Lesson 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are damages in the context of contract law?

A

Damages are monetary compensation awarded to the injured party due to a breach of contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What must be proven when claiming damages?

A

Any loss claimed must be substantiated with evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can an injured party claim more than the actual loss sustained?

A

No, the injured party cannot claim more than the actual loss sustained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are liquidated damages?

A

Liquidated damages are pre-agreed amounts for losses anticipated in the event of a breach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are unliquidated damages?

A

Unliquidated damages are not pre-agreed and are determined by the court based on the circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is specific performance?

A

Specific performance is a court order requiring a party to fulfill their obligations under a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is specific performance typically awarded?

A

It is usually awarded in cases where monetary compensation would be inadequate or inappropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an injunction?

A

An injunction is a court order that compels a party to stop a specific act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does rescission mean in contract law?

A

Rescission is the unmaking of a contract, allowing the innocent party the choice to end the contract due to a vitiating factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What options does the innocent party have in terms of rescission?

A

They can choose to rescind the contract and claim damages for loss or affirm (carry on with) the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the law of restitution?

A

Restitution deals with restoring something, typically money or property, to its rightful owner or providing compensation for unjust enrichment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What principle underlies the law of restitution?

A

The principle is to restore the parties to their pre-contractual status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is rectification in contract law?

A

Rectification is a remedy where a court orders a change to correct a mistake in a written document to reflect the true intention of the parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the law say about contracts for real estate?

A

Contracts for the sale or transfer of real estate or any interest in it must be documented in writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the law specify about lease terms?

A

A lease with a term that goes beyond 7 years must be officially registered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the Conveyancing & Law of Property Act require for contracts involving the sale of land and leases?

A

Contracts for the sale of land and leases of 7 years and more must be made by deed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an Option to Purchase?

A

An Option to Purchase is a grant by the property owner to the purchaser, giving the purchaser the right to buy the property under specified conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of rights does an OTP provide?

A

An OTP provides irrevocable rights granted by the property owner to the purchaser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the maximum option fee for HDB resale flats?

A

The maximum option fee for HDB resale flats is $1,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the usual percentage for option fees for private residential, commercial, or industrial properties?

A

The usual option fee is typically 1% of the property’s price.

21
Q

How does a purchaser exercise the OTP?

A

The purchaser exercises the OTP by signing the acceptance portion and paying the option exercise fee.

22
Q

What is the maximum option exercise fee for HDB resale flats?

A

The maximum option exercise fee for HDB resale flats is $4,000.

23
Q

What are the option exercise fees for private residential and commercial or industrial properties?

A

The fee is typically 4% for private residential properties and 9% for commercial or industrial properties.

24
Q

What is the usual option period for resale properties?

A

The usual option period is 14 days, except for HDB resale flats and uncompleted units from developers, which is 21 days.

25
Q

What happens if the option expires without being exercised?

A

If the option expires, the seller is entitled to forfeit the option money and may sell the property to another buyer.

26
Q

What is a Sales & Purchase Agreement (S&P)?

A

A Sales & Purchase Agreement is a legally binding contract between a seller and a purchaser regarding the sale of a property.

27
Q

What does consideration typically represent in a Sales & Purchase Agreement?

A

Consideration in a Sales & Purchase Agreement usually refers to the deposit paid by the purchaser.

28
Q

What rights and obligations does an S&P agreement create for the seller and purchaser?

A

The S&P creates irrevocable rights and obligations for both the seller and the purchaser.

29
Q

What are the legal consequences of a breach of contract in an S&P?

A

Breach of contract can lead to legal remedies, such as seeking damages or enforcing the agreement in court.

30
Q

When is an S&P commonly used?

A

An S&P is commonly used in purchasing properties under construction from licensed developers.

31
Q

What is the format of an S&P typically based on?

A

The S&P is based on a standardized format prescribed by the relevant authority.

32
Q

What rights does the purchaser have under Condition 3 - Documents of Title regarding documents?

A

The purchaser has the right to inspect the title deed and must be shown the document not later than one month before the Scheduled Completion Date.

33
Q

What occurs under Condition 4 if there is a dishonored payment?

A

The vendor has the right to treat the contract as repudiated by the purchaser or to affirm the contract as per the terms and conditions.

34
Q

What must the vendor deliver according to Condition 5?

A

The vendor must deliver the property in the same state and condition as at the date of option or the date of the contract, and remove all movable property upon completion if it is a sale with vacant possession.

35
Q

Who is entitled to outgoings, rents, and profits before and after the completion date as stated in Condition 6?

A

The vendor is entitled to rent and profits before the completion date; the purchaser is entitled after the completion date.

36
Q

What does Condition 8 specify about the state of the property?

A

Condition 8 states that the purchaser is deemed to have notice of the actual state and condition of the property regarding access, repair, and other related factors.

37
Q

What happens if the purchaser delays the completion of the sale?

A

The purchaser must pay interest as liquidated damages starting the day after the Scheduled Completion Date, up to and including the Completion Date.

38
Q

How is the late completion interest for purchasers calculated?

A

Interest is calculated on the purchase price (less any deposit and sums paid to account) at a rate of 8% per annum.

39
Q

What happens if the vendor delays the completion of the sale?

A

The vendor must pay interest as liquidated damages starting the day after the Scheduled Completion Date up to and including the Completion Date.

40
Q

How is the late completion interest for vendors calculated?

A

Interest is calculated on the purchase price at a rate of 8% per annum.

41
Q

What occurs if the vendor delivers vacant possession before the Completion Date?

A

If the vendor has delivered vacant possession and no rent is payable by the purchaser, the interest payable to the purchaser will be reduced by a sum equivalent to notional rent.

42
Q

Under what condition does the vendor make a representation regarding transactions at an undervalue?

A

The vendor must warrant that if the property was involved in a transaction at undervalue, either 3 years must have passed or 5 years must have passed depending on certain conditions outlined in the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018.

43
Q

What does a Notice to Complete signify?

A

It is a written notice requiring completion of the property transaction in accordance with the contract.

44
Q

How long do parties have to complete the transaction after receiving a Notice to Complete?

A

Parties must complete the transaction within twenty-one (21) days after the day of service of the notice.

45
Q

Do parties retain any rights after a Notice to Complete is served?

A

Yes, both parties retain any intermediate right of rescission, regardless of the specified completion period.

46
Q

What must the Purchaser do if they do not comply with the Notice to Complete on expiry?

A

The Purchaser must:
Return all title deeds and documents belonging to the Vendor.
Procure the cancellation of any entry related to the contract in any register at their own expense.
The Vendor may forfeit and keep any deposit paid by the Purchaser and resell the property.

47
Q

What options does the Purchaser have if the Vendor fails to comply with the Notice to Complete?

A

The Purchaser may choose: a) To enforce against the Vendor the rights and remedies available at law or in equity without further notice. b) To give written notice to the Vendor demanding the immediate repayment of the deposit and any money paid on account of the purchase price.

48
Q

What happens after the Vendor complies with the written notice to repay the Purchaser?

A

The Purchaser will no longer be entitled to any right to specific performance of the contract, must return all title deeds and documents, and must procure the cancellation of any contract-related entries in the register at the Vendor’s expense.