Lesson 401 - Traffic Control Overview Flashcards

1
Q

What are the terminal objectives of Lesson 401?

A

To integrate other traffic into the zone while managing arrivals and departures according to MATS.

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2
Q

What does MATS stand for and what is its significance in Lesson 401?

A

MATS stands for the ‘Manual of Air Traffic Services.’ It provides guidelines and procedures that must be followed for managing traffic safely and efficiently.

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3
Q

What does EO 401.1 focus on in the context of air traffic control?

A

EO 401.1 focuses on managing operations outside the airport boundaries ensuring safe navigation and coordination among aircraft in the surrounding airspace.

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4
Q

Explain the importance of providing traffic information as per EO 401.2.

A

Providing traffic information helps pilots maintain situational awareness allows for better decision-making and enhances safety by reducing the risk of collisions.

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5
Q

What are separation techniques as outlined in EO 401.3 and why are they critical?

A

Separation techniques are methods used to ensure that aircraft maintain safe distances from each other in the air and on the ground preventing potential collisions and maintaining safety.

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6
Q

What is the primary focus when managing aircraft in an airport’s control zone?

A

The primary focus is on managing overflights aircraft landing within the control zone but not at the airport and separating traffic using various techniques such as vectors and speed control.

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7
Q

What separation techniques are important when managing air traffic outside the airport?

A

Important separation techniques include using vectors speed control orbiting geographic separation and providing timely traffic information to pilots.

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8
Q

Why might the airspace around an airport be busier than operations at the airport itself?

A

The airspace around an airport can be busier due to high volumes of overflights approaches to multiple airports in close proximity and other traffic that does not necessarily land at the airport.

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9
Q

In what situations might an air traffic controller use orbiting as a separation technique?

A

Orbiting may be used when managing aircraft holding patterns to prevent conflicts with arriving or departing traffic or to manage spacing for aircraft awaiting landing clearance.

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10
Q

What is the significance of managing operations outside the airport boundaries?

A

Managing operations outside the airport boundaries ensures the safety and efficiency of air traffic maintaining orderly flow while preventing congestion and potential conflicts.

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11
Q

What is required to effectively manage traffic information in a busy control zone?

A

Effective management of traffic information requires continuous monitoring of aircraft positions communicating relevant traffic updates to pilots and making timely decisions to maintain separation.

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12
Q

Define ‘overflight’ in the context of air traffic management.

A

An overflight refers to an aircraft that is flying over an airport’s control zone without intending to land at that specific airport.

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13
Q

What is the role of speed control in managing aircraft in a control zone?

A

Speed control helps ensure safe distances between aircraft allows for efficient sequencing of arrivals and departures and assists in managing the flow of traffic.

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14
Q

How should an air traffic controller manage traffic from aircraft with no transponders?

A

Controllers should use visual scanning radar and maintain clear communication with nearby aircraft to ensure safe separation and manage traffic effectively.

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15
Q

What does EA 401.1 refer to in air traffic management training?

A

EA 401.1 refers to the educational objective of managing operations outside the airport boundaries as part of the Basic Airport Control Course.

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16
Q

What factors should be considered when applying separation techniques?

A

Factors include the type of air traffic current weather conditions expected traffic volume aircraft performance characteristics and any special airspace restrictions.

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17
Q

How can geographic separation be utilized as a traffic management technique?

A

Geographic separation involves using natural landmarks designated airways or predefined routes to ensure that aircraft maintain safe distances from each other based on their flight paths.

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18
Q

Why is timely traffic information critical for pilots?

A

Timely traffic information is critical for pilots for situational awareness ensuring they can make informed decisions about altitude adjustments speed changes and avoid potential traffic conflicts.

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19
Q

What is the definition of an overflight according to MATS?

A

An overflight is defined as a flight that qualifies for runway data codes 88 88A and 88B in IWP.

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20
Q

What types of activities are considered overflights?

A

Overflights can include activities such as pipeline patrol police activities and photo surveys.

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21
Q

How are aircraft that contact the tower regarding flight plans categorized for statistical purposes?

A

Aircraft that contact the tower to activate or close a flight plan or itinerary are also considered overflights for statistical purposes.

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22
Q

What is typically the type of aircraft that are categorized as overflights?

A

Normally only VFR (Visual Flight Rules) aircraft are categorized as overflights.

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23
Q

Is there specific phraseology in MATS for controlling overflights?

A

There is no specific MATS phraseology for controlling overflights.

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24
Q

What is the approach to phraseology for overflights at March Airport?

A

At March Airport phraseology will be similar to that used in the field taking local conditions into account such as designated routes.

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25
Q

How do initial contact and clearance procedures for overflights compare to those for arrivals?

A

Initial contact and clearance procedures for overflights are the same as for an arrival.

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26
Q

List the runway data codes that qualify a flight as an overflight.

A

The runway data codes that qualify a flight as an overflight are 88 88A and 88B.

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27
Q

What organization provides flight information services for overflights?

A

Controllers provide flight information services to aircraft that fly through or do air work in the zone referred to as overflights.

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28
Q

Can overflights include aircraft that perform operations other than transit?

A

Yes overflights can include aircraft that conduct operations such as pipeline patrol or police activities.

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29
Q

What is the basic phraseology format for overflights?

A

The basic phraseology format for overflights includes: Aircraft call sign Unit identification (if required) Altimeter setting Clearance limit Cleared through the zone or to a specific point in the zone Routing.

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30
Q

What is required information to be communicated before approving an overflight?

A

Before replying to the aircraft and approving the overflight controllers must consider altitude traffic reporting points (if desired) and other required information such as NOTAMs.

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31
Q

According to CARs 602.34 what should a controller do if the pilot requests an inappropriate altitude for the direction of flight?

A

The controller should inform the pilot if they request an altitude that is inappropriate for their direction of flight.

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32
Q

What defines appropriate altitude based on the direction of flight for IFR aircraft?

A

For IFR aircraft the appropriate altitude for direction of flight is that they should be at an odd number altitude for flights headed East and an even number altitude for flights headed West.

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33
Q

What is the role of Traffic Management in MATS?

A

Traffic Management in MATS involves managing the flow of air traffic by making adjustments to ensure safety and efficiency in coordination with other operational procedures.

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34
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

NOTAMs are Notices to Airmen which are notifications about important information regarding the state of the airspace or other operational requirements that may affect flight operations.

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35
Q

What is the significance of routing in the overflight communications?

A

Routing specifies the path that the aircraft is cleared to follow through the controlled airspace ensuring safe and efficient navigation.

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36
Q

What should be included in altitude information for IFR aircraft?

A

Altitude information for IFR aircraft should specify whether the altitude is odd or even ensuring compliance with the standard IFR altitude rules based on direction of flight.

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37
Q

What additional considerations should controllers keep in mind regarding the traffic?

A

Controllers should analyze current traffic conditions and any potential conflicts or congestion in order to maintain safety and efficient operation.

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38
Q

What altitude should VFR aircraft maintain for direction of flight?

A

VFR aircraft should be at an odd or even altitude plus five hundred feet.

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39
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring conformity to Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) in aviation operations?

A

The pilot is responsible for conforming to Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs). However Air Traffic Control (ATC) can assist by detecting and reporting discrepancies.

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40
Q

Why is assigning a suitable altitude important in aviation?

A

Assigning a suitable altitude is necessary to separate the aircraft from other traffic.

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41
Q

What factors must a controller consider to ensure aircraft compliance with a specific altitude?

A

A controller must consider surrounding terrain and weather conditions to ensure aircraft compliance with a specific altitude.

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42
Q

How do airport controllers issue altitude restrictions to aircraft?

A

Airport controllers issue altitude restrictions by instructing aircraft to fly ‘NOT BELOW’ or ‘NOT ABOVE’ a specified altitude.

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43
Q

What is the typical minimum altitude assigned to overfly March Airport?

A

A minimum altitude of 2300 feet is usually assigned to overfly March Airport which establishes at least 500 feet of separation above the traffic circuit.

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44
Q

What is the role of Air Traffic Control (ATC) in managing flight operations?

A

ATC assists by detecting discrepancies in compliance with regulations and by assigning suitable altitudes and routes to ensure safe separation of aircraft.

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45
Q

What is a significant goal of assigning specific routes to aircraft?

A

The goal of assigning specific routes is to separate aircraft from traffic or to keep them away from points of conflict during departure and arrival.

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46
Q

What does EO 401.1 refer to in the context of aviation operations?

A

EO 401.1 refers to the management of operations outside the airport boundaries.

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47
Q

What is the significance of maintaining a minimum separation altitude of 500 feet above the circuit?

A

Maintaining a minimum separation altitude of 500 feet above the circuit is crucial for ensuring safe vertical separation from other aircraft operating in the circuit.

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48
Q

What are the implications of weather conditions on altitude assignments?

A

Weather conditions can influence the safe altitude that an aircraft can fly hence controllers must assess these conditions when assigning altitudes.

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49
Q

What additional responsibilities does an airport controller have regarding traffic management?

A

An airport controller has the responsibility to manage the orderly flow of traffic issue instructions for altitude and route adjustments and ensure compliance with safety regulations.

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50
Q

What is the phraseology used to reference a route in air traffic control?

A

The phraseology used to reference a route in air traffic control is ‘VIA fix.’

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51
Q

What is the importance of visible landmarks in the control zone?

A

Visible landmarks in the control zone serve as reference points for determining flight paths and providing navigation assistance to pilots. Knowledge of these landmarks helps with route instructions and pilot orientation.

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52
Q

What does MATS stand for in the context of air traffic control?

A

MATS stands for ‘Manual of Air Traffic Services’ in the context of air traffic control.

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53
Q

What knowledge should air traffic controllers have about prominent landmarks within a 25-mile radius of the airport?

A

Air traffic controllers should know the distance and direction of each prominent landmark that may be used as a visual reporting point within a 25-mile radius of the airport.

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54
Q

How can air traffic controllers assist pilots who have difficulty orienting themselves?

A

Air traffic controllers can assist pilots who have difficulty orienting themselves by providing information related to visual reporting points and helping them understand their location relative to these landmarks.

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55
Q

What is the protocol when a VFR aircraft outside the control zone requests navigational assistance?

A

When a VFR aircraft outside the control zone requests navigational assistance the controller may identify the aircraft and provide position information relative to the airport or other specified location.

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56
Q

Why is it necessary to be familiar with visual reference points in and around the control zone?

A

Familiarity with visual reference points in and around the control zone is necessary to provide accurate navigational assistance and enhance safety for pilots navigating in the area.

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57
Q

What is a VFR aircraft?

A

A VFR aircraft is one that operates under Visual Flight Rules which allows pilots to fly by visual reference to the ground and other unobstructed references as opposed to relying solely on instruments.

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58
Q

What are the protocols upon entering a control zone or TRA regarding aircraft vectors?

A

Upon entering the control zone or TRA the aircraft can be provided with vectors for navigation. If further assistance is required or if the pilot declares an emergency coordination with the ACC (Air Traffic Control Center) is necessary.

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59
Q

What should a controller do if the aircraft is not visible on the situation display?

A

If the aircraft is not visible on the situation display the controller may request a position report from the pilot.

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60
Q

What types of reporting points should controllers use for VFR pilots?

A

Controllers should use reporting points that are easy to see and commonly understood by VFR pilots. An example of such a reporting point is ‘REPORT OVER ABEAM’.

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61
Q

What is the difference between ‘REPORT OVER’ and ‘ABEAM’?

A

‘REPORT OVER’ implies a defacto restriction where the pilot must fly directly over the specific point whereas ‘ABEAM’ is generally used as a reporting point without the same requirement to fly over it.

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62
Q

What is EO 401.1 in relation to airport operations?

A

EO 401.1 pertains to managing operations outside the airport boundaries ensuring that all traffic within this area is controlled effectively.

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63
Q

What is emphasized in the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course regarding instructions to pilots?

A

In the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course (L401-7) it is emphasized that controllers must issue clear and concise instructions which can be provided separately from the initial information given to the pilots.

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64
Q

Provide an example of unrestricted clearance given to an aircraft according to simulator phraseology examples.

A

An example of unrestricted clearance is: ‘GABC MARCH TOWER ALTIMETER TWO-NINER-NINER-TWO CLEARED THROUGH THE MARCH CONTROL ZONE SQUAWK [transponder code].’

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65
Q

What is the transcription of the altitude restricted clearance for aircraft GABC according to March Tower?

A

Altitude restricted clearance for GABC from March Tower states: “ALTITUDE RESTRICTED CLEARANCE GABC MARCH TOWER ALTIMETER TWO-NINER-NINER-TWO CLEARED THROUGH THE MARCH CONTROL ZONE NOT BELOW TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED SQUAWK THREE-FIVE-FIVE-TWO.”

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66
Q

What is the significance of the numbers TWO-NINER-NINER-TWO in aviation communication?

A

The numbers TWO-NINER-NINER-TWO refer to the altimeter setting in inches of mercury (inHg). Pilots use this setting for pressure readings to ensure altitude accuracy during flight.

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67
Q

Explain what is meant by ‘squawk’ in aviation terms.

A

In aviation ‘squawk’ refers to the setting of an aircraft’s transponder which communicates with air traffic control (ATC). The specific number given such as THREE-FIVE-FIVE-TWO is the transponder code that the pilot must input.

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68
Q

What do the terms ‘geographic and altitude restricted clearance’ involve?

A

Geographic and altitude restricted clearance involves specific directions given by air traffic control that limit the geographical areas an aircraft can operate in and enforce an altitude limit such as NOT BELOW TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.

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69
Q

What does the phrase ‘cleared direct second bridge’ imply in an air traffic context?

A

The phrase ‘cleared direct second bridge’ means that the aircraft GABC has been authorized to fly directly to a specific waypoint identified as the second bridge optimizing its route.

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70
Q

In the context of air traffic control what does an ‘88 movement’ refer to?

A

An ‘88 movement’ refers to a type of movement that allows an aircraft that is transiting the control zone to perform certain maneuvers or instructions based on specific eligibility requirements.

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71
Q

Describe the procedure for entering codes 8888A88B in the context of runway movements.

A

Codes 8888A88B should be entered in the Runway box of an FDE to record overflights. This adjustment is a part of managing flight data effectively.

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72
Q

What is the initial adjustment for the FDE when recording overflights?

A

The initial adjustment for the FDE (Flight Data Entry) when recording overflights is to set the FDE to a white local FDE.

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73
Q

What is the next step after the FDE is adjusted for recording an 88 movement?

A

After adjusting the FDE the next step for recording an 88 movement is to tap the RWY control on the OVF (Operational Display).

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74
Q

What is the purpose of the altimeter setting in flight operations?

A

The altimeter setting is important for ensuring that the aircraft maintains the correct altitude in relation to sea level which is crucial for safety in air traffic and avoiding terrain.

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75
Q

Why is it important for pilots to receive altitude restricted clearances?

A

Altitude restricted clearances are important for maintaining safe separation between aircraft and preventing collisions as well as ensuring compliance with airspace regulations.

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76
Q

What does the 88 control signify in the context of runway operations?

A

The 88 control is used to denote an aircraft transitioning the control zone or TRA (Traffic Routing Area) or an aircraft outside the control zone or TRA that contacts the tower to activate or close a flight plan or flight itinerary or to file a position report.

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77
Q

What are the two scenarios in which the 88 code is used?

A

The 88 code is used in two scenarios: 1) An aircraft transitioning the control zone or TRA. 2) An aircraft outside the control zone or TRA that calls the tower to activate or close a flight plan or itinerary or to file a position report.

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78
Q

What should be recorded when an aircraft exits the control zone or TRA and then contacts the control tower to file a position report?

A

It should be recorded as a single code 88 event.

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79
Q

What is the protocol EO 401.1 in relation to airport operations?

A

EO 401.1 pertains to managing operations outside the airport boundaries.

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80
Q

What is the significance of the 88A code in aircraft operations?

A

The 88A code is used when an aircraft enters the control zone or TRA and remains there for an extended flight activity before exiting.

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81
Q

What does ‘TRA’ stand for and why is it important in airport control?

A

TRA stands for Traffic Routing Area which is important for directing aircraft operations and ensuring safety when transitioning between controlled and uncontrolled airspace.

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82
Q

What information is displayed on the RWY control when the 88 control is activated?

A

When the 88 control is activated the result of 88 is shown on the RWY control and the event time is displayed on the bottom left.

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83
Q

What is meant by ‘extended flight activity’?

A

Extended flight activity refers to a situation where an aircraft remains within the control zone or TRA for an elongated period beyond just a brief transit.

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84
Q

What defines an aircraft that enters and exits the control zone or TRA?

A

An aircraft that either enters or exits the control zone or TRA is defined by its actions in relation to that airspace. Specifically if an aircraft departs the airport circuit and remains within the control zone or TRA for an extended flight activity it must adhere to regulations for operating within that airspace.

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85
Q

What characterizes an aircraft that remains within the control zone or TRA for an extended flight activity before landing?

A

An aircraft that remains within the control zone or TRA for an extended flight activity before landing implies that it is actively engaged in operations such as training or holding patterns rather than directly approaching or landing at the airport.

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86
Q

What are the conditions an aircraft must meet after exiting the control zone or TRA?

A

After exiting the control zone or TRA an aircraft must have either: 1) Remained within the control zone or TRA for an extended flight activity 2) Conducted repetitive flights through the control zone or TRA or 3) Remained within the control zone or TRA for an extended flight activity after takeoff.

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87
Q

What does it mean for an aircraft to enter the airport circuit after remaining within the control zone or TRA?

A

An aircraft entering the airport circuit after remaining within the control zone or TRA indicates it is transitioning from extended activity in controlled airspace to proceed with landing or participating in local traffic patterns.

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88
Q

What is a simulated approach without landing?

A

A simulated approach without landing refers to an aircraft performing a practice approach to the runway which includes maneuvering as if landing but intentionally not touching down.

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89
Q

What is considered a low approach?

A

A low approach is a flight maneuver where an aircraft descends towards the runway but does not land typically used for practice in instrument flying.

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90
Q

What constitutes a pull-up while on final approach?

A

A pull-up while on final approach is when the aircraft intentionally aborts the landing maneuver immediately before touchdown typically used in training scenarios for missed approaches.

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91
Q

What is meant by a missed approach?

A

A missed approach is a maneuver initiated by an aircraft when it cannot land as planned requiring the aircraft to climb away from the approach path and execute a re-entry into the traffic pattern or follow controllers’ instructions.

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92
Q

What is the significance of a flight plan messages’ time expressed in minutes?

A

The time expressed in minutes when arrival or departure flight plan messages are exchanged if required is crucial for coordinating air traffic management and ensuring safe distances between aircraft.

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93
Q

What is the importance of unabbreviated aircraft messages unless directed otherwise?

A

Unabbreviated aircraft messages ensure clear communication between pilots and air traffic control enhancing safety and comprehension of aircraft intentions and instructions.

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94
Q

What is a registration mark and provide an example?

A

A registration mark is a code that identifies an aircraft typically composed of letters and numbers assigned by a country’s aviation authority. For example ‘CFABC’ is a registration mark for an aircraft.

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95
Q

What does the letter ‘T’ signify in flight coding?

A

The letter ‘T’ signifies that the flight is a training flight.

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96
Q

What does the letter ‘M’ signify in flight coding?

A

The letter ‘M’ signifies that the flight is a military flight.

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97
Q

What should be recorded when the limits of the TRA extend beyond a control zone?

A

When the limits of the TRA extend beyond the control zone only record an aircraft that transits both the zone and TRA once.

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98
Q

How should aircraft transiting a control zone or TRA be recorded?

A

For any aircraft that requests and receives a clearance through the control zone or TRA record it as a single code 88 event without consideration for the size of the control zone or TRA.

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99
Q

What are the conditions under which aircraft do not qualify for a code 88 event?

A

Aircraft do not qualify for a code 88 event in the following scenarios: 1. When activating a flight plan or flight itinerary after an itinerant event has been recorded for takeoff. 2. When reporting clear of the control zone or TRA after an itinerant event has been recorded for takeoff. 3. When cancelling IFR closing a flight plan or flight itinerary and subsequently landing at the airport where the control tower is located.

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100
Q

What is the significance of a code 88 event?

A

A code 88 event is a specific classification used to record aircraft activity in relation to received clearances through control zones or TRA particularly to streamline reporting and ensure proper tracking of air traffic.

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101
Q

What is EO 401.1?

A

EO 401.1 refers to the guidelines for managing operations outside the airport boundaries.

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102
Q

In which course is EO 401.1 discussed?

A

EO 401.1 is discussed in the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course L401-10.

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103
Q

What activities do not qualify for a code 88A or 88B event?

A

Aircraft do not qualify for a code 88A or 88B event unless they are conducting extended flight activities outside the airport circuit but within the control zone or TRA.

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104
Q

What are examples of extended flight activities conducted outside the airport circuit?

A

Examples include traffic surveys police activities hot air balloons sightseeing flights photo surveys calibration flights (not conducting approaches) pipeline patrols and simulated holds.

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105
Q

What is meant by ‘control zone’ or ‘TRA’?

A

A control zone is an area of controlled airspace around an airport where air traffic control services are provided and TRA (Temporary Reserved Airspace) is designated airspace used for specific operations or activities temporarily.

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106
Q

How should records be kept for aircraft in the control zone or TRA?

A

Only the first entry and last exit of the control zone or TRA should be recorded.

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107
Q

What documentation is required for extended flight activities in the control zone or TRA?

A

Documentation should include the nature of the activity the first entry and the last exit of the aircraft from the control zone or TRA.

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108
Q

What is the definition of a code 88A or 88B event?

A

A code 88A or 88B event typically refers to specific recorded aircraft activities that occur within designated parameters which are not met if the aircraft is solely conducting extended flight activities outside the airport circuit.

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109
Q

List at least three specific activities that qualify as extended flight activities.

A

Traffic surveys police activities and hot air balloons are examples of extended flight activities.

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110
Q

Can calibration flights that conduct approaches qualify for a code 88A or 88B event?

A

No calibration flights that do not conduct approaches qualify for recording while those that do may not.

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111
Q

Why is it important to differentiate between activities that qualify for code 88A or 88B?

A

Differentiating is important for accurate air traffic management and record-keeping ensuring that operational data reflects actual events and compliance with regulations.

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112
Q

What are the code options used for extended flight activities outside the airport circuit but within the control zone or TRA?

A

Either code 88B or code 88A may be used for this type of event but not both for the same aircraft flight.

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113
Q

What is the significance of the different runway codes in the context of overflights in the control zone?

A

Different types of overflights require specific runway codes to be entered into the IWP (Integrated Work Plan) as outlined in the MATS (Manual of Air Traffic Services).

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114
Q

What code is assigned to a news helicopter reporting on traffic along the Trans-Canada highway from east to west if the flight is uninterrupted?

A

The flight is assigned a code 88 if it is uninterrupted.

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115
Q

How is the code determined if the news helicopter conducts orbits to monitor a highway traffic jam rather than flying a direct path?

A

If the helicopter conducts orbits instead of a direct path it will be assigned a code 88A.

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116
Q

What code follows the 88A code when the aircraft permanently leaves the control zone or lands?

A

The code 88B is used when the aircraft permanently leaves the zone.

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117
Q

What happens to the runway code when an aircraft operates near the edge of the control zone and enters and exits repeatedly?

A

The aircraft will use the code 88A when it first contacts the tower to enter the control zone and will switch to code 88B when it leaves the zone permanently.

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118
Q

What does MATS stand for in aviation terminology?

A

MATS stands for Manual of Air Traffic Services.

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119
Q

What does the acronym TRA signify in the context of airspace management?

A

TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace.

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120
Q

Why is it important to use the correct runway codes in air traffic operations?

A

Using the correct runway codes ensures proper communication coordination and management of air traffic operations enhancing safety and efficiency.

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121
Q

Can an aircraft use both code 88A and code 88B during the same flight?

A

No an aircraft cannot use both code 88A and code 88B during the same flight event.

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122
Q

What is a Code 88A flight?

A

A Code 88A flight is any flight that does not follow a standard path and operates outside the circuit. The only exemption is for hot air balloons which have changing paths according to wind conditions.

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123
Q

What happens when a flight enters Code 88A?

A

When a flight enters Code 88A a timer starts in the IWP (Integrated Workstation Platform) generating movements at regular intervals currently set to 10 minutes.

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124
Q

What actions stop the timer when a flight is in Code 88A?

A

Entering a Code 88B or landing the aircraft stops the timer that is counting in Code 88A.

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125
Q

What should a pilot do if they need to open or close their flight plan near the control zone?

A

If a pilot operating near the control zone asks to open or close their flight plan or to file a position report the controller should enter a Code 88.

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126
Q

What additional information should controllers provide to pilots near the control zone?

A

Controllers should provide pilots with the airport altimeter setting along with any relevant information such as NOTAMs weather conditions wind and traffic details even if not required by regulations.

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127
Q

What is EO 401.1?

A

EO 401.1 refers to procedures that manage operations outside the airport boundaries ensuring safety and coordination for air traffic.

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128
Q

What does NOTAM stand for and why is it important?

A

NOTAM stands for ‘Notice to Air Missions’. It is important as it provides critical information about the status of the airport airspace changes and other essential details for pilots.

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129
Q

What must controllers do when managing landings and takeoffs outside airport boundaries?

A

Controllers must ensure that they are aware of and managing the various factors affecting operations in landing and takeoff outside of airport boundaries while complying with aviation safety protocols.

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130
Q

What factors must be reported to pilots near the control zone?

A

Pilots near the control zone should be reported on NOTAMs weather conditions wind traffic and any other relevant information to ensure safety and communication.

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131
Q

What type of aircraft may take off or land in control zones at locations other than airports?

A

Helicopters light airplanes hot air balloons or gliders.

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132
Q

What types of surfaces can aircraft operate from in addition to runways?

A

Aerodromes water aerodromes and temporary landing areas.

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133
Q

What services must air traffic control (ATC) provide when an aircraft requests landing or takeoff from a surface other than a runway?

A

ATC must provide traffic and obstruction information control instructions if necessary and inform the pilot that landing or takeoff will be at the pilot’s discretion.

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134
Q

What must ATC inform the pilot when landing or takeoff is requested from a non-designated surface?

A

ATC must inform the pilot that landing or takeoff will be at the pilot’s discretion.

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135
Q

Give examples of surfaces other than a runway where landing or takeoff might occur.

A

Areas adjacent to the airport areas in the control zone but not at the airport water aerodromes or temporary landing areas in the control zone.

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136
Q

What is a water aerodrome?

A

A water aerodrome is a defined area of water that is suitable for the landing and takeoff of aircraft particularly seaplanes and amphibious aircraft.

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137
Q

Define ‘aerodrome’.

A

An aerodrome is any location from which aircraft flight operations take place irrespective of whether the location is designated for the use of such operations or not.

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138
Q

What is a temporary landing area in the context of aviation operations?

A

A temporary landing area is a location that is not an officially designated airport or runway but is temporarily made available for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.

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139
Q

What does ‘GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA’ signify in aviation communications?

A

GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA is a phonetic spelling of a call sign or a registration of an aircraft. Phonetic alphabet is used to ensure clarity in communication.

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140
Q

What does ‘WIND THREE ZERO ZERO AT FIFTEEN’ indicate?

A

It indicates the wind direction and speed specifically that the wind is coming from 300 degrees at a speed of 15 knots.

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141
Q

What should a pilot do when intending to depart off-airport within the control zone?

A

The pilot may call on the radio to the control tower or if unable to establish radio contact may call on the phone. It’s advisable to note their phone number for safety.

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142
Q

What precaution should be taken if a pilot calls to depart off-airport on the phone?

A

It is advisable to copy the pilot’s phone number in case they do not report airborne.

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143
Q

What information should be advised to the pilot before takeoff off-airport?

A

The pilot should be informed of the current weather conditions including the altimeter setting and wind at the airport.

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144
Q

How should the wind information for departures off-airport be stated?

A

It should be clearly stated as the wind at the airport.

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145
Q

What is the procedure for assigning a squawk code and route for departing aircraft?

A

Assign a squawk code to the aircraft and specify a route in this instance EO 401.

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146
Q

What is meant by ‘MANAGE OPERATIONS OUTSIDE THE AIRPORT BOUNDARIES’?

A

This involves overseeing flight operations that take place outside the physical boundaries of the airport ensuring safe integration with other air traffic.

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147
Q

What course is referenced for basic airport traffic control?

A

The course referenced is Basic Airport Control Course L401-12.

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148
Q

What needs to be issued to the aircraft before departure?

A

A takeoff clearance must be issued to the aircraft.

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149
Q

What must the pilot do after they are airborne?

A

The pilot should call on the specified tower frequency once they are airborne.

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150
Q

What phraseology is used for granting takeoff clearance?

A

The phraseology used would be ‘TAKEOFF AT YOUR DISCRETION’.

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151
Q

What does the term ‘discretion’ mean in aviation communication regarding aircraft departures?

A

In aviation ‘discretion’ refers to the pilot’s authority to make decisions regarding the flight operation when not departing from a controlled manoeuvring area. The phrase ‘departure at your discretion’ implies that the pilot can take off when they feel it is safe to do so without waiting for additional instructions.

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152
Q

What information should be communicated to an arriving aircraft?

A

For arrivals the pilot should be advised the same information as for departures but they should also be asked for a down report which indicates that they have the aircraft safely on approach. This communication ensures that the airport controller is aware of the aircraft’s status.

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153
Q

What phraseology is used for arriving aircraft when they are not landing on a controlled manoeuvring area?

A

The phraseology used for arriving aircraft in this circumstance is ‘LAND AT YOUR DISCRETION.’ This indicates that the pilot may choose the timing of their landing based on their assessment of the airspace and surface conditions.

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154
Q

What are water aerodromes and how are they represented on aeronautical charts?

A

Water aerodromes are locations where aircraft can take off or land on water such as lakes rivers and oceans. They may be located within controlled airspace but they do not have traditional runways. Instead pilots land or take off directly into the wind as conditions dictate and maps or references for these aerodromes can be found in the Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).

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155
Q

How do pilots determine the best landing direction at a water aerodrome?

A

Pilots determine the best landing direction at a water aerodrome by taking into account wind direction. It is standard practice to land into the wind which provides better control during approach and landing.

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156
Q

What is the role of an airport controller regarding arriving aircraft?

A

The airport controller’s role is to relay all necessary information to the pilot regarding their arrival manage their approach and landing by providing instructions and ensure overall safety by monitoring air traffic.

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157
Q

What does a ‘down report’ signify in aviation communication?

A

A ‘down report’ is a communication from the pilot to the controlling authority indicating that the aircraft is safely on approach and preparing to land. This allows controllers to assess air traffic and manage landings appropriately.

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158
Q

Where can one find references and maps for water aerodromes in Canada?

A

References and maps regarding water aerodromes in Canada can be found in the Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS) which provides relevant details for pilots operating in these areas.

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159
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘land at your discretion’ for pilots?

A

The phrase ‘land at your discretion’ allows pilots to exercise their judgment regarding when it is safe to land. It indicates that they are not bound by prescribed instructions due to the non-controlled nature of their landing area.

160
Q

Describe the procedures if an aircraft is airborne before radio contact is established.

A

If an aircraft is airborne before radio contact is established the airport controller will provide all necessary information to the pilot once contact is made. This ensures that the pilot receives critical information regarding air traffic and any relevant instructions for their flight operation.

161
Q

What is the flight direction for landing or takeoff for amphibious aircraft?

A

Amphibious aircraft are handled the same as other aircraft operating within the control zone but they land and take off outside airport boundaries.

162
Q

What are the runway codes used for amphibious aircraft according to IWP codes?

A

Code 70 is used for any landing or takeoff from a water area within the aerodrome boundary. Code 77 is used for any landing or takeoff from a water area within the control zone or TRA but outside the airport boundary.

163
Q

What is unique about Vancouver Harbour in Canada concerning amphibious aircraft operations?

A

Vancouver Harbour is the only controlled airport in Canada that uses code 70 for operations involving amphibious aircraft.

164
Q

What is EO 401.1 in relation to airport operations?

A

EO 401.1 refers to managing operations outside the airport boundaries.

165
Q

What is the aim of EO 401.2 concerning traffic information?

A

EO 401.2 aims to provide traffic information essential for situational awareness of all pilots.

166
Q

Why is traffic information important for pilots during flight operations?

A

Traffic information is crucial as it informs pilots about other known or observed aircraft that may warrant attention enhancing their situational awareness.

167
Q

What is the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course referenced in the document?

A

The Traffic Basic Airport Control Course such as L401-13 and L401-14 provides fundamental knowledge and training related to airport traffic control including the management of amphibious aircraft.

168
Q

What does TRA stand for in the context of aviation and amphibious aircraft operations?

A

TRA stands for Terminal Restricted Area which is a designated airspace where certain restrictions apply meant for the safety of operations.

169
Q

Which codes are used to categorize aircraft events in IWP codes?

A

The codes used include 70 for landings or takeoffs from a water area within aerodrome boundaries and 77 for those within the control zone or TRA but outside airport boundaries.

170
Q

What is the main difference in transmitting information to pilots based on aircraft identification?

A

The manner of transmitting information to pilots changes based on whether their aircraft is identified or unidentified. Identified aircraft may receive more specific and targeted information while unidentified aircraft may receive more general instructions.

171
Q

Why is it important to provide pertinent traffic information to all aircraft?

A

Providing pertinent traffic information to all aircraft on your frequency—whether identified or unidentified separated or not—enhances safety and situational awareness for pilots allowing them to make informed decisions.

172
Q

What role does surveillance equipment play in transmitting information to pilots?

A

Surveillance equipment is a valuable tool for providing traffic information allowing controllers to monitor and relay essential data regarding the location and status of aircraft.

173
Q

What are the requirements for configuring the situational display when it comes to unlinked targets in an MATS Tower ATS Surveillance System?

A

The situational display must be configured to display and monitor unlinked targets showing a Coast list in a full format with all pertinent information to enable prompt detection of newly de-linked aircraft.

174
Q

What criteria must a Coast list header meet to qualify as full format?

A

A Coast list header must meet specific criteria to qualify as full format; otherwise it may not provide complete and essential information necessary for detecting and managing aircraft traffic.

175
Q

Under what circumstances can controllers remove flight plans from the Coast list?

A

Controllers can remove flight plans from the Coast list only if the system does not automatically perform this function.

176
Q

What altitude readouts mode is mentioned in the document and what is its relevance?

A

Altitude readouts mode C is mentioned which provides crucial altitude information to assist in maintaining safe separation and awareness among aircraft.

177
Q

What type of weather data is necessary for effective communication of severe weather information?

A

Current weather data and history are necessary for the provision of severe weather information enabling pilots and controllers to respond appropriately to changing weather conditions.

178
Q

What is VMI and why is it significant in air traffic control?

A

VMI refers to Visual Meteorological Information which is significant as it assists pilots and controllers in understanding and responding to meteorological conditions crucial for safe flight operations.

179
Q

What is the primary purpose of the geographic map within the air traffic management system?

A

The geographic map is used to display various features of the air traffic management system including traffic information airspace boundaries and geographic landmarks to assist controllers in managing air traffic.

180
Q

What information is displayed for traffic that has no flight plan entered into Fusion?

A

Unlinked targets are displayed to provide controllers with visibility on aircraft that do not have a flight plan entered into the system. This ensures that controllers have awareness of all traffic within their control zone.

181
Q

What does the ‘Cleared altitude’ indicator represent in air traffic control?

A

The ‘Cleared altitude’ indicator provides information about the altitude to which an aircraft has been cleared by air traffic control which is essential for maintaining safe vertical separation between aircraft.

182
Q

What are ‘Controller remarks’ in the context of air traffic control?

A

Controller remarks are comments made by air traffic controllers regarding specific operational details or instructions for an aircraft that are not covered by standard phraseology.

183
Q

Explain the significance of ‘RNAV remarks indicator’ in air traffic control.

A

The ‘RNAV remarks indicator’ is used to communicate information about Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and to indicate specific navigation requirements for aircraft operating in RNAV procedures.

184
Q

What does the ‘Altitude displayed on the estimate’ feature show?

A

The ‘Altitude displayed on the estimate’ feature shows the estimated altitude of an aircraft according to its flight plan which helps controllers assess the aircraft’s altitude profile and trajectory.

185
Q

What is the procedure for passing traffic information to pilots?

A

Traffic information must be provided in a clear logical and consistent format. Controllers should state the position of the traffic relative to the aircraft its direction of movement and its altitude allowing pilots to establish visual separation.

186
Q

What happens when visual separation is established between aircraft?

A

Once visual separation is established the controller no longer has to provide other forms of conflict resolution since the pilots can see each other and will navigate to maintain that separation.

187
Q

What is the role of radar-derived weather information in air traffic control?

A

Radar-derived weather information allows controllers to assess weather conditions in real-time aiding in decision-making processes regarding aircraft routing and safety especially concerning severe weather encounters.

188
Q

What is meant by ‘Unidentified traffic within the control zone’?

A

Unidentified traffic refers to aircraft that are present in the control zone but do not have a flight plan filed or cannot be identified by radar necessitating controllers to manage their presence cautiously.

189
Q

Describe the importance of delivering traffic information to pilots consistently.

A

Consistent delivery of traffic information is crucial to ensure pilots receive clear and actionable information reducing the cognitive load on pilots and enhancing situational awareness thereby improving safety.

190
Q

What procedure should controllers follow for de-linkage of aircraft tracking?

A

In the event of de-linkage controllers will rely on unlinked targets displayed on the geographic map to maintain awareness of aircraft positions that may have lost radar contact.

191
Q

What does PDTA stand for and what does it include in terms of unidentified aircraft communications?

A

PDTA stands for Position Direction of flight Type and Altitude. It is used for communicating information about unidentified aircraft along with important caveats and considerations when passing traffic information.

192
Q

When should traffic information be passed to pilots?

A

Traffic information should be passed as soon as pilots have a reasonable chance to see each other.

193
Q

What is required to pass traffic information using the situational display SiT?

A

To pass traffic information using the situational display SiT the aircraft receiving the information must be identified.

194
Q

What can be communicated about unidentified targets on the situational display?

A

The position of non-identified targets observed on the situational display can be communicated to identified aircraft using adjusted phraseology.

195
Q

What is the acceptable phraseology for issuing traffic information to aircraft?

A

The acceptable traffic information format includes: the Position of the aircraft Direction of flight Type of aircraft or relative speed Altitude of the aircraft Reporting point and time and Other relevant information.

196
Q

What phrases are considered unacceptable for conveying traffic information in relation to TCAS?

A

Phrases such as ‘TCAS TRAFFIC’ or ‘TRAFFIC FOR YOUR TCAS’ are not acceptable phraseology.

197
Q

What are the six components included when issuing traffic information to aircraft as per MATS Tower Traffic Management guidelines?

A
  1. Position of aircraft 2. Direction of flight 3. Type of aircraft or relative speed 4. Altitude of aircraft 5. Reporting point and time 6. Other information.
198
Q

What does MATS stand for in the context of issuing traffic information?

A

MATS stands for Manual of Air Traffic Services.

199
Q

What must be modified in the phraseology when passing traffic information about unidentified aircraft?

A

The phraseology must be adjusted when passing the position of non-identified targets to ensure clarity and adherence to communication protocols.

200
Q

In what context is the phrase ‘EO 401.2’ mentioned and what might it refer to?

A

EO 401.2 is likely a reference to an operational order or guideline related to the communication of traffic information especially about the phrases and procedures to be followed.

201
Q

What is the primary purpose of providing traffic information in air traffic control?

A

The primary purpose of providing traffic information in air traffic control is to ensure situational awareness for pilots and controllers helping to prevent collisions and enable safe navigation.

202
Q

What must be ensured about the reported position of an unidentifiable aircraft according to the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course L401-16 EO 401.2?

A

The reported position of the aircraft must be sufficiently recent to be relevant.

203
Q

When identifying traffic outside of ATS surveillance coverage what is the proper phraseology to communicate the traffic’s position type and altitude?

A

An example phraseology is: ‘TRAFFIC ELEVEN OCLOCK THREE MILES SOUTHBOUND BOEING SEVEN-THIRTY-SEVEN THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET DESCENDING.’

204
Q

What should be communicated when an aircraft is observed using ATS surveillance but is unidentified?

A

The proper phraseology would be: ‘TRAFFIC ONE-FIVE MILES WEST OF SYDNEY V-O-R EASTBOUND TYPE UNKNOWN SLOW MOVING FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED UNVERIFIED.’

205
Q

What information should be included when providing traffic information about unidentified aircraft?

A

Traffic information should include the position relative to the aircraft (e.g. ‘ONE O’CLOCK’ ‘FIVE MILES’) the direction of movement (e.g. ‘SOUTHBOUND’ ‘EASTBOUND’) the type of aircraft if known (or state ‘TYPE UNKNOWN’) its altitude if known (or state ‘ALTITUDE UNKNOWN’) and any relevant movement details (e.g. ‘SLOW MOVING’).

206
Q

In what scenario is traffic information critical according to the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course?

A

Traffic information is critical when an aircraft is operating outside of ATS surveillance coverage as it helps maintain awareness of potential traffic conflicts.

207
Q

What is an example of traffic information for a slow-moving unidentified aircraft?

A

An example phraseology could be: ‘TRAFFIC ONE O’CLOCK FIVE MILES WESTBOUND SLOW MOVING TYPE AND ALTITUDE UNKNOWN.’

208
Q

What does ATS stand for in the context of traffic management in air traffic control?

A

ATS stands for Air Traffic Services.

209
Q

Why is situational awareness important for pilots and air traffic controllers?

A

Situational awareness helps ensure that all parties are informed about the positions and movements of surrounding aircraft enabling safe navigation and collision avoidance.

210
Q

Describe the traffic information format for aircraft outside ATS surveillance coverage.

A

The traffic information format should specify the relative time position (e.g. ‘ELEVEN OCLOCK THREE MILES’) the movement direction (e.g. ‘SOUTHBOUND’) the aircraft type if available (e.g. ‘BOEING SEVEN-THIRTY-SEVEN’) and its altitude or other relevant details.

211
Q

What is the recommended action if the identity or position of an aircraft cannot be determined on the system?

A

If an aircraft is not identified or cannot be determined traffic information must still be provided based on the most recently reported position with emphasis on maintaining the relevance and accuracy of the information.

212
Q

What is the significance of ‘SLOW MOVING’ in traffic communications?

A

‘SLOW MOVING’ indicates that the identified aircraft may be of particular concern for other aircraft in the vicinity as it could affect their flight plans or landing approaches.

213
Q

What should a controller do if they observe an unidentified aircraft using ATS surveillance?

A

The controller should provide traffic information to nearby aircraft including details about the unidentified aircraft’s position movement speed and other relevant factors to maintain safety.

214
Q

What traffic information is provided for the Cessna 180 near Yorkton VOR?

A

The Cessna 180 is northwestbound located one to five miles east of Yorkton VOR at an altitude of four thousand five hundred feet estimating Yorkton VOR at one-two-zero-five Zulu.

215
Q

What traffic information is provided for the King Air near Killaloe VOR?

A

The King Air is westbound located twenty miles east of Killaloe VOR at an altitude of eight thousand feet estimating Killaloe VOR at two-one-one-five.

216
Q

What vital information should be acknowledged when a helicopter is conducting low-level maneuvers?

A

The helicopter is conducting low-level maneuvers just east of the golf course and is operating below radar coverage.

217
Q

What is the location of the floatplane mentioned in the traffic information?

A

The floatplane has just called for takeoff from the river south of the March Airport.

218
Q

What is the traffic situation regarding non-transponder aircraft in the circuit?

A

There are non-transponder aircraft in the circuit for runway zero-nine.

219
Q

When is it necessary to pass traffic information to pilots?

A

It is necessary to pass traffic information when conflicting aircraft are identified even if separation techniques are being applied though there is no clearly defined standard for this.

220
Q

What should be considered regarding traffic in the circuit?

A

Traffic in the circuit must be monitored closely especially non-transponder aircraft and appropriate traffic information must be communicated to ensure safety.

221
Q

How far is the helicopter conducting low-level operations from the golf course?

A

The helicopter is operating approximately one mile east of the golf course.

222
Q

What altitude is the Cessna 180 flying at?

A

The Cessna 180 is flying at an altitude of four thousand five hundred feet.

223
Q

What directional heading is the King Air flying?

A

The King Air is flying westbound.

224
Q

What aviation term refers to the navigation reference point mentioned in the traffic communications?

A

The navigational reference point mentioned is the VOR which stands for Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range.

225
Q

What is the implication of low-level maneuvers below radar coverage?

A

Pilots and air traffic controllers need to be aware that helicopters conducting low-level maneuvers may not be visible on radar increasing the risk of potential conflicts with other aircraft.

226
Q

What is the minimum distance at which March Tower must pass traffic when aircraft paths converge or are likely to cross?

A

1 mile or less.

227
Q

What is the minimum vertical distance at which traffic must be passed when aircraft paths converge according to March Tower guidelines?

A

500 feet or less.

228
Q

What is the primary goal of March Tower when passing traffic to pilots?

A

To promptly relay traffic information as soon as it becomes reasonably likely that the pilots could spot each other.

229
Q

What document governs the operations of March Tower in terms of passing traffic?

A

March UOM (Unit Operations Manual) and its Appendices Ops Directive.

230
Q

What complaints have been received regarding traffic information at March Tower?

A

Insufficient traffic information has been passed to VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) aircraft operating in the control zone.

231
Q

What does MATS stand for in relation to traffic management?

A

MATS stands for the Manual of Air Traffic Services.

232
Q

What is one of the key responsibilities of March Tower controllers related to traffic management?

A

Keep aircraft informed of pertinent airport traffic and provide position and traffic information to all concerned aircraft.

233
Q

What type of airspace do March Tower controllers have the responsibility to provide traffic information to pilots of VFR aircraft?

A

Class C and D airspace and as far as practical in Class E airspace.

234
Q

What is the purpose of providing traffic information to pilots of VFR aircraft?

A

To assist them in establishing visual separation from other aircraft.

235
Q

What is the role of March UOM Appendices Ops Directive in traffic management?

A

It outlines the procedures and requirements for passing traffic and managing air traffic in March Tower’s control zone.

236
Q

What are the types of flights that require traffic information to be passed according to March Tower’s complaints review?

A

Both VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) aircraft.

237
Q

What does visual separation refer to in air traffic management?

A

Visual separation refers to a method of managing air traffic where pilots maintain visual awareness of other aircraft to avoid collisions.

238
Q

Why is it important for March Tower to pass traffic promptly?

A

To enhance safety by ensuring that pilots are aware of the location of other aircraft they may encounter facilitating better decision-making.

239
Q

What is the minimum separation distance for two aircraft that will pass within close proximity?

A

Two aircraft will pass within 1 mile horizontally or 500 feet vertically unless their paths diverge clearly.

240
Q

Under what circumstances may a pilot request traffic information?

A

A pilot may observe traffic they deem relevant enough to ask for traffic information.

241
Q

What is an acceptable method for passing traffic information when sequencing arriving aircraft?

A

Sequencing an arriving aircraft is an acceptable method for passing traffic information.

242
Q

Why is the timing of passing traffic information crucial to pilots?

A

The ideal time to pass traffic may depend on several factors such as the closing speed of the aircraft; head-to-head traffic closes faster and is harder for pilots to see.

243
Q

How does closing speed impact the timing of traffic information?

A

The faster the closing speed between aircraft the less time the pilot has to react which may lead to passing traffic information earlier.

244
Q

What problem may arise from passing traffic information too soon?

A

If traffic is passed too soon the pilot may not be able to visually locate the other aircraft which could necessitate passing the information a second or even third time.

245
Q

What is the normal protocol for passing traffic information as two aircraft approach each other?

A

Traffic will normally be passed continuously until both aircraft are visually acquired and the situation is clear.

246
Q

What visual cues may indicate that two aircraft are not in conflict?

A

Diverging tracks or appropriate positions in the circuit pattern can indicate that the targets will not conflict.

247
Q

What is the general rule for passing traffic information between aircraft?

A

Traffic information is typically passed both ways between involved aircraft unless there is a clear reason not to do so.

248
Q

If Aircraft A is informed about Aircraft B what is generally expected regarding communication?

A

If Aircraft A is informed about Aircraft B it is generally expected that Aircraft B will also be informed about Aircraft A.

249
Q

What is an exception to the general rule of passing traffic information?

A

An exception may occur when Aircraft A is informed about traffic at their 12 o’clock position while Aircraft B is required to look at their 6 o’clock position which can be difficult or virtually impossible.

250
Q

What should a controller do if neither aircraft reports having traffic in sight?

A

If neither aircraft reports having traffic in sight the controller can issue an updated traffic position to aid the pilots in locating each other.

251
Q

Provide an example of a traffic advisory from a controller.

A

Example: TRAFFIC NOW TEN OCLOCK ONE MILE NORTH BOUND CHEROKEE TWO THOUSAND FEET.

252
Q

What does the expression ‘traffic in sight’ indicate in aviation communication?

A

The expression ‘traffic in sight’ is used by a pilot to inform the controller that they have visually spotted the traffic that was previously passed to them.

253
Q

What can a controller request from a pilot regarding traffic visibility?

A

A controller can request that the pilot report when their traffic is located visually.

254
Q

Why is it important to pass traffic information between aircraft?

A

It is important to pass traffic information to maintain safety prevent collisions and enhance situational awareness for pilots.

255
Q

What are some challenges of passing traffic information?

A

Challenges may include the difficulty of visualizing traffic positions accurately particularly if one aircraft is required to look behind them (6 o’clock) while another is focused ahead (12 o’clock).

256
Q

How can updated traffic positions help pilots?

A

Updated traffic positions can help pilots locate each other more effectively especially when visual identification has not been established.

257
Q

What is necessary for visual separation between aircraft according to the pilots?

A

The pilot’s confirmation is necessary to consider aircraft visually separated.

258
Q

What term is included in the sequencing issued by air traffic control?

A

The term ‘FOLLOW’ is included in the sequencing issued by air traffic control along with a wake turbulence cautionary if applicable.

259
Q

What do pilots need to communicate to the tower after being issued a sequence?

A

Pilots must advise the tower whether they have the preceding traffic in sight or not.

260
Q

Why is visual separation not relied upon exclusively by air traffic control?

A

Visual separation is not relied upon exclusively because pilots may sometimes not be able to spot their traffic; therefore it is used in conjunction with other methods of conflict resolution to ensure separation.

261
Q

What does EO 401.2 require air traffic controllers to provide?

A

EO 401.2 requires air traffic controllers to provide traffic information.

262
Q

What is the scope of traffic information passed by air traffic controllers?

A

Traffic information is not limited to aircraft located in the control zone; controllers regularly pass traffic information for aircraft outside the zone.

263
Q

What factors should be considered for traffic outside of the control zone?

A

Factors such as performance whether traffic is identified or unidentified and intentions known or unknown should be considered for traffic outside of the control zone.

264
Q

What is the primary purpose of issuing traffic warnings to pilots?

A

The primary purpose of issuing traffic warnings is to ensure safety and separation between aircraft by informing pilots of other traffic in their vicinity.

265
Q

How do air traffic controllers verify visual separation?

A

Air traffic controllers verify visual separation through pilot confirmation ensuring that pilots are aware of and can see other aircraft.

266
Q

What does the term ‘wake turbulence cautionary’ refer to?

A

The ‘wake turbulence cautionary’ refers to a warning issued by air traffic control regarding the potential for wake turbulence created by preceding aircraft.

267
Q

What methods are used alongside visual separation to ensure aircraft separation?

A

Alongside visual separation other methods of conflict resolution such as radar separation and standard operating procedures are used to ensure safe separation of aircraft.

268
Q

What is the primary responsibility of air traffic controllers regarding aircraft in their area?

A

Air traffic controllers are responsible for providing control services and traffic advisories within their area of responsibility ensuring safe separation between aircraft.

269
Q

What is the main limitation when communicating with Aircraft A regarding Aircraft B?

A

Controllers cannot provide control instructions to Aircraft A regarding Aircraft B if the situation falls outside their area of responsibility as they may not be aware of Aircraft B’s intentions.

270
Q

What is the risk of issuing control instructions to Aircraft A without knowing Aircraft B’s intentions?

A

Issuing control instructions without knowledge of Aircraft B’s intentions could amplify a potential conflict instead of resolving it.

271
Q

When is it appropriate to provide traffic services to aircraft?

A

Traffic services should be provided whenever possible as long as they do not detract from the normal control service being provided within the zone.

272
Q

What is the significance of the ATS surveillance coverage for flight information services?

A

Flight information services can be provided within any airspace covered by ATS surveillance provided the displayed information is deemed adequate.

273
Q

Is it necessary to inform a pilot about the reasons for not providing or discontinuing flight services?

A

No it is not necessary to inform a pilot of the reasons for not providing or for discontinuing flight information services.

274
Q

What is the MATS Tower Flight Information Service Excerpt?

A

The MATS Tower Flight Information Service Excerpt outlines the procedures and guidelines for providing flight information services using ATS surveillance equipment within controlled airspace.

275
Q

What constitutes a conflict in air traffic control?

A

A conflict in air traffic control occurs when two or more aircraft have the potential to come into each other’s flight paths without adequate separation leading to a possible collision.

276
Q

What are the two main roles of air traffic control personnel regarding aircraft?

A

The two main roles are to provide control services to maintain safe separation and to offer traffic advisories to assist pilots in visualizing and avoiding potential conflicts.

277
Q

Why is situational awareness crucial for air traffic controllers?

A

Situational awareness is crucial as it helps controllers make informed decisions based on the intentions and positions of all aircraft in their jurisdiction thus enhancing safety.

278
Q

What equipment can ATS personnel use to assist in providing flight information services?

A

ATS personnel can use ATS surveillance equipment such as radar or satellite systems to monitor and provide relevant information about aircraft movements.

279
Q

What does MATS stand for and what is its purpose in air traffic control?

A

MATS stands for Manual of Air Traffic Services. It provides guidelines and procedures for air traffic controllers to ensure safe and efficient air traffic management.

280
Q

What should controllers provide to IFR aircraft operating outside controlled airspace?

A

Controllers should provide Traffic Information and Collision Hazard Information to IFR aircraft operating outside controlled airspace.

281
Q

What does collision hazard information include?

A

Collision hazard information includes only known aircraft and may be based on data of doubtful accuracy. It is important to note that ATC is not responsible for providing this information at all times or for its accuracy.

282
Q

What should controllers do if a pilot receives collision hazard information?

A

Controllers should ask the pilot who received the collision hazard information to inform them of any evasive action taken and then provide this information to other aircraft.

283
Q

What is the procedure for indicating the type of aircraft when unknown?

A

When the type of aircraft is unknown controllers can use terms such as ‘TYPE UNKNOWN’ ‘SLOW’ or ‘FAST MOVING’.

284
Q

What is the status of the altitude of an aircraft that is not on the controller’s frequency?

A

The altitude of an aircraft that is not on the controller’s frequency is always considered UNVERIFIED.

285
Q

What does the term ‘YTM’ refer to in traffic calls?

A

‘YTM’ refers to ‘Your Traffic Management’ and is used in communication to indicate the specific issuance of traffic information.

286
Q

How are traffic position calls structured in terms of clock positions?

A

Traffic position calls should indicate the position of the traffic relative to the aircraft using terms such as ‘TRAFFIC ELEVEN O’CLOCK’ ‘THREE O’CLOCK’ etc. to specify the direction.

287
Q

What is the role of air traffic controllers when monitoring IFR aircraft outside controlled airspace?

A

The role of air traffic controllers in this context includes monitoring the aircraft providing collision hazard information and facilitating communication between aircraft to ensure safety.

288
Q

Is ATC responsible for the accuracy of collision hazard information?

A

No ATC is not responsible for providing collision hazard information at all times nor for the accuracy of the information provided.

289
Q

What is the definition of ‘UNVERIFIED’ in the context of air traffic control?

A

The term ‘UNVERIFIED’ must be used if traffic outside the zone is in an airspace under the jurisdiction of another controller such as Terminal.

290
Q

When can an aircraft’s altitude be considered valid despite being identified previously as ‘UNVERIFIED’?

A

An aircraft’s altitude can be considered valid if the controller confirms the altitude via verbal confirmation over the hot line confirms it during a handoff or if it is a previously identified aircraft that has exited the airspace.

291
Q

What are the two conditions under which altitude readouts from another controller can be used?

A

Altitude readouts from another controller can be used if either of the following applies: (1) The other controller has confirmed the aircraft’s altitude. (2) On handoff the transferring controller does not inform you that an aircraft’s altitude readout is invalid or not validated.

292
Q

What are the limitations regarding the use of altitude readouts based on site altimeter settings?

A

Do not use altitude readouts when the site altimeter setting for the geographic region is below 26.00 or above 33.00.

293
Q

What should be done if traffic is only verified outside the controller’s jurisdiction?

A

If traffic is only verified outside the jurisdiction it should be noted as ‘UNVERIFIED’ and careful consideration should be made before proceeding with any actions reliant on that data.

294
Q

What is the MATS Directive on altitude readouts that are not validated?

A

The MATS directive specifies that altitude readouts should not be assumed valid unless confirmed by the controlling authority or otherwise indicated by the transferring controller.

295
Q

Explain the importance of verbal confirmation over the hot line in the context of altitude verification.

A

Verbal confirmation over the hot line is critical as it provides a method to validate an aircraft’s altitude in real-time allowing controllers to ensure accurate and safe management of air traffic.

296
Q

How does the fact that an aircraft previously exited a controller’s airspace affect altitude validation?

A

If an aircraft previously identified by a controller exits the airspace and then reappears its altitude can be considered valid based on prior identification provided it still adheres to the necessary confirmation protocols.

297
Q

What does a primary radar detect regarding traffic information?

A

Primary radar primarily detects aircraft and provides limited traffic information. It cannot determine if an unlinked PPS (Position Posts Symbol) commonly called a splat indicates an actual conflict. Controllers are recommended to communicate available information regardless.

298
Q

What is an example of how to relay traffic information to pilots?

A

An example of traffic information is: ‘HUN TRAFFIC TWO OCLOCK TWO MILES SOUTHBOUND TYPE AND ALTITUDE UNKNOWN.’ This indicates the relative position and direction of the detected traffic.

299
Q

How might controller communications change during the bird migration season?

A

During the bird migration season controllers may add comments about the possibility of birds that appear on the situational display. This helps to clarify to pilots that what they see might not be an aircraft.

300
Q

What visual cue is referred to as ‘chickens feet’ in radar terminology?

A

In radar terminology ‘chickens feet’ refers to the appearance of birds detected by the radar. This term emphasizes the unique shape bird targets can create on the radar display.

301
Q

When are birds detected by radar?

A

Birds are detected by radar only if the radar site has a Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) capability.

302
Q

What is an appropriate example of traffic information regarding birds detected on radar?

A

An appropriate example would be: ‘ADW TRAFFIC TWELVE OCLOCK THREE MILES OPPOSITE DIRECTION TYPE AND ALTITUDE UNKNOWN POSSIBLY BIRDS.’ This indicates the position and potential nature of the traffic to the pilots.

303
Q

What should controllers remember after passing traffic information to an aircraft?

A

Controllers must inform the aircraft when it is clear of the previously passed traffic especially if the aircraft did not report sighting the traffic. This is essential in both uncontrolled and controlled airspace.

304
Q

What is EO 401.2 in the context of providing traffic information?

A

EO 401.2 refers to the Objective Element for learning to Provide Traffic Information as part of the training in the Basic Airport Control Course. It underlines the importance of effectively communicating traffic information to pilots.

305
Q

What is the focus of EO 401.2 in the Traffic Basic Airport Control Course?

A

EO 401.2 focuses on providing traffic information as part of the fundamental skills needed for airport control.

306
Q

What does EO 401.3 entail in the context of traffic management?

A

EO 401.3 entails applying separation techniques necessary for maintaining safe distances between aircraft in controlled airspace.

307
Q

Why is traffic information not always sufficient for maintaining visual separation?

A

Traffic information may not be sufficient due to varied complexities in traffic situations that require more advanced techniques to establish safe separation.

308
Q

List some complex separation techniques mentioned in the document.

A

Complex separation techniques include vectoring speed control circuit manipulation restrictions and orbiting manoeuvres.

309
Q

What is the concept of target resolution in air traffic management?

A

Target resolution refers to the application of specific conditions and techniques to ensure safe separation and management of air traffic under surveillance.

310
Q

What are the conditions mentioned for applying ATS surveillance separation?

A

The conditions for applying ATS surveillance separation include ensuring that both aircraft are identified and that the air traffic controller is in direct control.

311
Q

What does NARDS stand for in the context of air traffic control?

A

NARDS stands for an operationally certified ATS surveillance display system used for applying the appropriate separation minima.

312
Q

How does NARDS interact with SiT MATS Tower Separation?

A

In this context NARDS is synonymous with SiT MATS Tower Separation indicating both systems are utilized for managing air traffic separation.

313
Q

What is the importance of identifying both aircraft when applying separation techniques?

A

Identifying both aircraft is crucial to ensure accurate monitoring and application of separation techniques to prevent mid-air collisions.

314
Q

What role does vectoring play in traffic separation?

A

Vectoring involves providing specific headings to aircraft to maintain safe distances and avoid potential collisions effectively.

315
Q

Explain the significance of speed control in maintaining separation between aircraft.

A

Speed control allows air traffic controllers to adjust the speed of one or both aircraft to ensure safe distances are maintained particularly in busy airspace.

316
Q

What is the purpose of circuit manipulation in air traffic control?

A

Circuit manipulation refers to altering the flight path of aircraft within the traffic circuit to maintain safe spacing and avoid congestion.

317
Q

Can you describe what orbiting maneuvers entail in the air traffic management context?

A

Orbiting maneuvers involve directing an aircraft to fly in a circular path to create spacing between itself and another aircraft thereby ensuring safe separation.

318
Q

What is VHF/UHF voice communication used for in aviation?

A

VHF (Very High Frequency) and UHF (Ultra High Frequency) voice communication are used in aviation for air traffic control (ATC) communications allowing pilots to communicate with air traffic controllers and with other aircraft.

319
Q

What should not happen between PPSs during air traffic service?

A

PPSs (Position Point Symbols) should not touch unless applying target resolution.

320
Q

What is the ATS surveillance separation requirement when using PPSs?

A

When applying ATS (Air Traffic Service) surveillance separation a separation standard is required based on the centres of PPSs as indicated in ATS Surveillance Separation Conditions.

321
Q

What is the purpose of wake turbulence separation standards in ATS surveillance control?

A

Wake turbulence separation standards in ATS surveillance control are required to prevent wake turbulence from one aircraft affecting the performance and safety of another aircraft.

322
Q

Describe the IFR Departures Before Arrivals separation minima for different runway configurations.

A

The minima indicated in IFR Departures Before Arrivals for Same Runway Intersecting Runways and Interacting Runways can supersede those established in ATS Surveillance Separation Conditions when separating a departing aircraft from an arriving aircraft.

323
Q

What is one key difference in separation criteria between target resolution and one-mile PPS separation?

A

One key difference is that target resolution can be used for aircraft that are 3000 feet or less AAE (Above Aerodrome Elevation) while one-mile PPS separation has different criteria.

324
Q

What are altitude readouts used for in the context of air traffic separation?

A

Altitude readouts are used to help determine the vertical position of aircraft and ensure adequate separation between them during both departure and arrival phases in air traffic management.

325
Q

What does AAE stand for in aviation separation criteria?

A

AAE stands for Above Aerodrome Elevation which is a reference used in determining altitude levels for aircraft.

326
Q

Why is it important to maintain separation standards in aviation?

A

Maintaining separation standards in aviation is crucial for preventing collisions ensuring safe distances between aircraft during takeoff landing and while in flight and managing wake turbulence.

327
Q

What is the criteria required to apply ATS surveillance separation to aircraft?

A

The criteria include the use of target resolution when applicable maintaining safe distances as per ATS Surveillance Separation Conditions and applying separation minima specific to the runway and flight operations involved.

328
Q

What actions should controllers take when dealing with departing and arriving aircraft?

A

Controllers should apply appropriate separation minima based on the specific type of runways in use and ensure compliance with ATS surveillance separation standards to maintain safety.

329
Q

What is a distinguishing feature in aircraft surveillance?

A

The distance the aircraft are from the surveillance site.

330
Q

What criteria must be met to apply target resolution in aircraft surveillance?

A

The criteria are specified in EO 401.3 which includes conditions such as at least one of the aircraft being VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and using ATS surveillance sources.

331
Q

What is the maximum display range of NARDS?

A

NARDS displays a maximum range of 60 miles from left to right.

332
Q

What are the ATS surveillance sources mentioned?

A

The ATS surveillance sources include MLAT (Multi-lateration) WAM (Wide Area Multilateration) DND-NG (Department of National Defense - Next Generation) or RSE (Radar Surveillance Equipment) but do not include DND-NWS.

333
Q

What are the conditions for aircraft in ATS surveillance separation?

A

Conditions for ATS surveillance separation include: minimum distance size of PPS (Primary Position Symbol) and altitude readouts. Specifically: Any one aircraft must be VFR the PPS must be size 2 or larger altitude readouts must be displayed for both aircraft or the aircraft must be 3000 feet or less above airport elevation and both aircraft must be 60 miles or less from the ATS surveillance source.

334
Q

What is the requirement for target resolution in aircraft separation?

A

Ensure that the PPSs do not touch.

335
Q

What tools help controllers determine aircraft separation in the situational display?

A

The situational display provides various tools that assist controllers in determining aircraft separation.

336
Q

What does MATS stand for in the context of tower separation?

A

MATS stands for the Manual of Air Traffic Services.

337
Q

In the context of MATS Tower Separation what is the importance of aircraft altitude readouts?

A

Altitude readouts are essential because they help ensure safe separation between aircraft particularly when they are operating in close proximity.

338
Q

What is the significance of the size of the PPS (Primary Position Symbol) in aircraft surveillance?

A

The size of the PPS helps identify the type of aircraft and ensures adequate separation; size 2 or larger must be displayed for effective surveillance.

339
Q

How do controllers apply separation techniques in air traffic control?

A

Controllers apply separation techniques by utilizing information from various surveillance sources to maintain a safe distance between aircraft and ensuring compliance with regulations.

340
Q

What does VFR stand for in aviation?

A

VFR stands for Visual Flight Rules which allows pilots to fly by visual reference to the ground and other landmarks.

341
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference allowed for two aircraft to meet the target resolution conditions?

A

Both aircraft must be no more than 3000 feet above airport elevations.

342
Q

What is the Range Bearing Line (RBL) used for in air traffic control?

A

The Range Bearing Line (RBL) is used to assist in determining the separation between Protected Airspaces (PPSs). It provides distances that are measured from center to center of the PPSs.

343
Q

What is the Halo function and how is it utilized in air traffic control?

A

The Halo function is used alongside the Range Bearing Line to ensure separation between PPSs. The radius of the halo is user-selectable and does not vary with range.

344
Q

What is the significance of the user-selectable radius of the halo?

A

The user-selectable radius of the halo allows air traffic controllers to customize the separation distance between PPSs according to operational requirements enhancing situational awareness and safety.

345
Q

What are proactive techniques in air traffic management?

A

Proactive techniques are methods that ensure separation between aircraft without requiring continuous traffic surveillance allowing controllers to manage workload effectively especially when conditions make timely traffic information dissemination challenging.

346
Q

What must controllers consider when issuing instructions to pilots?

A

Controllers must take into account the time required to issue instructions and the time required for the pilot to perform those instructions ensuring that separation is maintained.

347
Q

What is vectoring in air traffic control?

A

Vectoring is a technique used by air traffic controllers to assign specific compass headings or vectors to aircraft in order to ensure safe separation and facilitate efficient traffic management.

348
Q

Under what condition can air traffic controllers give vectors to aircraft?

A

Air traffic controllers can only provide vectors when the aircraft is positively identified ensuring that instructions are given to the correct aircraft.

349
Q

What does EO 401.3 pertain to in relation to air traffic control?

A

EO 401.3 pertains to the application of separation techniques within air traffic management emphasizing the importance of ensuring safe distances between aircraft.

350
Q

Why is maintaining separation important in air traffic control?

A

Maintaining separation is crucial for preventing collisions between aircraft ensuring safety in the airspace and managing aircraft efficiently.

351
Q

How does the Range Bearing Line contribute to traffic management?

A

The Range Bearing Line contributes to traffic management by providing clear distance metrics that help controllers assess and maintain safe separation between various aircraft.

352
Q

What is a vector in air traffic control?

A

A heading given by a controller to a pilot to provide navigational guidance.

353
Q

Under what conditions can a controller provide vectoring according to MATS?

A
  1. It is necessary for separation. 2. It is required for noise abatement procedures. 3. You or the aircraft will gain an operational advantage. 4. The pilot requests it.
354
Q

What are the functions PTL RBL and PIV used for in the context of vectoring?

A

These functions may be used to determine that a turn has been initiated.

355
Q

What are some reasons for vectoring aircraft?

A

Vectoring can be applied to maintain separation between aircraft and defined airspace (like CYRs or overflight-prohibited areas) or for noise abatement. Most often it is used to separate two aircraft.

356
Q

What must be authorized for airport controllers to use vectoring?

A

Service provision must be authorized in the unit’s surveillance procedures.

357
Q

What is the definition of VFR aircraft?

A

VFR (Visual Flight Rules) aircraft are those that operate under visual flight rules meaning they navigate using visual references outside the cockpit.

358
Q

Can VFR aircraft be vectored? If so under what conditions?

A

Yes VFR aircraft can be vectored. However specific conditions and procedures need to be followed as outlined by MATS.

359
Q

What is the main purpose of vectoring between two aircraft?

A

The main purpose of vectoring between two aircraft is to ensure separation preventing collisions and maintaining safe distances.

360
Q

Give an example of when vectoring may be required for noise abatement.

A

Vectoring may be required for noise abatement when an aircraft needs to be rerouted away from residential areas or sensitive locations to minimize noise disturbance to the population.

361
Q

What is CYR in air traffic control terms?

A

CYR refers to a Restricted Area in Canadian airspace which denotes areas where aircraft are prohibited from flying without special authorization.

362
Q

What does MATS stand for?

A

MATS stands for the Manual of Air Traffic Services.

363
Q

Why is it important for air traffic controllers to provide vectors?

A

Providing vectors is essential for maintaining safe separation between aircraft managing airspace efficiently and handling unexpected situations such as weather changes or emergencies.

364
Q

What does the acronym ATS stand for in the context of air traffic control?

A

ATS stands for Air Traffic Services.

365
Q

What does MATS state regarding the vectoring of VFR aircraft in controlled airspace?

A

According to MATS Tower ATS Surveillance Vectoring VFR aircraft can be vectored within the controlled zone or a TRA to provide navigational assistance establish visual separation or establish an approach sequence if certain conditions are met.

366
Q

What are the conditions under which a controller may vector a VFR aircraft?

A

A controller may vector a VFR aircraft when: 1) The pilot requests it 2) The controller suggests it and the pilot accepts or 3) The controller considers it necessary for flight safety.

367
Q

What caution must be observed when issuing headings or assigning altitudes to VFR aircraft?

A

Controllers must use caution when issuing headings or assigning altitudes to VFR aircraft ensuring the safety and awareness of the aircraft’s surroundings.

368
Q

What is the rule regarding vectoring or assigning altitudes to SVFR aircraft?

A

Controllers should not vector or assign an altitude to a Special VFR (SVFR) aircraft.

369
Q

What responsibilities does a pilot of a VFR aircraft maintain when accepting vectors?

A

When accepting vectors the pilot of a VFR aircraft is still responsible for: 1) Avoiding other aircraft 2) Avoiding flight in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and 3) Maintaining adequate obstacle clearance.

370
Q

Who is responsible for obstacle clearance when issuing vectors to VFR aircraft?

A

While the controller is not responsible for VFR aircraft obstacle clearance when issuing vectors this responsibility legally falls to the pilot.

371
Q

What does EO 401.3 entail with regards to vectoring VFR aircraft?

A

EO 401.3 discusses applying separation techniques while vectoring VFR aircraft in controlled airspace.

372
Q

What is a TRA in the context of VFR aircraft vectoring?

A

A TRA is a Temporary Reserved Airspace where VFR aircraft may be vectored for navigational assistance or separation.

373
Q

What does the term ‘visual separation’ refer to in air traffic control?

A

Visual separation is a technique used to maintain a safe distance between aircraft in controlled airspace relying on the pilots’ ability to see and avoid each other.

374
Q

What is the difference between VFR and SVFR aircraft?

A

VFR (Visual Flight Rules) aircraft operate under visual conditions and maintain their own separation while SVFR (Special VFR) aircraft operate under specific conditions that allow them to fly in less than the standard VFR weather minima following additional regulations.

375
Q

What must the controller be aware of before assigning a heading to an aircraft?

A

The controller must ensure that the aircraft has sufficient altitude to safely execute the assigned heading. Failure to do so may require the pilot to climb or reject the vector.

376
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining adequate clearance from obstacles and terrain during VFR flights being vectored by ATC?

A

The pilot of a VFR aircraft is responsible for maintaining adequate clearance from obstacles and terrain when being vectored by ATC.

377
Q

What action must a pilot take if they cannot maintain adequate obstacle or terrain clearance on a vector?

A

The pilot must inform the controller and take one of the following actions: 1. If practicable obtain a heading that will enable adequate clearance to be maintained or climb to a suitable altitude; or 2. Revert to navigation without ATS surveillance assistance.

378
Q

What does vectoring not exempt a VFR pilot from?

A

Vectoring does not exempt the pilot of a VFR aircraft from the responsibility of avoiding other aircraft and remaining in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).

379
Q

What is covered under TC AIM RAC 1.5.5 regarding VFR flights?

A

TC AIM RAC 1.5.5 discusses obstacle clearance during vectors for VFR flights and the responsibilities of the pilot in maintaining adequate clearance from obstacles and terrain.

380
Q

What is the primary responsibility of a pilot during VFR flights according to TC AIM RAC 1.5.4?

A

According to TC AIM RAC 1.5.4 the primary responsibility of the pilot during VFR flights is to avoid other traffic.

381
Q

What should a pilot do if a vector leads a VFR flight into IFR weather conditions?

A

The pilot must inform the controller and take the following actions: a) If practicable obtain a vector which will allow the flight to remain in VFR weather conditions; b) If an alternative vector is not practicable revert to navigation without assistance; c) If the pilot has an IFR rating and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight the pilot may file an IFR flight plan and request an IFR clearance.

382
Q

What are the minimum requirements for a flight to be classified as VFR?

A

VFR (Visual Flight Rules) conditions typically require visibility of at least 3 statute miles and a cloud ceiling of at least 1000 feet above ground level (AGL). These minima can vary based on the airspace classification.

383
Q

What does SVFR stand for and under what conditions can it be used?

A

SVFR stands for Special Visual Flight Rules. These rules allow a pilot to operate an aircraft in weather conditions below VFR minima typically in controlled airspace provided that they use visual references to maintain separation from terrain and obstacles.

384
Q

What is the protocol for providing navigation assistance to SVFR pilots?

A

When providing navigation assistance to SVFR pilots controllers should give position information relative to the airport but do not vector issue a heading to or assign an altitude to a pilot of an SVFR aircraft.

385
Q

What does MATS stand for and how is it relevant to VFR and SVFR procedures?

A

MATS stands for the ‘Military Air Traffic Services’. It provides guidelines and procedures for air traffic controllers including protocols for managing VFR and SVFR flight operations especially concerning visibility minima.

386
Q

What is vectoring with respect to IFR aircraft?

A

Vectoring refers to the practice of providing specific headings to IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) aircraft to ensure safe separation and efficient traffic flow in controlled airspace.

387
Q

Why is vectoring IFR aircraft considered exceptional?

A

Vectoring IFR aircraft is considered exceptional due to the limitations surrounding airspace management traffic density and safety concerns that necessitate such procedures only under certain conditions.

388
Q

What must a pilot do if they cannot safely remain in VFR weather conditions during a VFR flight?

A

If a pilot cannot safely remain in VFR weather conditions during a VFR flight they must inform the controller and either obtain an alternate vector to stay in VFR revert to navigation without assistance or if qualified and equipped file an IFR flight plan and request an IFR clearance.

389
Q

What are the consequences of flying under VFR in weather conditions below the VFR minima?

A

Flying under VFR in conditions below the VFR minima can lead to loss of visual reference increased risk of collision and may result in regulatory penalties or airspace violation consequences.

390
Q

What actions are appropriate if a pilot is flying in VFR conditions but appears to be heading toward IFR weather?

A

The appropriate action for a pilot in VFR conditions heading into IFR weather is to communicate with Air Traffic Control for assistance in modifying the flight path and potentially obtaining a vector back into VFR conditions.

391
Q

How should pilots manage their flight if they have both VFR and IFR ratings while flying under VFR?

A

Pilots with both VFR and IFR ratings should maintain awareness of their surrounding weather conditions and airspace regulations and if they find themselves entering IFR weather they can file an IFR flight plan and request IFR clearance if the aircraft is equipped for IFR operations.

392
Q

What is the protocol for vectoring IFR aircraft within a control zone according to MATS?

A

IFR aircraft may be vectored within a control zone if responsibility for control has been transferred to the tower. This can occur under the following circumstances: 1. The pilot requests it. 2. The controller suggests it and the pilot accepts. 3. The controller considers it necessary for flight safety.

393
Q

Can aircraft established on STARs or SIDs be vectored? Why or why not?

A

Aircraft established on Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) or Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) should not be vectored even if they are on the tower’s frequency and under its control. This is because vectoring can interrupt the pilots’ planned approach or departure which is rare and not advisable.

394
Q

What does MATS suggest regarding aircraft navigation on SIDs STARs and RNAV routes?

A

MATS suggests that aircraft operating on Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) and Area Navigation (RNAV) routes should be allowed to conduct their own navigation to the extent possible.

395
Q

In what scenarios can a controller suggest vectoring to a pilot?

A

A controller can suggest vectoring to a pilot if: 1. The pilot explicitly requests it. 2. The controller deems it necessary for safety. 3. The pilot accepts the suggestion.

396
Q

What is the potential downside of vectoring aircraft on STARs or SIDs?

A

The potential downside of vectoring aircraft on STARs or SIDs is that it can interrupt the intended flight plan of the pilot affecting their approach or departure sequences.

397
Q

What authority does the MATS document grant to the tower regarding IFR aircraft vectoring?

A

MATS grants the tower the authority to vector IFR aircraft within the control zone once control responsibility has been transferred emphasizing the requirement of safety and proper pilot flight plan management.