Level 2 CE Flashcards

1
Q

Damage to the ___ of the brachial plexus, most commonly seen with thoracic outlet syndrome or trauma, would cause numbness/pain in the fourth and fifth digits.

A

lower trunk brachial plexus

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2
Q

The median nerve innervates what muscles?

A
LOAF:
lumbricals (first and second)
opponens pollicis
abductor pollicis brevis
flexor pollicis brevis.
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3
Q

Presenting sx of tender adenopathy and linear excoriations on the arm with social history of pets (dog, cat, bird) suggest infection from what organism?

A

cat-scratch disease caused by Bartonella henselae.

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4
Q

Gram-negative bacterium causing fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and a dry cough in humans, especially with social history related to birds.

A

Birds are the natural reservoir for Chlamydia psittaci. The organism is a gram-negative bacterium that causes fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and a dry cough in humans.

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5
Q

Dx of postterm pregnancy rests on establishment

of ___.

A

the correct gestational age

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6
Q

In otherwise healthy pt w clear microadenoma causing Cushing syndrome, tx of choice: __.

A

transsphenoidal resection of the adenoma

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7
Q

Five major causes of metabolic alkalosis:

A
Loop diuretics
vomiting
renal insufficiency
hyperaldosteronism (aka Conn syndrome)
antacids
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8
Q

pH, pCO2, and HCO3 findings in a pt with metabolic alkalosis?

A
  • pH elevated (basic)
  • pCO2 elevated (respiratory compensation)
  • Bicarb > 28 (elevated)
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9
Q

Pt presents with asymptomatic hypercalcemia. What is first test to run, and what is indicated if elevated?

A

serum parathyroid hormone; if elevated, indicates dx of primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma.

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10
Q

The MCC of hypercalcemia are hyperparathyroidism and __.

A

squamous cell carcinoma, usually of the lung.

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11
Q

Pt w HIV presents with red/purple papules and plaques in the hard palate of the mouth and lower extremities. Dx/etiology/tx?

A

Kaposi sarcoma, HHV-8.
Biopsy to confirm.
Start on antiretrovirals.

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12
Q

Pt presents with ear pain, itching, and pain with mvmt of tragus/pinna. Dx and etiology?

A

Otitis externa

Pseudomonas

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13
Q

Pt presents w ear pain following URI. Exam reveals bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane. Dx/MC etiology/tx?

A

Otitis media;
S pneu, H influ, M cata
Tx: amoxicillin; if mild, may observe for 48-72 hours.

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14
Q

Two possible sequelae of untreated otitis media:

A

mastitis and cholesteatoma

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15
Q

Pt with ear discharge and hearing loss. Exam shows retraction pocket on tympanic membrane.
Dx/Cx/Tx?

A
  • cholesteatoma
  • keratin accumulation
  • surgical removal
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16
Q

Elderly pt with increasing difficulty reading. Fundoscopy reveals yellow deposits clustered around macula in both eyes. Dx?

A

dry age-related macular degeneration

Presents as progressive loss of central vision.

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17
Q

Elderly pt with dry age-related macular degeneration has yellow deposits of extracellular material called ___ around the macula.

A

drusen

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18
Q

Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by __.

A

growth of abnormal blood vessels into the subretinal space. These disorganized, leaky vessels lead to abnormal fluid or blood collections, causing rapid vision loss.

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19
Q

Central vision loss is (rapid/slow) in (dry/wet) age-related macular degeneration.

A

rapid in wet

slow in dry

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20
Q

Visual distortion of straight lines (as detected in an Amsler grid) is a cardinal sign of (vision ds) __.

A

wet age-related macular degeneration

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21
Q

Vitamin __ deficiency results in inadequate production of __, which facilitates vision in low-light conditions.

A

rhodopsin

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22
Q

HTN, w or wo hypokalemia, is the hallmark of excess ___ secretion.

A

aldosterone

HTN and hypokalemia are the hallmarks of excess aldosterone secretion.

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23
Q

___ sign is increased pain and involuntary hip/knee flexion with passive neck flexion.

A

Brudzinski’s sign

meningitis

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24
Q

___ sign: increased neck pain and resistance to knee extension when hip flexed to 90 degrees.

A

Kernig’s sign

meningitis

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25
Three steps to initial mgmt of suspected bacterial meningitis:
blood cultures; empiric antibiotics; empiric corticosteroids.
26
Clinical features of this syndrome include intellectual disability, classic facial features (long face, large ears, and prominent jaw), and connective tissue abnormalities. Name ds and dx.
Fragile X Diagnosis by chromosome testing, which reveals CGG repeats.
27
Classic facial features of fragile X syndrome include ____.
long face, large ears, and prominent jaw
28
Pt with meningitis age 1-24 months. MC causal organisms and empiric antibiotic tx
S pneu, H influ, N meningitis. Tx: vancomycin & 3rd gen cephalosporin
29
Pt with meningitis 2-50 yoa. MC causal organisms and empiric antibiotic tx
S pneu N meningitis. Tx: vancomycin and 3rd gen cephalosporin
30
Pt with suspected meningitis. | What patients would receive vanco, ceftriaxone, and ampicillin - and why?
Pts > 50 yoa Vanco for S pneu Ceftriaxone for N meningitis Ampicillin for Listeria
31
Neonates < 1 month old with meningitis. MC organisms and empiric tx?
GBS E coli Listeria ampicillin and cefotaxime
32
What is appropriate tx for complicated cystitis?
fluroquinolone | 7-14 days
33
Urinanalysis with WBC casts suggests dx of __.
pyelonephritis
34
Urinanalysis with RBCs and RBC casts suggests dx of __.
glomerulonephritis
35
Bands are less mature neutrophils. The term "left shift" means bands, aka stabs, are increased, indicating ___ in progress.
infection
36
Pt presents with chest pain, radiating to neck or arm, associated with diaphoresis or nausea. Dx?
Acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina or acute MI) diaphoresis = profuse sweating
37
Pt with orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and lower leg edema?
congestive HF orthopnea = SOB worse when lying down paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea = awakening at night with SOB
38
Pt presents with hx of smoking, sx of cough and wheezing improved by bronchodilator inhalers. Dx?
COPD
39
Pt with documented ethylene glycol (antifreeze) poisoning. MOA of Tx?
Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor (fomepizole), which reduces generation of toxic metabolites in the liver. Bicarb also administered as pt will be in anion-gap metabolic acidosis
40
C. diff colitis vs gastroenteritis Which has localized pain?
C diff colitis pain is localized. Gastroenteritis pain is diffuse
41
DDx for female pt with suspected appendicitis?
``` appendicitis ovarian torsion diverticulitis ectopic pregnancy Crohn's ds ```
42
DDx for pt with lower extremity swelling and pain?
- DVT/claudication - venous insufficiency - peripheral artery ds - Baker cyst - superficial thrombophlebitis
43
DDx for pt with pain on lateral elbow?
- lateral epicondylitis - medial epicondylitis - gout - bursitis
44
DDx pt with neuro deficits?
- TIA or Stroke - subarachnoid hemorrhage - epidural hemorrhage - Bell's palsy
45
What is the DDx for a health preventative visit?
- smoking cessation - hyperlipidemia - DM - HTN
46
What is the DDx for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
- BPH - prostatitis - cystitis - prostate cancer
47
What is DDx for pt with RUQ pain?
- biliary colic - cholecystitis - cholangitis - choledochelithiasis
48
Pt presents with chest pain with exercise relieved by rest. Dx?
- stable angina - GERD - unstable angina - MI
49
Pt presents with tingling in hand. DDx?
- carpal tunnel syndrome - cervical radiculopathy - peripheral neuropathy - tenosynovitis - cubital tunnel syndrome
50
Pt presents with HA. DDx?
1. migraine headache 2. tension headache 3. sleep deprivation headache 4. somatic dysfunction of the cervical spine 5. craniosacral somatic dysfunction
51
Pt presents with sinusitis. DDx?
- sinusitis - viral URI - allergies - acute bronchitis
52
Three EKG findings indicative of pulmonary embolism?
- S1Q3T3 (S wave in lead one, Q wave in lead three and INVERTED T-wave in lead three) - transient right bundle branch block, -T-wave inversions in V1-V4
53
ST elevation in leads V1-V6. Which artery is involved?
left anterior descending | Anterior MI
54
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Artery and wall affected?
Right coronary artery | inferior wall MI
55
ST elevation in leads 1, aVL, V5, and V6. Which wall and artery are affected?
Lateral wall MI | Left circumflex artery
56
ST elevation in V7 –V9. ST depression in V1 –V3 with tall R waves. Wall and artery affected?
Posterior wall MI. | Right circumflex artery
57
Which cardiac marker is best when checking for reinfarction of cardiac muscle?
Troponin I is the most specific but to check for reinfarction use CK-MB since that’s the one that elevates first
58
What are three cardinal symptoms suggestive of aortic dissection?
- pulse and BP differ from side to side | - New diastolic heart murmur
59
Tachycardia or HTN can appear with an acute MI because of increased __.
circulating catecholamine levels
60
What is the standard of care tx in pts with acute unstable angina?
``` MASH BAN Morphine Angiography with PCI Statin heparin Beta blocker aspirin Nitroglycerin (sublingual) ```
61
Which 4 conditions preclude beta-blockers in pts with suspected MI?
- hypotensive (e.g. in shock) - acute heart failure - evidence of high-grade (2nd-3rd degree) heart block - active wheezing from asthma
62
In conceptual terms, what causes syncope?
People faint when cerebral blood flow is decreased.
63
EKG findings of depressed ST segments and inverse T waves may indicate ___.
ischemia of cardiac tissue.
64
Jugular venous distention is an indicator of __.
cardiac volume overload.
65
What extra heart sound is associated with increased filling pressures and CHF?
S3, early diastole rapid ventricular filling phase
66
What extra heart sound is associated with ventricular hypertrophy?
S4 - atrial "kick" in late diastole
67
What heart condition is associated with a crescendo murmur with midsystolic click?
mitral valve prolapse
68
Which heart condition is associated with head bobbing?
aortic regurgitation
69
The cause of edema in CHF is ___.
increased hydrostatic pressure
70
Fatty casts on urinanalysis support dx of __.
nephrotic syndrome
71
A muddy brown granular cast on UA supports a dx of __, which can be caused by __.
acute tubular necrosis prolonged hypotension from any cause
72
How does acyclovir cause renal tubular obstruction?
The kidney rapidly excretes acyclovir into the urine, but the drug has low urine solubility - thus easily precipitating in renal tubules, causing obstruction and direct renal tubular toxicity. More common with IV acyclovir than oral.
73
Amikacin Drug class, indication, and ADV?
aminoglycoside Gram-negative infections potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic
74
Acyclovir is more likely to cause crystalline nephropathy if ___ is not provided.
adequate hydration
75
What is the MCC of gross hematuria in adult smokers > 35 yoa?
bladder cancer
76
MCC - and tx - of abnormal hemostasis in pts with chronic renal failure?
platelet dysfunction desmopressin to increase release of von Willebrand factor from endothelial storage.
77
Most important intervention for preventing contrast-induced renal failure?
adequate pre-CT IV hydration
78
What is the MC COD in dialysis patients and renal transplant patients?
cardiovascular disease
79
Prolonged infusion of (heart med) can cause cyanide poisoning. (antidote)
sodium nitroprusside sodium thiosulfate
80
Treatment for hypovolemic hypernatremia?
IV normal saline (0.9%) to start, then switch to 5% dextrose once uvolemia is reached.
81
Tx for lithium-induced diabetes insipidus?
salt restriction and stop the lithium
82
Nephropathy is preceded by excess proteinuria, initially ___, which makes ___ an effective screening tool.
microalbuminuria random urine for microalbumin to creatinine ratio.
83
What is the earliest renal anomaly present in pts w DM?
glomerular hyperfiltration, which is also mech of injury in these pts. Causes intraglomerular HTN leading to progressive glomerular damage and renal function loss.
84
Breathing sounds of crackles are associated with (2) __.
pulmonary edema | PNA
85
Rattling sounds in the airway are called __.
rhonchi
86
Wheezing on PE suggests ___, as in (3): __.
reactive airways, as in COPD, mucus production, asthma
87
Egophany means ____ and could indicate findings of (1): __.
E sounds like A pulmonary consolidation
88
Positive tactile fremitus means ___, and could indicate findings of (1): __.
chest vibrations while speaking are stronger over one area than another pulmonary consolidation in area of loudness
89
Positive findings of whispered pectoriloquy mean ___, and could indicate (1) __.
whisper sounds louder over one area than another pulmonary consolidation in area of loudness
90
Chest exam reveals areas of dullness to percussion and diminished breath sounds could indicate (1) __.
pleural effusion
91
The first test in a suspected acute stroke is __.
CT without contrast to rule out hemorrhage.