Lessons Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the X factor inactivation mechanism?

A

X-inactivation is the way which evolution chose to express the same amount of transcripts between males and females. Given that males have only one X chromosome, to reach an equilibrium females inactivate one of their two X chromosomes. By the third day of embryogenesis, one of the two X chromosomes in each cell starts becoming highly condensed into a type of heterochromatin. It’s called a Barr body and is located near the nuclear membrane.

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2
Q

Deletion mutation?

A

Most severe, might be complete or partial loss of function.

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3
Q

Duplication mutation?

A

It’s a structural abnormality involving the duplication of a specific sequence of the chromosome. It might result in a gain-of-function mutation, including oncogenic switches if the duplicated gene is a proto-oncogene; this is due to overexpression of duplicated genes.

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4
Q

Translocation mutation?

A

It’s the transfer of chromosomal material from a chromosome to another, and it’s caused by non-homologous recombination.It can be either balanced, with the maintenance of the total amount of genetic material, or unbalanced.

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5
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

variation in the number of haploid sets of chromosomes in an organism (ex. In humans, 23 x 3 = 69 chromosomes, three for each “number”, represents a triploidy). Variations can be caused by nondisjunction during meiosis. Only the standard diploidy is compatible with life in humans, save for some extreme and scarcely documented cases.

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6
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

variation in the number of chromosomes to a quantity that is no longer a multiple of the haploid set (in humans, a multiple of 23).Examples of aneuploidies are trisomies.

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7
Q

Type 1 dynamic mutation?

A

is the expansion of a sequence in an exon, which causes a dominant gain-of-function mutation.
Examples of diseases caused by a type-1 dynamic mutation are Huntington Disease or Kennedy
Disease.

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8
Q

Type 1 dynamic mutation?

A

is the expansion of a sequence in an exon, which causes a dominant gain-of-function mutation. Examples of diseases caused by a type-1 dynamic mutation are Huntington Disease or Kennedy disease.

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9
Q

Type 2 dynamic mutation?

A

is the expansion of a sequence in a noncoding sequence which can either be 5’ UTR , 3’ UTR or an intron. Type-2 dynamic mutations are loss-of-function mutations.

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10
Q

Huntington’s disease?

A

Type 1 dynamic mutation caused by expansion of CAG triplet in the huntingtin gene. Dominant and neurodegenerative disease. Wild type is up to 39 repeats. Over 41 is pathogenic.

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11
Q

Fragile x syndrome?

A

Second most common cause of mental retardation in males. Expansion in the CGG sequence in the 5’ UTR of the FMR1 gene on X chromosome. Dominant. Repetition in wild type of up to 55 over 200 is pathogenic.

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12
Q

What is imprinting?

A

Imprinting is the epigenetic phenomenon behind expression differences between paternal and maternal chromosome regions. It is but a small collection of genes (100-150) inactivated or activated by methylation of CpG islands, depending on the derivation from either one of the parents.

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13
Q

Difference between mitochondrial and imprinted inheritance?

A

If, and only if, the mutation is in the mitochondrial genome, then mitochondrial inheritance is purely matrilineal. On the other hand, imprinted mutations can be passed on by both sexes, even in the case in which a mutation passed on by the parent for whom the gene is imprinted does not manifest the phenotype.

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14
Q

Mitochondrial DNA?

A

10 copies of its DNA, circular double stranded made of 37 genes. The external strand is heavy and the internal is light. The genes in code for 13 proteins, 22 tRNAs and 2 rRNAs.

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15
Q

Mendelian mitochondrial inheritance and proper mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Mendelian one, which is cause by a mutation in mitochondrial genes found the nuclear genome.

A “proper” mitochondrial one, which is matrilineal only (paternal mitochondria are lost when the sperms fertilizes the oocyte).

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16
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Epigenetics is the study of mitotically/meiotically inherited modifications of gene function that aren’t caused by modifications of the sequence.

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17
Q

What is DNA methylation and what does it do?

A

DMT1 (DNA-binding methyl transferase 1) transfers methyl groups on the cytosines, converting them into 5’-methyl cytosines. Methylation of a DNA region usually means the blocking of transcription of that region, both because methylated DNA hinders TFs attachment and because methyl-binding proteins help keeping the region untranscribed.

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18
Q

What are karyotypes?

A

It’s the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. A karyotype can be obtained from metaphase cells in order to examine eventual chromosomal mutations, such as aneuploidies, or deletions or duplications of genes, using optic microscopy.

The two exams associated with this kind of analysis are F.I.S.H. and Array-CGH.
Karyotypes are usually obtained by white blood cells,

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19
Q

What is F.I.S.H and Array CGH?

A

FISH stands for “Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization”. It’s a mechanism that allows the location of specific sequences in a karyotype.

Array-CGH stands for “Array-Comparative Genomic Hybridization”.
It’s a technique through which two whole genomes can be compared in order to identify eventual chromosomal mutations.

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20
Q

What is epistasis?

A

Epistasis refers to cases in which the effect of one gene (or allele) masks or modifies the effect of another gene. In other words, it’s the case where gene (or allele) A controls the action of gene (or allele) B, or lies upstream of gene B in a pathway.

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21
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon that causes a non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance. In fact, heterozygotes for an allele with incomplete dominance show a phenotype that will be intermediate between that of the homozygote dominant and that of the homozygote recessive

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22
Q

What is over-dominance?

A

Overdominance is a phenomenon that involves environmental factors which interact with specific genotypes to bring forth a selection of them for survival.

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23
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

Pleiotropy is a phenomenon that underlies specific monogenic mutations: it influences a plurality of functions of the organism, therefore causing a multisystemic disease. Ex cystic fibrosis and Marfan syndrome.

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24
Q

Autosomal dominant transmission to offspring?

A

Vertical transmission 50% of offspring is affected ex HD.

25
Q

Autosomal recessive transmission?

A

Grandparents-to-grandsons transmission, presence of carrier individuals (no disease, heterozygous for the mutated allele). The offspring from two carrier parents have 25% chance to be healthy, 50% chance to be carriers, 25% chance to develop the disease receiving both mutated alleles.

26
Q

X linked dominant transmission?

A

X-linked dominant: from an affected heterozygous mother, males and females have both a 50% chance of developing the diseased; from an affected father, all daughters develop the disease, while no son does (no father-to-son transmission). Ex. Rett syndrome.

27
Q

X recessive transmission?

A

heterozygous females are unaffected carriers, whereas females in general develop the disease only with two copies of the allele; males are hemizygous for the X-chromosome and thus develop the disease with just one mutated copy of the allele. This means that from an affected mother, 50% of the sons will develop the disease, whilst 50% of the daughters will be healthy carriers; on the other hand, from an affected father, 100% of the daughters will be carriers and no son will be affected.

28
Q

Y linked transmission?

A

Affects only males, in fact a diseased father transmits the disease to all the sons.

29
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Matrilineal inheritance, all sons from an affected mother will be affected; males block further transmission of the disease.

30
Q

Autosomal recessive information?

A

Both sexes with equal frequency, often skips generations, affected offspring unaffected parents, if both parents are carriers 25% of offsprings are affected, more frequent in consanguineous marriages.

31
Q

Autosomal dominant information?

A

Both sexes with equal frequencies, both sexes can transmit to the next generation, does not skip generations, when one parent is affected 50% of offsprings will be affected, unaffected parents do not transmit the trait.

32
Q

X linked recessive information?

A

More males than females affected, skips generations, affected sons by unaffected mothers, mother is carrier 50% of sons will be affected, never male to male inheritance all daughters of affected males are carriers.

33
Q

X linked dominant information?

A

Both sexes more in males than females, does not skip generations, all daughter of affected males are affected, affected mothers transmit the trait to half of sons and half of females.

34
Q

How many bases and genes in human genome?

A

3.2 billion bases and 25000 genes.

35
Q

How much of the genomes is coded?

A

1.5 %

36
Q

What is linkage analysis?

A

Linkage analysis is a statistical tool to assess the distance between two markers. It is divided in parametric and non parametric. Parametric is traditional approach via frequency and LOD score.

37
Q

What is LOD score?

A

It defines the probability of the two traits being associated. It estimates recombination fraction hence genetic distance. Used in linkage analysis. Population genetics is the study of inheritance of large populations, this includes migration.

38
Q

What is haploinsufficiency?

A

50% of gene product not enough to keep up with the wildtype phenotype, which leads to an abnormal or diseased state

39
Q

What is the difference between Mendel’s first and second law?

A

First law (segregation) states that characters are controlled by a pair of factors that separate during gamete formation. His second law (law of independent assortment) states that during gamete formation either member of an allele may match or enter with either member of another.

40
Q

Define reverse mutation?

A

A reverse mutation is a change in the genotype from mutant to wildtype or partially wildtype* (masking the effect of the initial mutation by: Intergenic suppression and a second mutation in the same gene that reverses back the genotype.)

41
Q

Define linkage disequilibrium?

A

Linkage disequilibrium is the non-random association in a population of alleles at closely linked loci

42
Q

What techniques are used in screening for mutation?

A

Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP); Amplification refractory mutation system (ARMS); Commercial formats (ex. Taqman Assay).

43
Q

What is D-loop replication?

A

D-loop replication is when mitochondria and chloroplast replicate their genetic material. A displacement loop is a triple stranded DNA structure where the two strands of a DsDNA molecule are separated for a stretch and held apart by a third strand that is complementary to one of the main strands.

44
Q

What is the difference between transversion and transition?

A

Transition: a change from a purine to purine (or from a pyrimidine to a pyrimidine). Transversion: a change from a purine to pyrimidine (or vice versa)

45
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Affects the lungs mainly but can also affect the pancreas liver, kidney and intestines The main symptoms are difficulty in breathing, coughing up mucus, pulmonary problems, infections and infertility. It is an autosomal recessive way of inheritance which means that both parents have to have the gene to pass it on. The mutated gene is the Mutation 7q31. The main protein affected is the CFTR protein Cystic fibrosis: CFTR gene encodes for a chloride channel on the plasma membrane. If the gene is mutated all the secretory epithelia are affected.

46
Q

What are the effects of luteinizing hormone?

A

LH triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum.

47
Q

What is mesonephros?

A

Gives rise to the definitive kidney

48
Q

What is notch signaling?

A

Neurons, prevents one neuron being formed twice

49
Q

What is SHH and noggin produced by?

A

The floor plate and notochord of neural tube

50
Q

What is tripartite structure?

A

1st phase in mitosis

51
Q

Describe the sites and positions in ribosomes?

A

A-site (aminosite position). P-site (peptide position). E-site (exit site).

52
Q

. What is the Bombay phenotype?

A

A woman with blood type 0 had one parent which was blood type AB this individual was found to be homozygous for a mutation in the FUT1 gene so she couldn’t transfer fructose and she couldn’t express the b antigen.

53
Q

What is a locus?

A

The position of a gene on a chromosome.

54
Q

What is an allele?

A

Alternative form of a gene that arises by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome

55
Q

Give four examples of different species used in genetic studies?

A

Drosophila, yeast, mouse, and C. elegans

56
Q

What is the Sum rule (mutually exclusive event)?

A

The Sum Rule of probability is used to determine the probability of having one dominant trait in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross; it is the sum of the probabilities of each individual with that trait.

57
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

A monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals with different alleles at one genetic locus of interest.

58
Q

Why can we define the genetic code as degenerative?

A

(64 possible triplets coding for 20
amino acids)

59
Q

Diabetes has a relative risk for siblings = 15. What does this mean?

A

(siblings of an affected individual have 15 times higher probability to develop the disease compared to a
random individual in the population)