdeletion on the long arm of chromosome 22. The clinical presentation is variable and includes features such as congenital heart defects, craniofacial abnormalities, and/or defective development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, resulting in hypoplastic thymus and parathyroids

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

163
Q

A genetic condition in which a male inherits one (~ 80%) or more additional X chromosomes (47 XXY, 48 XXXY, etc), causing decreased serum testosterone. Typical presentations include a tall/slender frame, sparse pubic hair, decreased muscle bulk, infertility, and gynecomastia.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

164
Q

Osteomyelitis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely due to

A

Salmonella

165
Q

Due to an adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia that increases the secretion of aldoserone; hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and mild metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn syndrome

166
Q

Respiratory and craniosacral motion

A

Superior transverse axis

167
Q

Postural motion

A

Middle transverse axis

168
Q

Innominate rotation

A

Inferior transverse axis

169
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis is caused by

A

Malassezia overgrowth

170
Q

Chelation therapy is recommended for children with serum lead levels greater than

A

45 ug/dL; succimer is the chelating agent of choice

171
Q

Hospital admission for IV chelation therapy is recommended for children with serum lead levels greater than

A

70 ug/dL

172
Q

Gastrinomas are most commonly found

A

in the duodenum (increase in fasting serum gastrin)

173
Q

Ratio of the risks of exposure to non-exposure in the development of a disease and is used in cohort studiets

A

Relative risk

174
Q

Most classical additional lab finding in leukemoid reaction is

A

increased leukocute alkaline phosphatase

175
Q

Smudge cells; lymphocytes express CD5

A

Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia (CLL)

176
Q

9;22 translocation; Philadelphia chromosome; results from formation of a bcr-abl fusion gene

A

Chronic myelogenous lekuemia (CML)

177
Q

Helpful tumor marker to support the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer

A

CA 19-9

178
Q

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

A

Trousseau’s syndrome

179
Q

Pancreatic cancer is most often located

A

in the pancreatic head

180
Q

Heliotrope rash and Gottron papules

A

Dermatomyositis

181
Q

OCD is treated with

A

CBT plus clomipramine (TCA) or an SSRI

182
Q

Risk factors for colorectal cancer

A

Alcohol use, insulin resistance, obesity, red meat consumption, tobacco use

183
Q

Tympanostomy tube otorrhea is treated with

A

topical abx drops: ofloxacin or cipro-dexamethasone

184
Q

Congenital infection that causes sensorineural hearing loss and periventricular calcifications

A

Congenital cytomegalovirus

185
Q

Early presents with maculopapular lesions on the palms and soles, rhinitis (snuffles), heaptosplenomegaly and jaundice. Late manifests with frontal bossing of the head, saddle-nose deformity, keratitis, sensorineural hearing loss and Hutchinson teeth

A

Congenital syphilis

186
Q

Which deficiency results in demyelination of the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts of the spinal cord?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

187
Q

Bilateral loss of pain and temperature on the back; “cape-like”

A

Syringomyelia

188
Q

Most important treatable risk factor for stroke

A

Hypertension

189
Q

Vasculitis that primarily affects the upper and lower respiratory tracts and kidneys resulting in nephritic syndrome; rhinitis; hemoptysis and a positive c-ANCA finding; anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

190
Q

Esophageal web formation, glossitis, koilonychia and anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

191
Q

RhoGAM is administered to all Rh-negative women at how many weeks’ gestation?

A

28 weeks

192
Q

Most appropriate treatment for GI volvulus

A

Sigmoidoscopy

193
Q

Acquired by eating contaminated raw or undercooked fish; preferentially uses vitamin B12 as a source of nutrition, causing deficiency in thehost

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

194
Q

Croup (laryngotracheitis) is most commonly caused by

A

Parainfluenza virus type 1

195
Q

A fall on outstretched hands results in what type of radial head dysfunction?

A

Posterior radial head

196
Q

First-line for prevention of seizures in children with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy or absence epilepsy

A

Valproate

197
Q

First-line pharmacologic therapy for narcolepsy

A

Modafinil

198
Q

Most specific test for pancreatic cancer

A

ERCP

199
Q

Ribs 1-5 rotate around a

A

transverse axis

200
Q

Ribs 6-10 rotate around a

A

AP axis

COMLEX Level 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions