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Passmed Consolidation > Lets gooooo > Flashcards

Lets gooooo Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the dosing of hydrocortisone in patient with Addison’s

A

20mg at 8am and 10mg at 5pm to mimic the body’s natural variation in cortisol

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2
Q

Which bacterial infection can be complicated by sensioneural hearing loss?

A

Bacterial meningitis

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3
Q

Following a head injury, what criteria would indicate that a CT head should be undertaken in <1 hour?

A

More than one episode of vomiting

GCS < 13 on initial assessment

GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury

suspected open or depressed skull fracture

any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).

post-traumatic seizure.

focal neurological deficit.

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4
Q

Following a head injury, what criteria would indicate that a CT head should be undertaken in <8 hours?

A

age 65 years or older

any history of bleeding or clotting disorders including anticogulants

dangerous mechanism of injury (a pedestrian or cyclist struck by a motor vehicle, an occupant ejected from a motor vehicle or a fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs)

more than 30 minutes’ retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury

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5
Q

Which antibiotic can be given antenatally to prevent necrotising enterocolitis?

A

erythromycin

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6
Q

What is Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

genetic disorder
causes abnormal blood vessel formation in the skin, mucous membranes and often in organs such as the lungs, liver and brain.

Recurrent epistaxis (nosebleeds) are a common symptom because of the fragile blood vessels in the nasal lining.

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7
Q

What is Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

An autoimmune disorder where platelets are destroyed by antibodies leading to purpura (small red or purple spots caused by bleeding into the skin)

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8
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

genetic condition causing the development of polyps in the digestive tract and hyperpigmented macules on lips, oral mucosa and digits.

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9
Q

What is the name given to the ocular sign where the pupil dilates when light is shone on it (and what condition is this associated with?)?

A

Marcus Gunn pupil- multiple sclerosis

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10
Q

What kind of crystals do you get in gout and psudogout?

A

Gout = Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

Pseudogout = positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

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11
Q

What can be used to treat rosacea?

A

oral doxycycline and topical ivermectin

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12
Q

Which drug should be given to manage primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral hyperplasia of adrenal glands?

A

Spirnolactone

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13
Q

What are the 4 main causes of conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

A

adrenal adenoma
adrenal hyperplasia
familial hyperaldosteronism
Adrenal carcinoma

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14
Q

What is the cause of secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Excess renin production from the juxtaglomerular cells

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15
Q

What causes the overproduction of renin in secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

when the blood pressure detected by the juxtaglomerular cells is disproportionately lower than in the rest of the body

renal artery stenosis
renal obstruction
here failure (poor perfusion)

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16
Q

How can doctors differentiate primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A
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17
Q

most common cause of otitis media?

A

haemophilus influenza

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18
Q

In those with otitis media, when SHOULD antibiotics be prescribed?

A

Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving

Systemically unwell but not requiring admission

Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease

Younger than 2 years with
bilateral otitis media

Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canal

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19
Q

What is the z score in a dexa scan adjusted for?

A

age, gender and ethnic factors

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20
Q

What does a dexa z score measure?

A

your bone density to someone your age and body size.

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21
Q

What does a dexa T score measure?

A

bone mass

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22
Q

What is the dexa score associated with
1. Normal bone density
2. Osteopenia
3. Osteoporosis

A

> -1.0 = normal
-1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
< -2.5 = osteoporosis

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23
Q

What blood marker can be used as an indicator of pancreatitis severity?

A

Hypocalcaemia

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24
Q

which tool identifies medications where the risk outweighs the therapeutic benefits in certain conditions?

A

STOPP tool

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25
Q

Why should babies with exomphalos be born via c-section?

A

To reduce the risk of the sac rupturing

26
Q

What do the antibodies target in myasthenia graves?

A

Achetylcholine receptors

27
Q

How is nocturnal enuresis managed in children <5 year old?

A

Reassurance and advice

28
Q

When should you treat subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

if the TSH level is > 10 mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart

29
Q

What drugs should patients with peripheral arterial disease be on?

A

clopidogrel and atorvastatin

30
Q

What is the GRACE score used for?

A

To work out a patient’s risk of adverse events after ACS

31
Q

Why do auricular haematomas need same day ENT incision and drainage?

A

To reduce risk of developing cauliflower ear deformity

32
Q

What is the most common sign of neonatal sepsis?

A

Grunting and respiratory distress

33
Q

What is the first line investigation in suspected prostate cancer?

A

Multiparametric MRI

34
Q

What is the first line treatment for threadworm?

A

Mebendazole

35
Q

What can be used to differentiate between a true seizure and a pseudoseizure?

A

Prolactin

36
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary hypothyroidism?

A

Primary- the problem is with the thyroid gland

Secondary- the problem is with the pituitary

37
Q

What is the most common viral cause of meningitis?

A

Coxsackie virus

38
Q

What is the difference between knight’s move thinking and flight of ideas?

A

Knight’s move thinking there are illogical leaps from one idea to another, flight of ideas there are discernible links between ideas

39
Q

Which drug should never be given with beta blockers due to risk of severe bradycardia?

A

Verapamil

40
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc used for?

A

anticoagulation strategy for patients with AF

41
Q

In what patients can anastrozole be used?

A

post-menopausal women with ER positive breast cancer

42
Q

What is the tumour marker for colorectal cancer?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen

43
Q

What is campylobacter enteritis treated with?

A

Clarythromycin

44
Q

How does digoxin work?

A

inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve

45
Q

What condition does anastrozole increase the risk of?

A

Osteoporosis

46
Q

What electrolyte abnormality does magnesium deficiency cause?

A

Hypocalcaemia

47
Q

In which condition would you see target cells?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

48
Q

What heart sound is associated with mitral stenosis?

A

Loud S1

49
Q

Which antibiotic would you use to treat cellulitis when it is not near the eyes?

A

Flucloxacillin

50
Q

Which blood thinning medication can cause osteoporosis?

A

Heparin

51
Q

can you take warfarin while breastfeeding?

A

Yes

52
Q

What is the antibody associated with SLE?

A

ANA

53
Q

Which antibiotic can cause a tremor?

A

Ciclosporin

54
Q

Which hepatitis carries a particularly high mortality rate in pregnant women?

A

Hep E

55
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance can thiazides cause?

A

hypercalcaemia

56
Q

What is the BP target (clinic reading) in a pt >80 years?

A

150/90

57
Q

Name a drug that worsens urinary retention

A

NSAIDs

58
Q

name the antibiotic used to treat acute sinusitis

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

59
Q

Which drug may worsen psoriasis?

A

NSAIDs

60
Q

Nausea/vomiting, confusion, yellow-green vision are associated toxicities of which drug?

A

Digoxin

61
Q

What are the indications for a tonsillectomy?

A

Must meet all 5
1. >5 episodes in a year
2. sore throats are due to tonsillitis (i.e. not recurrent upper
3. respiratory tract infections)
4. symptoms have been occurring for at least a year
5. the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning

and/or

recurrent febrile convulsions secondary to episodes of tonsillitis

obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor or dysphagia secondary to enlarged tonsils

peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) if unresponsive to standard treatment

62
Q

In which condition is the signet-ring’ sign seen on CT?

A

bronchiectasis

Passmed Consolidation (1 decks)

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