Lesson 1: Introduction to Plan Making and Implementation Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main components to the plan making process?

A
  1. goals and visions
  2. Analysis of current problems
  3. Creation and evaluation of alternatives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Survey

A

a research method that allows one to collect data on a topic that cannot be directly observed, such as opinions on downtown retailing opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sampling frame

A

The population of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cross-sectional survey

A

A cross-sectional survey gathers information about a population at a single point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

longitudinal surveys

A

Gathers information about a population over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Group-administered surveys

A

Respondents are gathered in a group, questionnaires are handed out to each and the questionnaires are completed within the group situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Probability Sampling

A

every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected into the study

GOOD FOR QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Non-probability Sampling

A

the members of the population will not have an equal chance of being selected, and in many cases, there will be members of the population who have no chance of being selected.

GOOD FOR QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

stratified sampling

A

the population is divided into separate groups or classes, from which a sample is drawn such that the classes in the population are represented by the classes in the sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cluster sample

A

where a specific target group out of the general population is sampled from, such as the elderly, or residents of a specific neighborhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nominal data

A

categories that do not have a natural order or ranking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ordinal data

A

An ordinal scale is one where the order matters but not the difference between values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Interval data

A

An interval scale is one where there is order and the difference between two values is meaningful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ratio data

A

A ratio variable, has all the properties of an interval variable, and also has a clear definition of 0.0. When the variable equals 0.0, there is none of that variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Quantitative variables

A

represent an interval or ratio measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

qualitative variables

A

represent nominal and ordinal measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discrete variables

A

are countable in a finite amount of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Continuous variables

A

can take on an infinite number of values. Example: Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

population

A

is the totality of some entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sample

A

a subset of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Descriptive Statistics

A

describe the characteristics of the distribution of values in a population or in a sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inferential Statistics

A

use probability theory to determine characteristics of a population based on observations made on a sample from that population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Distribution

A

is the overall shape of the observed data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

data range

A

difference between the highest and lowest value in a data set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gaussian distribution

A

is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean. In graph form, normal distribution will appear as a bell curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Central tendency

A

A measure of central tendency is a summary statistic that represents the center point or typical value of a dataset.

MEAN, MEDIAN, MODE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mean

A

average of a distribution. Appropriate for interval and ratio scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Median

A

middle value of a ranked distribution. Is the ONLY suitable measure of central tendency for ordinal data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mode

A

is the most frequent number in a distribution. Used for nominal data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Variance

A

The average of the squared differences from the Mean. Larger variance = greater spread (flatter distribution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Standard deviation

A

square root of the variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Linear Method

A

uses the change in population (increase or decline) over a period of time and extrapolates this change to the future, in a linear fashion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Exponential method

A

uses the RATE of growth (the % change in population over time) to estimate the current or future population.

The result is a curved line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Modified exponential method

A

Modified exponential projection assumes there is a limit to the change, and at some point the growth will slow or stop. Results in an S shape curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Symptomatic method

A

uses any available data that is indirectly related to the population size (new drivers licenses).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

step-down ration method

A

Uses the ratio between the population of a city and a county (or larger geographical unit) at a known point in time, such as the decennial census. This ratio is used to project the current or future population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Distributed Housing Unit Method

A

This method uses the Census Bureau data for the number of housing units, which is then multiplied by the occupancy rate and persons per household. This method is reliable for slow growth or stable communities but is less reliable in communities that are changing more quickly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cohort Survival Method

A

Uses the current population plus natural increase and net migration to calculate a future population. The population is calculated for men and women in specific age groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Natural increase

A

the difference between the number of children born and the number of people who die during the one-time interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Net Migration

A

The difference between the number of people moving in and the number of people moving out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Economic base analysis

A

looks at basic and non-basic economic activities. The exporting (basic) industries make up the economic base of a region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

basic activities

A

Tourism (resorts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

non-basic activities

A

Retail stores in a tourist town

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Location-Quotient (LQ

A

A ratio of an industry’s share of local employment divided by its share of the nation (or other level of government).

A ratio of less than 1 indicates that an area imports an industry’s products or services, a ratio of greater than 1 indicates exporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Shift-Share Analysis (3 components)

A
  1. National Component (share)
  2. Industry Component (mix)
  3. Regional Component (shift)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Input-output analysis

A

Quantitative method to assist in economic policy decision-making. The analysis links suppliers and purchasers to determine the economic output of a region. Identifies primary suppliers, intermediate suppliers, intermediate purchasers, & final purchasers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Acquisition Cost

A

is the total cost that a company recognizes on its books for property or equipment after adjusting for discounts, incentives, closing costs and other necessary expenditures, but before sales taxes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fair Market Value

A

is the price that an asset would sell for on the open market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)

A

is the standard used by Federal statistical agencies in classifying business establishments for the purpose of collecting, analyzing, and publishing statistical data about the U.S. economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Urbanized Area

A

an urban nucleus of 50,000 or more people. These urbanized areas may or may not contain any individual cities of 50,000 or more

MUST have a core with at least 1,000 people per square mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Urban Cluster

A

have at least 2,500 but less than 50,000 people and a population density of 1,000 per square mile

52
Q

Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA)

A

includes at least one city with at least 50,000 inhabitants.

53
Q

Micropolitan Statistical Area (MSA)

A

an urban cluster with a population of at least 10,000 but fewer than 50,000 people.

54
Q

Census Designated Place (CDP)

A

A census-designated place is a concentration of population defined by the United States Census Bureau for statistical purposes only.

55
Q

Core Based Statistical Area

A

a core area with at least 10,000 people that when combined with other adjacent communities is socially and economically integrated.

56
Q

Megalopolis

A

Jean Gottman. any many-centered, multi-city, urban area of more than 10 million inhabitants, generally dominated by low-density settlement and complex networks of economic specialization

57
Q

Census Tract

A

Has a population between 2,000 and 8,000 people

58
Q

Census Block

A

Smallest level at which census data is collected. 400 housing units per block

59
Q

Census block group

A

A group of census blocks. 600-3,000 people.

60
Q

American Community Survey (ACS)

A

takes a sample of the population and projects the findings to the population as a whole.

61
Q

Baby Boomers

A

People born in the United States between 1946 and 1964

62
Q

Generation X

A

These people were born between 1965 and 1976,

63
Q

Generation Y (aka Echo Boom or Millenials)

A

These are the children of the baby boomers. These people were born between approximately 1977 and 2000.

64
Q

Generation Z

A

These are the children born after 2000.

65
Q

Global Positioning Systems (GPS)

A

have improved the spatial accuracy of planning information. GPS allows the incorporation of the location of features and facilities into databases.

66
Q

TIGER

A

Topographically Integrated Geographical Encoding and Referencing map.

67
Q

Charrette

A

Intensive interactive problem-solving process convened around development of specific plans. Experts within & outside community.

68
Q

Delphi Method

A

Used to develop consensus between two or more groups that are in conflict. Develop goals & objectives. Group facilitation skills.

69
Q

Nominal Group Technique

A

Someone is creating a list of ideas. Duplicate solutions are deleted. Participants then rank the solutions. The rankings are then discussed. This can lead to further ideas or combinations of ideas. The solution with the highest ranking is selected.

70
Q

Facilitation

A

uses a person who does not have a direct stake in the outcome of a meeting to help groups that disagree work together to solve complex problems and come to a consensus.

71
Q

Mediation

A

a method in which a neutral third party facilitates discussion in a structured multi-stage process to help parties reach a satisfactory agreement.

72
Q

visual preference survey

A

is a technique that can be used to assist citizens in evaluating physical images of natural and built environments.

73
Q

small-scale map

A

displays a large land area with very little detail

74
Q

A large-scale map

A

shows a limited land area in great detail

75
Q

The U.S. Geological Survey

A

uses the 1:24,000 scale

76
Q

Contour lines

A

the lines of equal elevation

77
Q

contour interval

A

is the distance between contour lines.

78
Q

Slope

A

is calculated by the change in elevation divided by the horizontal distance.

79
Q

Floor Area Ratio

A

is the ratio of the gross floor area of a building to its ground area. It is used primarily to determine building density on a site; i.e., the size of a building in relation to the size of the lot where it sits.

80
Q

National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA)

A

resulted in the creation of the Council on Environmental Quality. The Act requires that the environmental impacts of a project be considered.

81
Q

Environmental Assessment

A

required to determine whether there is a significant environmental impact.

82
Q

Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)

A

Required when the results of an environmental assessment aren’t good

83
Q

Scoping

A

is often the first contact between proponents of a proposal and the public. A scoping meeting introduces both sides of an issue and engages interested parties.

84
Q

An Environmental Impact Statement typically has four sections

A
  1. Introduction, which includes a statement of the Purpose and Need of the Proposed Action;
  2. Description of the Affected Environment;
  3. Range of Alternatives to the proposed action. Alternatives are considered the “heart” of the EIS;
  4. Analysis of the environmental impacts of each of the possible alternatives.
85
Q

Cost-benefit analysis

A

estimates the total monetary value of the benefits and costs to the community of a project(s) to determine whether they should be undertaken.

86
Q

Jules Dupuit

A

conceived the cost-benefit analysis

87
Q

Federal Navigation Act of 1936

A

required that the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers undertake waterway system projects when the total benefits exceed the costs of the project.

88
Q

Net Present Value

A

shows the net monetary value of a project, discounted to today’s present value.

89
Q

Gantt Chart

A

was developed in 1917 by Charles Gantt. This chart focuses on the sequence of tasks necessary for project completion. Each task is represented as a single horizontal bar on an X-Y chart.

90
Q

Linear programming

A

project management method that attempts to find the optimum design solution for a project.

91
Q

Critical Path Method (CPM)

A

is a tool to analyze a project. The analysis results in a “critical path” through the project tasks. Each project task has a known amount of time to complete and cannot be completed before the previous one is completed.

92
Q

budget

A

is the allocation and expenditure of funds to provide service to the public. A budget serves to set spending priorities.

93
Q

operating budget

A

includes everyday expenditures of an organization, such as supplies, personnel, and maintenance of office space.

94
Q

capital budget

A

includes long-term purchases, such as a new building, recreation center, water main, or major equipment. 1 year budget.

95
Q

Capital Improvements Program (CIP)

A

is a longer range (5-7 years) look at the capital needs of a community

96
Q

Line-item Budgeting

A

Costs are categorized by specific departments

97
Q

Planning, Programming, Budgeting Systems (PPBS)

A

Combines program budgeting with short and long-term planning targets. performance measures, tracking systems.

98
Q

Zero-Base Budgeting (ZBB)

A

Zero-based budgeting is a method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified and approved for each new period.

99
Q

Special Assessments

A

allows a particular group of people to assess the cost of a public improvement.

100
Q

3 key data sources for economics

A

US Census, US Bureau Economic Analysis, Longitudinal Employer household Dynamics

101
Q

Economic Base Multiplier

A

The ratio of total activity/basic activity

102
Q

What does a negative regional shift mean?

A

growth in local employment is LESS than the growth nationally

103
Q

3 steps to statistical process

A
  1. Collect data
  2. Describe and summarize (descriptive statistics)
  3. Interpret
104
Q

What does a histogram show?

A

Shows the distribution of a variable visualized as a bar chart

105
Q

Type 1 error

A

rejecting the null hypothesis when it is correct

106
Q

Z-score

A

gives you an idea of how far from the mean a data point is. But more technically it’s a measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean a raw score is.

107
Q

T-test

A

used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two groups, which may be related in certain features

108
Q

What is a chi-squared test?

A

How well did the predicted values match observations?

109
Q

Paul Davidoff

A

Credited with creating advocacy planning.. correcting social injustices

110
Q

sherry Arrnstein

A

created ladder of citizen participation. 3 levels of participation:

  1. Non participation
  2. Token-ism
  3. Citizen Power
111
Q

Saul Alinsky

A

Motivate community engagement

112
Q

What is the significance of the Oregon Model?

A

It was an early use of community based visioning in the planning process.

113
Q

What are the two main types of E-government?

A
  1. Tools for information

2. Tools for interaction

114
Q

Regressive Tax

A

taking a larger percentage of income from low-income earners than from high-income earners

115
Q

What are two examples of local-option taxes that are not property tax?

A
  1. local sales tax

2. Individual income taxes

116
Q

A real estate investment trust

A

is a company that owns, and in most cases operates, income-producing real estate.

117
Q

What are the two kinds of bonds?

A
  1. General Obligation bonds

2. Revenue Bonds

118
Q

General Obligation Bonds

A

are usually used to fund government projects that will serve the public community. is secured by an issuing government’s pledge to use all available resources — even tax revenues — to repay holders of the bond

119
Q

Revenue Bonds

A

are supported by a specific revenue source, such as income from a toll road, hospital, or higher-education system

120
Q

Tax Increment Financing

A

TIF uses the additional property taxes paid as a result of development in the district to pay for part of the development costs.

121
Q

Business Improvement District

A

is a defined area within which businesses are required to pay an additional tax (or levy) in order to fund projects within the district’s boundaries.

122
Q

Net operating income

A

NOI equals all revenue from the property, minus all reasonably necessary operating expenses.

123
Q

What is a “cap rate”?

A

indicates the rate of return that is expected to be generated on a real estate investment property.

124
Q

Satisficing

A

is a decision-making strategy that entails searching through the available alternatives until an acceptability threshold is met.

125
Q

Herbert Simon

A

Introduced concept of satisfying

126
Q

Fiscal Impact Analysis

A

Estimates impact of a development or land use change on the costs and revenues of governmental services needed to serve the development or land use change

127
Q

Economic Impact Analysis

A

focuses on the cash flow to the private sector measured as jobs created.