Lets freaking go Flashcards
1
Q
which beta blockers are less likely to cause nightmares and sleep disturbances
A
Water-soluble beta-blockers (such as atenolol, celiprolol hydrochloride, nadolol, and sotalol hydrochloride)
2
Q
A person whose spleen was removed following a road traffic accident is seeing their general practitioner.
Which vaccine is indicated for this patient?
A
Pneumococcal vaccine
3
Q
which bacteria causes impetigo
A
staph/ strep pyogenes
4
Q
are faxed/ photocopied requisitions acceptable
A
no
5
Q
DDP4 inhibitor drugs end in the suffix…
A
gliptin
6
Q
GLP-1 receptor agonists have the suffix
A
glutide/ natide
7
Q
SGLT-2 inhibitors have the suffix
A
gliflozin
8
Q
which schedule is pholcodiene
A
sch 5
9
Q
xylometazoline nasal spray max duration
A
7 days, can cause rebound congestion if used longer
10
Q
adults under this weight may need to adjust their dose of paracetamol
A
under 50kg/ 8st
11
Q
allergy and cross sensitivity for sumatriptan
A
caution if sensitive to sulfonamides
12
Q
mycophenylate mofetil and getting pregnant counselling
A
men- use contraception during and for 90 days after stopping
women- confirm not pregnant 8-10 days before starring , comply with PPP, continue to use contraception for 6 WEEKS after
13
Q
megaloblastic anaemia can be caused by which deficiencies
A
folic acid, B12
14
Q
what is the treatment for wernikes encephalopathy
A
vit B1/ thiamine/ pabrinex
15
Q
what is the MOA of metformin
A
increases peripheral utilisation of glucose, thereby decreasing gluconeogenesis
16
Q
which antibiotic class should be used with caution in epilepsy
A
Quinolones
17
Q
why should you avoid alcohol with metronidazole
A
Disulfiram reaction - build up of acetaldehyde (toxic)
18
Q
main long-term risk of glucocorticoids
A
osteoporosis
19
Q
electrolyte imbalance caused by ramipril
A
hyperkalaemia
20
Q
which beta blockers are given once a day
A
bisoprolol, celiprolol, atenolol, nadalol
BANC
21
Q
choice agent for child over 8 with infected eczema (steroid + antibacterial)
A
Fucidin H (fucidin + hydrocortisone)
22
Q
Laxative with hepatic encephalopathy from alcohol abuse
A
Lactulose (mechanism prevents reabsorption of toxins/ ammonia from stool)
23
Q
what needs to be monitored with clozapine
A
leucocytes and neutrophils
blood lipids
weight
fasting blood glucose
prolactin
physical and cardiovascular health checks
24
Q
how high does bp need to be for you to stop the pill
A
160/100
25
OTC treatment of congestion that affects blood glucose
Sudafed decongestant tabs (caution in diabetes)
26
causes flatulence
Ethambutol
27
How long should CD register be kept
2y
28
how long should the responsible pharmacist record be kept
5y
29
how long should you keep signed orders (non-CD)
2y
30
How long do you keep private (non-CD) prescription
2y
31
NHS prescriptions with the words 'repeat x3'
you can only dispense once
32
high dose pancreatin counselling
ensure adequate hydration
33
olsalazine councelling
report any unexplained bleeding/ bruising/ sore throat
34
effect of flucloxacillin on the liver
cholestatic jaundice may occur up to two months after treatment
35
rifampicin counselling
may turn urine red-orange
36
what is the only thing the staff can do if the pharmacist is not there
sell GSL stuff
37
corticosteroids may lead to...
Cushing's syndrome (moon face, acne, stretch marks)
38
which drugs require caution in handling
valganciclovir
39
which laxative can turn urine red
co-danthramer
40
which laxative needs cautionary label 'dissolve in water before taking'
ispaghula husk
41
onset of action of Senna
8-12 h
42
zonisamide for epilepsy counselling
avoid factors that cause overheating/ dehydration like exercise
43
baclofen counselling
drowsiness may affect ability to drive - worsened with alcohol
44
carbimazole counselling
Report symptoms including sore throat, mouth ulcers, bruising, fever, tiredness or non-specific illnesses to your doctor immediately
45
how do u treat - severe red lumps and patches on lower legs
this is erythema nodosum- rest and ibuprofen
46
how do you treat tines capitis
Grisofulvin
47
how do you treat hyperpigmented patched on trunk and back
pityriasis versicolor ketoconazole shampoo
48
how do u treat- malar rash, flushing, burning, itching and acne - has tried hydrocortisone but made it worse
Acne rosacea- oral tetracycline
49
omeprazole and clopidogrel interaction
omeprazole reduces anti platelet effect of clopidogrel
50
What active ingredients are contained in the medication Atripla? (HIV medication)
Efavirenz, emtricitabine & tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
51
How many CPD entries are you required to submit per year?
4
52
what strength of clotrimazole cream can be used in athletes foot
1%
53
what strength of clotrimazole cream can be used in thrush
2%
54
ergocalcipherol can cause vomiting due to...
vitamin D increases the serum concentration of calcium
55
dangerous common SE of clozapine
constipation needs to be reported in clozapine patients as can cause fatality
56
which Sch cd can you have repeats on private prescriptions
4
57
A doctor contacts you asking you to suggest a drug to treat a patient who has contracted meningococcal disease. Which drug would be suitable to be given via intravenous infusion in this patient.
Benzylpenicillin
58
This antibiotic is cautioned when used by inhalation in those suffering with haemoptysis.
Aztreonam
59
When cimetidine and warfarin are taken together the INR
increases
60
when carbamazepine and warfarin are taken together the INR
decreases
61
can you have grapefruit with warfarin
yep
62
which anti epileptics need to be prescribed by brand
carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone, phenytoin
C3P(O) is a stickler for the rules
63
what 2 prednisolone courses require weaning/ steroid emergency card
prednisolone 5 mg daily for 4 weeks or longer
or
prednisolone 40 mg daily for longer than 1 week, or repeated short oral courses
64
which beta blockers are better for those with peripheral vascular disease (experiencing cold extremities, pins and needles or numbness
acebutol, celiprolol, pinolol
Cold
At
Periphery
65
what is the minimum age to buy nurofen for children 100mg/5ml solution
3 mo
66
what is the minimum age to buy Alli hard caps
18
67
How do you assess cardiovascular risk a patient who has high cholesterol in family
automatically high risk as familial hight cholesterol
68
what interaction increases risk of rhabdomyolysis
Fluvastatin with bezafibrate
statin and daptomycin
69
tinea corporis is aggravated by (OTC)
steroids
70
tinea corporis is treated by
terbinafine 250mg tabs
71
what drug is used to treat c diff infection
Fidaxomycin
72
Which of the following antibiotic drugs is normally given as a '1 gram as a singe dose followed by 500 mg daily for 2 days' dose in uncomplicated genital chlamydial infections?
Azithromycin
73
what can be given OTC for scabies
Eurax
74
sch 2,3 and 4 prescriptions should not exceed...
30 days
75
What is the most appropriate length of time for patients be monitored for infections following cessation of adalimumab?
4 months (this is how long the drug stays in body)
76
what is the strength of adrenaline used in anaphylaxis
1:1000 (500mcg)
77
which CDs can podiatrists prescribe
diazepam, dihydrocodeine, lorazepam and temazepam
Doctor Does Love Toes
78
minimum age for saline nasal spray
2y
79
Which illness is characterised by white spots surrounded by a red ring on the inner cheek and gums?
measles
80
EEA/ Swiss doctors and dentists can prescribe the following CDs
Sch 4 and 5
81
what is prescribed instead of cholecalciferol in severe renal impairment
alfacalcidol (already active metabolite- doesn't require activation at kidney)`
82
why should pregnant people avoid liver products
may contain retinol- teratogenic
83
exposure by pregnant women to this disease increases risk of congenital abnormalities
Rubella (German measels)- esp in first 20 weeks
84
treatment of bacterial vaginosis and is usually given at a dose of one applicatorful daily for 3-7 nights.
Clindamycin
85
common drug for premature ejaculation
Dapoxetine
86
what is the blood pressure indication of sildenafil
pulmonary artery hypertension 20mg TDS
87
risk of doxycycline used by breast feeding women
tooth discolouration
88
cold medicines should not be given to children
under 6 years old, as benefit does not outweigh risk
89
Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy because
damage skeletal development
90
Trimethoprim should be avoided in pregnancy because
it is teratogenic
91
what is the interaction..
disorientation, blurred vision, vomiting and ataxia?
Carbamazepine and erythromycin
erythromycin increases plasma levels of carbamazepine and therefore more side effects
92
what's the interaction?
muscle weakness and tenderness
Amiodarone and simvastatin
amiodarone increases risk of myopathy from simvastatin
93
what's that interaction
bleeding from gums
Warfarin and fluconazole
94
what's that interaction
hyperglycaemia, dilated pupils and haematemesis.
theophylline and disulfiram
disulfiram increases theophylline toxicity
95
A small increase in the dose can produce a dramatic change in the plasma levels of this drug.
Phenytoin
96
Patients of Chinese ancestry are more likely to be associated with developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome
phenytoin
97
Patients should be carefully evaluated clinically and consideration given to chest X-rays before starting therapy
amiodarone (lung toxicity)
98
Symptoms of mild overdose may include blurred vision, light headedness, fine resting tremor, muscular weakness and drowsiness.
lithium
99
Private prescriptions for Schedule 3 CDs should be
sent to a relevant NHS agency
100
A veterinary prescription/ requisition for a Schedule 3 CD should be
retained for 5 years
101
A requisition for a Schedule 3 CD from a registered medical practitioner should be
sent to a relevant NHS agency
102
An invoice for a Schedule 3 CD (taking into account tax requirements) should be
retained for 6 years
103
patient advice for all high dose antipsychotics
take extra precautions to keep skin protected from sunlight
104
Special care is required when handling this antipsychotic. The tablets should not be crushed and solutions should be handled with care
chlorpromazine (may cause sensitisation)
105
which drug is cautioned in aggressive patients as even low doses may aggravate symptoms of aggression
sulpiride
106
common causative agent for cholestatic jaundice up to 8 weeks after use
flucloxacillin
107
what is required on a CD requisition
Recipients signature
Name of recipient
Address of recipient
Profession/occupation
Total quantity of drug
Purpose of requisition
108
metformin with AKI
hold drug, because of an increased risk of lactic acidosis
109
what condition resembles asbestos like scaling of scalp
Pityriasis amiantacea
110
which benzo is schedule 3
temazepam
111
which juice should be avoided with warfarin
cranberry juice, enzyme inhibitor which increases anticoagulant effect
112
pregnant with threadworms
hygiene measures only for 6 weeks- no drugs are safe to give her
113
if you cannot contact prescriber, but no quantity is given on script wyd
dispense 5 days worth
114
risk from pioglitazone
increased risk of heart failure
115
risk from empagliflozin
risk of fatal diabetic ketoacidosis
116
Potassium chloride and spironolactone interaction
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and, taken together with potassium supplements, increases the risk of developing hyperkalaemia which may cause cardiac arrhythmias
117
Warfarin and oral piroxicam interaction
Warfarin is predicted to increase the risk of bleeding events when given with piroxicam
118
what interacts with desensitising vaccines to increase risk of anaphylaxis
ACEis
119
which drug toxicity causes visual disturbances, including blurred vision and photophobia. Colour vision may be affected infrequently, with objects appearing yellow.
digoxin toxicity
120
max duration for otrivine nasal drops be use
5 days
121
why is maintenance dose higher than. loading dose in. carbamazepine tp
Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism
122
OTC treatments for thrush are available for women over the age of
16y
123
WHICH ANTI PARKINSONS DRUGS TURNS URINE RED
CO-BENELDOPA
124
which high risk drug is contraindicated in SA block
Amiodarone
125
interaction between quinolones and theophylline
quinolones appear to inhibit the metabolism of theophylline-> more theophylline toxicity (agitation, vomitting, dilate pupils)
126
vigabatrin counselling about eyes
need regular eye checks - mat cause visual field defects
127
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 30mg daily morphine
12
128
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 60mg daily morphine
25
129
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 90mg daily morphine
37.5
130
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 120mg daily morphine
50
131
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 180mg daily morphine
75
132
daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 240mg daily morphine
100
133
which medicine can turn urine orange/ pink
Phenindione
134
interaction between arb and lithium
Candesartan potentially increases the concentration of Lithium- increases risk f toxicity
135
clarithromycin and dabigatran interaction
clarithromycin increases exposure of dabigatran
136
