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past mistakes gphc exam > Lets freaking go > Flashcards

Lets freaking go Flashcards

1
Q

which beta blockers are less likely to cause nightmares and sleep disturbances

A

Water-soluble beta-blockers (such as atenolol, celiprolol hydrochloride, nadolol, and sotalol hydrochloride)

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2
Q

A person whose spleen was removed following a road traffic accident is seeing their general practitioner.
Which vaccine is indicated for this patient?

A

Pneumococcal vaccine

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3
Q

which bacteria causes impetigo

A

staph/ strep pyogenes

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4
Q

are faxed/ photocopied requisitions acceptable

A

no

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5
Q

DDP4 inhibitor drugs end in the suffix…

A

gliptin

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6
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists have the suffix

A

glutide/ natide

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7
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors have the suffix

A

gliflozin

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8
Q

which schedule is pholcodiene

A

sch 5

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9
Q

xylometazoline nasal spray max duration

A

7 days, can cause rebound congestion if used longer

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10
Q

adults under this weight may need to adjust their dose of paracetamol

A

under 50kg/ 8st

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11
Q

allergy and cross sensitivity for sumatriptan

A

caution if sensitive to sulfonamides

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12
Q

mycophenylate mofetil and getting pregnant counselling

A

men- use contraception during and for 90 days after stopping
women- confirm not pregnant 8-10 days before starring , comply with PPP, continue to use contraception for 6 WEEKS after

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13
Q

megaloblastic anaemia can be caused by which deficiencies

A

folic acid, B12

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14
Q

what is the treatment for wernikes encephalopathy

A

vit B1/ thiamine/ pabrinex

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15
Q

what is the MOA of metformin

A

increases peripheral utilisation of glucose, thereby decreasing gluconeogenesis

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16
Q

which antibiotic class should be used with caution in epilepsy

A

Quinolones

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17
Q

why should you avoid alcohol with metronidazole

A

Disulfiram reaction - build up of acetaldehyde (toxic)

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18
Q

main long-term risk of glucocorticoids

A

osteoporosis

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19
Q

electrolyte imbalance caused by ramipril

A

hyperkalaemia

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20
Q

which beta blockers are given once a day

A

bisoprolol, celiprolol, atenolol, nadalol
BANC

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21
Q

choice agent for child over 8 with infected eczema (steroid + antibacterial)

A

Fucidin H (fucidin + hydrocortisone)

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22
Q

Laxative with hepatic encephalopathy from alcohol abuse

A

Lactulose (mechanism prevents reabsorption of toxins/ ammonia from stool)

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23
Q

what needs to be monitored with clozapine

A

leucocytes and neutrophils
blood lipids
weight
fasting blood glucose
prolactin
physical and cardiovascular health checks

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24
Q

how high does bp need to be for you to stop the pill

A

160/100

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25
Q

OTC treatment of congestion that affects blood glucose

A

Sudafed decongestant tabs (caution in diabetes)

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26
Q

causes flatulence

A

Ethambutol

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27
Q

How long should CD register be kept

A

2y

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28
Q

how long should the responsible pharmacist record be kept

A

5y

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29
Q

how long should you keep signed orders (non-CD)

A

2y

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30
Q

How long do you keep private (non-CD) prescription

A

2y

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31
Q

NHS prescriptions with the words ‘repeat x3’

A

you can only dispense once

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32
Q

high dose pancreatin counselling

A

ensure adequate hydration

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33
Q

olsalazine councelling

A

report any unexplained bleeding/ bruising/ sore throat

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34
Q

effect of flucloxacillin on the liver

A

cholestatic jaundice may occur up to two months after treatment

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35
Q

rifampicin counselling

A

may turn urine red-orange

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36
Q

what is the only thing the staff can do if the pharmacist is not there

A

sell GSL stuff

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37
Q

corticosteroids may lead to…

A

Cushing’s syndrome (moon face, acne, stretch marks)

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38
Q

which drugs require caution in handling

A

valganciclovir

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39
Q

which laxative can turn urine red

A

co-danthramer

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40
Q

which laxative needs cautionary label ‘dissolve in water before taking’

A

ispaghula husk

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41
Q

onset of action of Senna

A

8-12 h

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42
Q

zonisamide for epilepsy counselling

A

avoid factors that cause overheating/ dehydration like exercise

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43
Q

baclofen counselling

A

drowsiness may affect ability to drive - worsened with alcohol

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44
Q

carbimazole counselling

A

Report symptoms including sore throat, mouth ulcers, bruising, fever, tiredness or non-specific illnesses to your doctor immediately

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45
Q

how do u treat - severe red lumps and patches on lower legs

A

this is erythema nodosum- rest and ibuprofen

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46
Q

how do you treat tines capitis

A

Grisofulvin

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47
Q

how do you treat hyperpigmented patched on trunk and back

A

pityriasis versicolor ketoconazole shampoo

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48
Q

how do u treat- malar rash, flushing, burning, itching and acne - has tried hydrocortisone but made it worse

A

Acne rosacea- oral tetracycline

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49
Q

omeprazole and clopidogrel interaction

A

omeprazole reduces anti platelet effect of clopidogrel

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50
Q

What active ingredients are contained in the medication Atripla? (HIV medication)

A

Efavirenz, emtricitabine & tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

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51
Q

How many CPD entries are you required to submit per year?

A

4

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52
Q

what strength of clotrimazole cream can be used in athletes foot

A

1%

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53
Q

what strength of clotrimazole cream can be used in thrush

A

2%

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54
Q

ergocalcipherol can cause vomiting due to…

A

vitamin D increases the serum concentration of calcium

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55
Q

dangerous common SE of clozapine

A

constipation needs to be reported in clozapine patients as can cause fatality

56
Q

which Sch cd can you have repeats on private prescriptions

A

4

57
Q

A doctor contacts you asking you to suggest a drug to treat a patient who has contracted meningococcal disease. Which drug would be suitable to be given via intravenous infusion in this patient.

A

Benzylpenicillin

58
Q

This antibiotic is cautioned when used by inhalation in those suffering with haemoptysis.

A

Aztreonam

59
Q

When cimetidine and warfarin are taken together the INR

A

increases

60
Q

when carbamazepine and warfarin are taken together the INR

A

decreases

61
Q

can you have grapefruit with warfarin

A

yep

62
Q

which anti epileptics need to be prescribed by brand

A

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone, phenytoin
C3P(O) is a stickler for the rules

63
Q

what 2 prednisolone courses require weaning/ steroid emergency card

A

prednisolone 5 mg daily for 4 weeks or longer
or
prednisolone 40 mg daily for longer than 1 week, or repeated short oral courses

64
Q

which beta blockers are better for those with peripheral vascular disease (experiencing cold extremities, pins and needles or numbness

A

acebutol, celiprolol, pinolol
Cold
At
Periphery

65
Q

what is the minimum age to buy nurofen for children 100mg/5ml solution

A

3 mo

66
Q

what is the minimum age to buy Alli hard caps

A

18

67
Q

How do you assess cardiovascular risk a patient who has high cholesterol in family

A

automatically high risk as familial hight cholesterol

68
Q

what interaction increases risk of rhabdomyolysis

A

Fluvastatin with bezafibrate
statin and daptomycin

69
Q

tinea corporis is aggravated by (OTC)

A

steroids

70
Q

tinea corporis is treated by

A

terbinafine 250mg tabs

71
Q

what drug is used to treat c diff infection

A

Fidaxomycin

72
Q

Which of the following antibiotic drugs is normally given as a ‘1 gram as a singe dose followed by 500 mg daily for 2 days’ dose in uncomplicated genital chlamydial infections?

A

Azithromycin

73
Q

what can be given OTC for scabies

A

Eurax

74
Q

sch 2,3 and 4 prescriptions should not exceed…

A

30 days

75
Q

What is the most appropriate length of time for patients be monitored for infections following cessation of adalimumab?

A

4 months (this is how long the drug stays in body)

76
Q

what is the strength of adrenaline used in anaphylaxis

A

1:1000 (500mcg)

77
Q

which CDs can podiatrists prescribe

A

diazepam, dihydrocodeine, lorazepam and temazepam
Doctor Does Love Toes

78
Q

minimum age for saline nasal spray

A

2y

79
Q

Which illness is characterised by white spots surrounded by a red ring on the inner cheek and gums?

A

measles

80
Q

EEA/ Swiss doctors and dentists can prescribe the following CDs

A

Sch 4 and 5

81
Q

what is prescribed instead of cholecalciferol in severe renal impairment

A

alfacalcidol (already active metabolite- doesn’t require activation at kidney)`

82
Q

why should pregnant people avoid liver products

A

may contain retinol- teratogenic

83
Q

exposure by pregnant women to this disease increases risk of congenital abnormalities

A

Rubella (German measels)- esp in first 20 weeks

84
Q

treatment of bacterial vaginosis and is usually given at a dose of one applicatorful daily for 3-7 nights.

A

Clindamycin

85
Q

common drug for premature ejaculation

A

Dapoxetine

86
Q

what is the blood pressure indication of sildenafil

A

pulmonary artery hypertension 20mg TDS

87
Q

risk of doxycycline used by breast feeding women

A

tooth discolouration

88
Q

cold medicines should not be given to children

A

under 6 years old, as benefit does not outweigh risk

89
Q

Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy because

A

damage skeletal development

90
Q

Trimethoprim should be avoided in pregnancy because

A

it is teratogenic

91
Q

what is the interaction..
disorientation, blurred vision, vomiting and ataxia?

A

Carbamazepine and erythromycin
erythromycin increases plasma levels of carbamazepine and therefore more side effects

92
Q

what’s the interaction?
muscle weakness and tenderness

A

Amiodarone and simvastatin
amiodarone increases risk of myopathy from simvastatin

93
Q

what’s that interaction
bleeding from gums

A

Warfarin and fluconazole

94
Q

what’s that interaction
hyperglycaemia, dilated pupils and haematemesis.

A

theophylline and disulfiram
disulfiram increases theophylline toxicity

95
Q

A small increase in the dose can produce a dramatic change in the plasma levels of this drug.

A

Phenytoin

96
Q

Patients of Chinese ancestry are more likely to be associated with developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

phenytoin

97
Q

Patients should be carefully evaluated clinically and consideration given to chest X-rays before starting therapy

A

amiodarone (lung toxicity)

98
Q

Symptoms of mild overdose may include blurred vision, light headedness, fine resting tremor, muscular weakness and drowsiness.

A

lithium

99
Q

Private prescriptions for Schedule 3 CDs should be

A

sent to a relevant NHS agency

100
Q

A veterinary prescription/ requisition for a Schedule 3 CD should be

A

retained for 5 years

101
Q

A requisition for a Schedule 3 CD from a registered medical practitioner should be

A

sent to a relevant NHS agency

102
Q

An invoice for a Schedule 3 CD (taking into account tax requirements) should be

A

retained for 6 years

103
Q

patient advice for all high dose antipsychotics

A

take extra precautions to keep skin protected from sunlight

104
Q

Special care is required when handling this antipsychotic. The tablets should not be crushed and solutions should be handled with care

A

chlorpromazine (may cause sensitisation)

105
Q

which drug is cautioned in aggressive patients as even low doses may aggravate symptoms of aggression

A

sulpiride

106
Q

common causative agent for cholestatic jaundice up to 8 weeks after use

A

flucloxacillin

107
Q

what is required on a CD requisition

A

Recipients signature
Name of recipient
Address of recipient
Profession/occupation
Total quantity of drug
Purpose of requisition

108
Q

metformin with AKI

A

hold drug, because of an increased risk of lactic acidosis

109
Q

what condition resembles asbestos like scaling of scalp

A

Pityriasis amiantacea

110
Q

which benzo is schedule 3

A

temazepam

111
Q

which juice should be avoided with warfarin

A

cranberry juice, enzyme inhibitor which increases anticoagulant effect

112
Q

pregnant with threadworms

A

hygiene measures only for 6 weeks- no drugs are safe to give her

113
Q

if you cannot contact prescriber, but no quantity is given on script wyd

A

dispense 5 days worth

114
Q

risk from pioglitazone

A

increased risk of heart failure

115
Q

risk from empagliflozin

A

risk of fatal diabetic ketoacidosis

116
Q

Potassium chloride and spironolactone interaction

A

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and, taken together with potassium supplements, increases the risk of developing hyperkalaemia which may cause cardiac arrhythmias

117
Q

Warfarin and oral piroxicam interaction

A

Warfarin is predicted to increase the risk of bleeding events when given with piroxicam

118
Q

what interacts with desensitising vaccines to increase risk of anaphylaxis

A

ACEis

119
Q

which drug toxicity causes visual disturbances, including blurred vision and photophobia. Colour vision may be affected infrequently, with objects appearing yellow.

A

digoxin toxicity

120
Q

max duration for otrivine nasal drops be use

A

5 days

121
Q

why is maintenance dose higher than. loading dose in. carbamazepine tp

A

Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism

122
Q

OTC treatments for thrush are available for women over the age of

A

16y

123
Q

WHICH ANTI PARKINSONS DRUGS TURNS URINE RED

A

CO-BENELDOPA

124
Q

which high risk drug is contraindicated in SA block

A

Amiodarone

125
Q

interaction between quinolones and theophylline

A

quinolones appear to inhibit the metabolism of theophylline-> more theophylline toxicity (agitation, vomitting, dilate pupils)

126
Q

vigabatrin counselling about eyes

A

need regular eye checks - mat cause visual field defects

127
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 30mg daily morphine

A

12

128
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 60mg daily morphine

A

25

129
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 90mg daily morphine

A

37.5

130
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 120mg daily morphine

A

50

131
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 180mg daily morphine

A

75

132
Q

daily dose morphine vs fentanyl patch for 240mg daily morphine

A

100

133
Q

which medicine can turn urine orange/ pink

A

Phenindione

134
Q

interaction between arb and lithium

A

Candesartan potentially increases the concentration of Lithium- increases risk f toxicity

135
Q

clarithromycin and dabigatran interaction

A

clarithromycin increases exposure of dabigatran

136
Q
A

past mistakes gphc exam (4 decks)

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