Lesson 1 Inflammation And allergy Flashcards

1
Q

The acute inflammatory reaction has two main components:

A

(a) Innate non-immunological
(b) Acquired immunological

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2
Q

Summary of vascular events

A

Initial vasoconstriction to limit the spread of injury.
Reflex dilatation of small arterioles (vasodilation)
This vasodilation results in increased blood flow.
Then the blood flow along these vessels slows down leading to stasis of the blood.
The pooling of blood in the area of inflammation results in increased permeability of the post-capillary venules.
Increased vascular permeability results in exudation.

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3
Q

Complex dynamic response of tissue to damaging stimuli

A

Inflammation

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4
Q

Due to this the vascular endothelial cells swell and retract so they no longer form a complete intact internal lining

A

Anoxia
Lack of nutrient supply

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5
Q

One of the main protein to leak out

A

Fibrinogen

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6
Q

Migration process that is caused by attraction of leukocytes to chemical substances produced in the site of tissue damage

A

Chemotaxis

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7
Q

Cells involved in inflammation normally present only in tissues

A

Vascular endothelial cells
mast platelets
Tissue macrophages

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8
Q

Cells involved in inflammation that gain access into the tissue from the blood

A

Platelets
Leukocytes

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9
Q

Leukocytes are classified into

A

Polymorphonuclear (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
Mononuclear (monocytes and lymphocytes

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10
Q

During inflammation the endothelial cells of the small arterioles are “activated” to secrete:

A

Nitric oxide
Prostacyclin
Endothelin,
plasminogen activator
platelet-activating factor (PAF)
Thromboxane A2,
angiotensin II,
Several cytokines,

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11
Q

both of which induce vascular relaxation and inhibit platelet aggregation

A

Nitric oxide
Prostacyclin

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12
Q

all of which cause vasoconstriction

A

Endothelin
Plasminogen activator
Platelet activity factor
Thromboxane A2
angiotensin ll
Several cytokines

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13
Q

Function also involved in angiogenesis which occur in wound repair, chronic inflammation and cancer

A

Endothelial cells

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14
Q

Adhere to vascular endothelium only when the endothelial cells are activated

A

Neutrophils
Other migrating blood cells

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15
Q

Are characterized by having nuclei with varying shapes. Are found in circulating blood, but may migrates to sites of inflammation

A

Polymorphonuclear cells

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16
Q

have capacities similar to those of the neutrophils and in addition, release a number of potent granules constituents that can damage multicellular parasites such as worms and mites.

A

Eosinophils

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17
Q

constituents of eosinophils

A

eosinophils cationic protein
Peroxidase
Eosinophils major basic protein
Neurotoxin

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18
Q

Are similar in many aspects to mast cells

A

Basophils

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19
Q

morphologically similar to basophils, but are predominantly found in the tissues rather than in circulating blood.

A

Mast cell

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20
Q

Contains surface receptors for both immunoglobulin E and for the complement component C3a and C5a

A

Mast cells

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21
Q

Can be activated to secrete histamine (and other mediators) through stimulation of these receptors and by direct physical damage.

A

Mast cells

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22
Q

Other substances released by mast cells include:

A

(a) Heparin or (heparan)
(b) Eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
(c) Neutrophil chemotactic factor
(d) ẞ-glucoronidase
(e) Neutral proteases
(f) Superoxide dismutase
(g) Peroxidases
(h) Leukotrienes,
(i) Prostaglandins
(j) Nerve growth factor, and
(k) Some interleukins.

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23
Q

Other substances released by mast cells include:

A

(a) Heparin or (heparan)
(b) Eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
(c) Neutrophil chemotactic factor
(d) ẞ-glucoronidaseà
(e) Neutral proteases
(f) Superoxide dismutase
(g) Peroxidases
(h) Leukotrienes,
(i) Prostaglandins
(j) Nerve growth factor, and
(k) Some interleukins.

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24
Q

enter the area of inflammation at a later stage, several hours after the polymorphs. Like neutrophils, they also adhere to endothelium, and migrate into the tissue in response to specific chemotaxic substances (chemokines)

A

Monocytes

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25
aso knows as big eater
Macrophages
26
In the area of inflammation it engulf debris, dead cells and microorganisms
. macrophages
27
Involved primarily in blood coagulation, also play a role in inflammation. Also called thrombocytes, they generate thromboxane A₂ (TXA₂) and platelet-activating factor radicals, and pro-inflammatory cationic proteins. Platelet-derived growth factor contributes to the repair processes following tissue damage.
Platelets
28
During injury and inflammation , type C and Ad fibers generate what chemical mediators? That acts on receptors and stimulate the release of neuropeptides
kinin and serotonin
29
Transmit pain impulses to the central nervous system
Type C and Ad fibers
30
specialized lymphocytes that are active in non-immunological reactions. They kill target cells, such as virus-infected cells and cancer cells that lack the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules.
Natural killer cells
31
normally present in normal cells inhibit NK cells by acting on the inhibitory receptors on the NK cells themselves.
Major histocompatibility complex
32
Components of exudate
Fluid, fibrin, neutrophils, macrophages lymphocytes
33
containing salts and high concentration of proteins including immunoglobulins
Fluid
34
a high molecular weight filamentous insoluble protein.
Fibrin
35
Types of exudates
Serous Fibrinous Purulent
36
The fluid in the acute inflammatory exudates carries what?
nutrients mediators immunoglobulins.
37
may dilute or buffer any locally produced toxins
Fluids and salts
38
can diffuse into the area of inflammation to support the macrophages.
Glucose and oxygen
39
is constantly circulating to the local lymph nodes and assists in later development of a specific immune response.
Fluid
40
in the exudates may act as opsonins
Immunoglobulins
41
Responsible for body production- the humoral immune response
B cells
42
Responsible cell-mediated immune reactions
T cells
43
specialized non-T and non-B lymphoid cells that are active in non-immune innate response
Natural killer cells
44
This phase involves the production of B cells and T cells from uncommitted lymphocytes
The Induction phase of immunological response
45
It present antigenic molecules to the lymphocytes
Antigen-presenting cells
46
engulf and process the antigen and present it to uncommitted CD4+T helper lymphocytes im association with MHC
Antigen presenting cells
47
develop interleukins-2
CD4 cells
48
A cytokine which act on the same CD4+ causing proliferation, producing clones of activated T cells called THO
interleukins-2
49
Give rise to two subsets of T helper cells TH 1 and Th 2 cells
Th0
50
Produced by some Th0
II-4
51
produced by APC
II-12
52
Controls cell-mediated responses
Th1 pathway
53
Secretes macrophages-activating cytokines and other cytokines
Th1
54
Activates CD8+T cells to become cytotoxic cells that kill virally infected host cells
Interferon-gamma
55
Derived from Th2 cells inhibits Th1 function
II-4
56
controls antibody or humoral mediated response
Th2 pathway
57
derived from Th1 inhibits TH2 function
IFN-y
58
This phase involves how the cells, which are produced in the induction phase, act to eliminate antigens. This action may be antibody-mediated or cell-mediated.
The effect phase of immunological response
59
Antibodies or immunoglobulins have two functions;
To recognize and interact with specific antigens To activate one or more, the host’s defense system
60
C3a
anaphylotoxin
61
C3b
Chemotactic factor and opsonin
62
act as an opsonin, greatly facilitates phagocytosis Can form a link between a parasite (e.g. worm) and eosinophils, which are then able to damage or kill the parasite.
antibody
63
antibody that can attach to mast cells and basophils to stimulate these cells to release histamine and other inflammatory mediators
IgE
64
is implicated in certain allergic reaction.
Histamine
65
The cytokine-producing T cells also activate macrophages also produce and release what?
cytokines toxic oxygen neutral proteases complement components, eicosanoids, fibroblast stimulating factor, pyrogens (fever-inducing substances) factor that activate coagulation cascades.
66
kill extracellular microorganisms
neutral protease
67
(fever-inducing substances)
pyrogens
68
The production of this cells during first exposure to antigen greatly accelerates and makes more effective the immunological response to subsequent exposure.
Memory cells
69
are substances present in the body and act near the sites of their synthesis. They are sometimes called local hormones
Autocoids
70
Histamine is always present where?.
in damaged tissues decomposing tissue extract putrefying (decaying) ingesta rich in proteins
71
Non-mast-cell histamine is secreted by what in the stomach? .
histaminocytes
72
Non-mast-cell histamine is secreted by what in the in the brain?
histaminergic neurons
73
activates phospholipase C in the mast cell membrane, which catalyzes the breakdown of membrane phospholipids (specifically phosphatidyl inositol) resulting in the release of diacyglycerol (DAG) and inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate (ITP).
antigen-antibody complex
74
by some mechanism cause the release of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) from the intracellular stores (such as the endoplasmic reticulum), or allow calcium entry into the cytosol.
DAG and ITP
75
These drug-stimulated histamine release are not allergic in the nature since there is no involvement of an antibody.
amides, amidine, quaternary ammonium compounds, pyridinium compounds, piperidines, alkaloids, and antibiotic bases.
76
Triple response of histamine
Red spot Flare Wheal
77
is poorly absorbed from the gut, and is usually given inhalation as nebulized solution or powder.
Cromolyn sodium
78
is better absorbed than cromolyn sodium.
nedicromy
79
These xanthine derivatives are bronchodilators used in the management of attack of bronchospasm. They have positive chronotropic and inotropic effects, and mild diuretic effects.
Theophylline Aminophylline
80
enzyme that catalysis the breakdown of cyclic AMP. This action results in an increase (accumulation) of cyclic AMP, which attenuates the action of inflammation.
Phosphodiesterase
81
Drugs that inhibit microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes which may increase the serum level and the likelihood of adverse effects:
Cimetidine Allopuritol Ciprofloxacin channel blockers Erythromycin Fluconazole Cimetidine
82
Inducers of cytochrome P450 that decrease the therapeutic effect of drugs:
Phenobarbital and Phenytoin
83
By acting on specific adrenergic receptors, it causes peripheral vasoconstriction, bronchodilation and cardiac stimulation; effects that counter histamine effects.
epinephrine
84
The classical or H1 antihistamines are not as widely used in animals as in people because of two reasons:
(a) antihistamines have varying effectiveness in animals, and (b) glucocorticoids (see Lesson 2) are available and more effective
85
The classical or H1 antihistamines are not as widely used in animals as in people because of two reasons:
(a) antihistamines have varying effectiveness in animals, and (b) glucocorticoids (see Lesson 2) are available and more effective
86
The antihistamines tend to be effective when used for treatment of type I anaphylaxis, including what?
urticarial atrophy
87
e a number of physiologic role. Inhibition of COX-1 is believed to underlie the most significant “side effects” of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIs: aspirin-like drugs)
constitutive enzyme
88
Mediates most inflammatory and are antagonized by the classical anti-histwmine
H1
89
H1 agonist and selective antagonist
Histamine Mepyramine
90
Has a role in gastric acid secretion
H2
91
H2 agonist and selective antagonist
Histamine Dimaprit Cimetidine
92
H3 agonist and selective antagonist
R methyl histamine Thloperamide
93
Prevent release of histamine by inhibiting the responses of sensitized cells basophils to specific antigen
Epinephrine Theophylline Cromolyn sodium
94
Physiologically antagonized histamine effect
Epinephrine Theophylline Aminophylline
95
Anti motion sickness caused marked sedation with anti cholinergic effect cream or gel available for topical application
Diphenhydramine
96
Cream for topical application
Hystapyrrodine
97
Specific for anti motion sickness
Meclizine
98
Long acting marked sedation prominent anti-motion sickness
Promethaine
99
Has weak alpha
Promethazine
100
Cause prominent sedation
Pyrilamine
101
Has no sedation action can cause potentially fatal cardiac arrhythmia
Terfenadine
102
A nontoxic metabolite of terfenadine
Fexofemadine
103
Sedation anti cholinergic effect
Trimepraine
104
Sedation with usual doses of ataxia and convulsion when overdose
Tripelennamine