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My Exam Review 2014 > Lesson 1-7: Review Questions > Flashcards

Lesson 1-7: Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?

A. To provide the server role in the organization’s network.
B. To provide client access to the organization’s network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization’s network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization’s network.

A

A. To provide the server role in the organization’s network.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the primary subsystem on a server? (Choose ALL that apply)

A. cpu
B. usb
C. memory
D. data storage

A

A. CPU;
C. memory;
D. data storage

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding server hardware is TRUE?

A. Data temporarily stored on RAM and is lost when the computer is rebooted.
B. RAM and hard disk drives are secondary data storage devices.
C. Data stored on RAM is used to initialize the server when it boots up.
D. Data temporarily stored on ROM and is lost when the computer is rebooted.

A

A. Data temporarily stored on RAM and is lost when the computer is rebooted.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding UTP network cable?

A. The UTP network cable consists of 8 pairs of twisted wires.
B. The UTP network cable terminates in a RJ-11 connector.
C. The UTP network cable consists of 4 pairs of twisted wires.
D. The UTP network cable terminates in a USB connector.

A

C. The UTP network cable consists of 4 pairs of twisted wires.

(Unshielded Twisted Pair)

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5
Q
  1. The ______ port is currently the most common port used to connect the latest keyboard and mouse devices to server?
A. d-sub
B. ps/2
C. firewire
D. usb
E. e-sata
A

D. USB

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following provides a minimum server environment?

A. Virtualization
B. Windows PE
C. BareMetal Server
D. Server Core

A

D. Server Core

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7
Q
  1. How much RAM does a system require to run Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition?
A. 128 MB
B. 512 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 4 GB
E. 8 GB
F. 16 GB
A

B. 512 MB

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8
Q
  1. How much RAM does Windows Server 2008 R2 Foundation Edition support?
A. 8 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
A 
C. 32 GB
Maximum:
8 GB  - Foundation
32 GB - Web/Standard
2 TB - Enterprise/Datacenter
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9
Q
  1. ABC.com has sever computers running
    Windows Server 2003 SP2 32-bit Enterprise Edition, Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit Enterprise Edition, Windows Server 2008 SP1 32-bit Standard Edition, Windows Server 2008 SP1 64-bit Standard Edition and Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition.

On which of these computers can you perform an in-place upgrade to Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition?

A. All of the computers except:
Windows Server 2003 SP2 32-bit Enterprise Edition and Windows Server 2008 SP1 32-bit Standard Edition.
B. All of the computers except :
Windows Server 2003 SP2 32-bit Enterprise Edition and Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit Enterprise Edition.
C. None of the computers except:
Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit Enterprise Edition and Windows Server 2008 SP1 64-bit Standard Edition.
D. None of the computers except:
Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition.
E. None of the computers except :
Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit Enterprise Edition.

A

C. None of the computers except Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit Enterprise Edition and Windows Server 2008 SP1 64-bit Standard Edition.

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10
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to create a disk image of Windows Server 2008 R2 installation. Which of the following apps should you use?

A. You should use ImageX.
B. You should use Windows PE.
C. You should use SysPrep.
D. You should use Windows Explorer.

A

C. You should use SysPrep.

WinPE-Windows Preinstallation environment (Windows PE)

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11
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to install Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition without needing to manually enter configuration information in the GUI dialog boxes. What type of installation should you perform?

A. You should perform an unattended installation.
B. You should perform a clean installation.
C. You should perform an in-place upgrade installation.
D. You should perform a SysPrep Image deployment installation.

A

A. You should perform an unattended installation.

A unattended installation uses a Answer file (autounattend.XML)

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12
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to install Windows Server 2008 R2 in unattended mode over the LAN. Which of the following technologies would you use?

A. WDS
B. PXE
C. TCP/IP
D. SysPrep

A

A. WDS (Windows Deployment Services)

Uses Windows Imaging Format (WIM) File.

a. Boot a computer with Windows PE 2.0 or 3.0 (Windows Preinstallation Enviornment) or perform a PXE boot
b. Connect to WDS sever install Windows from a configured file

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13
Q
  1. In which of the following file formats are the installation files for Windows Server 2008 R2 stored when you perform an installation using WDS?
A. In the .wds format.
B. In the .wim format.
C. In the .exe format.
D. In the .ini format.
E. In the .bat format.
A

B. In the .wim format.

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14
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to upgrade the operating system from Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition to Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition without needing to reconfigure the server or the applications installed on it. What type of installation should you perform?

A. You should perform a clean installation.
B. You should perform an unattended installation.
C. You should perform an in-place upgrade installation.
D. You should perform a Windows Deployment Services installation.

A

C. You should perform an in-place upgrade installation.

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15
Q
  1. In order to install the latest system BIOS you need to ______ the BIOS.

A. flash
B. update
C. upgrade
D. refresh

A

A. Flash

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following allows the CPU to communicate with other system devices on the server?

A. RAM
B. BIOS
C. Front System Bus
D. South Bridge

A

C. Front System Bus

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A PSU is responsible to for converting AC power from the mains to usable DC power.
B. A PSU is responsible to for protecting a server against power fluctuations and spikes.
C. An UPS is responsible to for converting AC power from the mains to usable DC power.
D. An UPS is responsible to for converting electricity from the mains to 5 volts and 12 volts required by the server.

A

A. A PSU is responsible to for converting AC power from the mains to usable DC power.

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18
Q
  1. Where would you perform configuration changes on Windows Server 2008?

A. In the Control Panel.
B. In Administrative Tools.
C. In the UAC.
D. In System Monitor.

A

A. In the Control Panel.

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to prevent the unauthorized configuration changes of the Windows Server 2008 operating system?

A. Control Panel
B. FireWall
C. UAC
D. System Monitor

A

C. UAC

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20
Q
  1. In Windows Server 2008, where would you rename the computer?
A. In My Computer.
B. In System.
C. In Windows Explorer.
D. In Administrative Tools.
E. In Folder Options.
A

B. In System.

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21
Q
  1. In a(n) ________ user accounts are stored on each computer.
A. workgroup
B. network
C. domain
D. forest
E. enterprise
A

A. workgroup

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22
Q
  1. In a(n) ________ user accounts are stored on a centralized computer rather than on every computer in the organization.
A. workgroup
B. network
C. domain
D. forest
E. enterprise
A

C. domain

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to remotely connect to a Windows 7 computer?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Network Services
C. VPN
D. RDP
E. xRDP
A

A. Remote Desktop

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24
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to connect remotely to Windows Server 2008. How would you accomplish this task?

A. You should install and run Remote Assistance.
B. You should enable Remote Desktop in System Properties.
C. You should enable Remote Assistance in Control Panel.
D. You should enable and initialize RDC.

A

B. You should enable Remote Desktop in System Properties.

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following would you use to configure the IP address of a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer?
A. Network and Sharing Center
B. System Properties
C. My Computer
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
E. DHCP
A

A. Network and Sharing Center

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26
Q
  1. What type of network address does a server normally have?
A. An IPv4 address.
B. A static address.
C. A DHCP assigned address.
D. An IPv6 address.
E. A NetBIOS address.
A

B. A static address.

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27
Q
  1. A ______ device driver indicates that it has been tested for the operating system.

A. compatible
B. supported
C. endorsed
D. signed

A

D. signed

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding device drivers are TRUE?

A. Only signed device drivers may be installed in Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Only device drivers written by Microsoft may be installed in Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Only device drivers that are compatible with both 32-bit and 64-bit operating systems may be installed in Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Any device driver that is compatible with Windows Server 2003 may be installed in Windows Server 2008 R2.

A

A. Only signed device drivers may be installed in Windows Server 2008 R2.

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29
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to install a printer in Windows Server 2008 R2. Which Control Panel app should you use?
A. Printers and Faxes
B. Device Manager
C. Devices and Printers
D. System
E. I/O Devices
A

C. Devices and Printers

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following would you use to configure the IRQ for a Printer?

A. Device Manager
B. System Properties
C. Devices and Printers
D. Active Directory Users and Computers

A

A. Device Manager

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the Device Manager is TRUE?

A. A black down arrow indicates that the device has been enabled.
B. A black down arrow indicates that the device has been disabled.
C. A black down arrow indicates that the device is fully functional.
D. A black down arrow indicates that the device is using the latest drivers.
E. A black down arrow indicates that the device is using generic drivers.

A

B. A black down arrow indicates that the device has been disabled.

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the Device Manager is TRUE?

A. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device has been enabled.
B. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device has been disabled.
C. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device is not fully functional.
D. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device is using the latest drivers.
E. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device is using generic drivers.

A

C. A black exclamation mark on a yellow triangle indicates that the device is not fully functional.

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33
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to open the Event Viewer in Windows Server 2008 R2. Which Control Panel app should you open?
A. Folder Options
B. Device Manager
C. Accessibility Options
D. System
E. Administrative Tools
A

E. Administrative Tools

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following would you use to add the IIS role to a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer?
A. Server Manager
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. System Properties
D. Programs and Features
E. Active Directory Users and Computers
A

A. Server Manager

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for controlling a device in Windows Server 2008?
A. The device drivers.
B. The operating system (OS).
C. The IRQ and DMA Address.
D. The central processing unit (CPU).
E. The universal serial bus (USB) port.
A

A. The device drivers.

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following is required in Windows Server 2008 for print sharing?
A. The File Replication Service
B. The Server Service
C. The Computer Browser Service
D. The WebClient Service
E. The Terminal Service
A

B. The Server Service

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37
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. After updating a device driver on a Windows Server 2008 Server Core computer, you need to reboot the computer. You want the reboot to occur without any delay. How would you accomplish this?

A. You should click the Start button and select Restart.
B. You should hold down the CTRL. ALT and DEL keys.
C. You should run the shutdown /r /t 0 command at the command prompt.
D. You should run the start /realtime command at the command prompt.

A

C. You should run the shutdown /r /t 0 command at the command prompt.

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38
Q
  1. You work as a system administrator at ABC.com. How would you configure the IP address settings on a Windows Server 2008 Server Core computer?

A. You should use the netsh command.
B. You should use the ipconfig command.
C. You should use the sysinfo command.
D. You should use the ping command.

A

A. You should use the netsh command.

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following hard disk drives provide the best performance?

A. RAID-5
B. Sata
C. eSata
D. SSD

A

D. SSD solid state drive

serial ATA standard (SATA)

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following RAID configurations do not provide fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
E. RAID 10
A

A. RAID 0

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41
Q
  1. RAID 0 improves performance by implementing _______.

A. striping
B. disk mirroring
C. parity
D. striping with parity

A

A. striping

42
Q
  1. RAID 1 uses ______ to provide fault tolerance.

A. striping
B. disk mirroring
C. parity
D. striping with parity

A

B. disk mirroring

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is implemented in RAID 5?

A. striping
B. disk mirroring
C. parity
D. striping with parity

A

D. striping with parity

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding data storage devices is TRUE?

A. Network attached storage (NAS) is connected to a network to provide shared drives or folders using SMB/CIFS.
B. A storage area network (SAN) is connected to a network to provide shared drives or folders using NTFS.
C. Network attached storage (NAS) is connected to a server or a network to provide shared drives or folders using NTFS.
D. A storage area network (SAN) is connected to a server or a network to provide shared drives or folders using SMB/CIFS.

A

A. Network attached storage (NAS) is connected to a network to provide shared drives or folders using SMB/CIFS.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding iSCSI storage devices is TRUE?

A. By default, TCP port 2140 is used to send SCSI commands.
B. By default, TCP port 443 is used to send SCSI commands.
C. By default, TCP port 3260 is used to send SCSI commands.
D. By default, TCP port 9100 is used to send SCSI commands

A

C. By default, TCP port 3260 is used to send SCSI commands.

46
Q
  1. What is the maximum partition size supported by MBR?

A. 1 TB
B. 2 TB
C. 16 TB
D. 128 TB

A

B. 2 TB

MBR supports partitions up to 2 terabytes (TB) and allows up to 4 primary partitions per disk. Each partition can contain a bootable operating system. Although not used as much as in the past, you can also create three primary partitions an

47
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of partitions that GPT supports on a single disk drive?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128
A

E. 128

GUID Partition Table (GPT): This is a newer partitioning style that supports up to 18 exabtyes (EB) or 18 billion gigabytes and can store up to 128 partitions on each disk.

48
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to create a dynamic volume in Disk Management. Which application should you use?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. Computer Management
D. My Computer
E. System
A

C. Computer Management

49
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to format a volume in Windows Server 2008. Which application should you use?

A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. Data Sources
D. System

A

A. Windows Explorer

50
Q
  1. Which of the following provide the fault tolerance?
A. RAID
B. iSCSI
C. Sata6G
D. eSata
E. SSD
A

A. RAID

51
Q
  1. Which of the following RAID configurations uses a minimum of 3 hard disk drives?

A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3 and RAID 5
C. RAID 3, RID 5 and RAID 6
D. RAID 10

A

B. RAID 3 and RAID 5

52
Q
  1. A hot ______ is an additional drive in a RAID-5 configuration that is automatically used to recover a failed drive?

A. drive
B. spare
C. volume
D. redundancy

A

B. spare

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is a logical reference that allows for the management of a disk array?

A. RAID
B. LUN
C. NAS
D. SATA

A

B. LUN

54
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of primary partitions that MBR supports on a single disk drive?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
A

B. 4

MBR supports partitions up to 2 terabytes (TB) and allows up to 4 primary partitions per disk. Each partition can contain a bootable operating system. Although not used as much as in the past, you can also create three primary partitions an

55
Q
  1. You have just been hired as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to check which hardware and software is installed on a server that you need to maintain. What utility should you use?
A. System Information
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Explorer
D. Add Programs
E. HCL
A

A. System Information

56
Q
  1. You have just been hired as a server administrator at ABC.com. You want to review the log files on a server that you need to maintain. What utility should you use?

A. System Information
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Explorer
D. Event Viewer

A

D. Event Viewer

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding Windows Server 2008 is TRUE?

A. In Windows Server 2008, NTLDR is responsible for memory management.
B. In Windows Server 2008, NTOSKRNL.EXE is known as the kernel and is responsible for system services.
C. In Windows Server 2008, Services is responsible for system services and process management.
D. In Windows Server 2008, NTOSKRNL.EXE is the first system file to be loaded and is
responsible for the POST process.

A

B. In Windows Server 2008, NTOSKRNL.EXE is known as the kernel and is responsible for system services.

58
Q
  1. In Window Server 2008 R2, the first system file to be loaded during the boot process is the ______.
A. NTLDR
B. Win32
C. WinPE
D. boot.ini
E. ntdetect.com
A

A. NTLDR

59
Q
  1. In Window Server 2008 R2, where is the BOOTMGR located?

A. C:/Windows/System32
B. VBR
C. MBR-GPT
D. ntdetect.com

A

B. VBR

A volume boot record (VBR), also known as a volume boot sector or a partition boot sector, is a type of boot sector, stored in a disk volume on a hard disk, floppy disk, or similar data storage device that contains code for booting an operating system such as NTLDR and BOOTMGR.

60
Q
  1. In a multi-boot environment, what is responsible for selecting the operating system?
A. NTLDR
B. WinPE
C. boot.ini
D. PXEBoot
E. winnt32.exe
A

C. boot.ini

61
Q
  1. In Windows 7, where is the boot configuration data stored?
A. In the boot.ini file.
B. In the winnt32.exe file.
C. In NTLDR.
D. In CMOS.
E. In BCD.
A

E. In BCD.

Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is a firmware-independent database for boot-time configuration data used by Microsoft’s Windows Boot Manager found with Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows Server 2008. To edit the Boot Configuration, you typically use Bcdedit.exe.

62
Q
  1. You work as a system administrator at ABC.com. You are troubleshooting a Windows Server 2008 computer on which you’ve just installed a new device. You want to restart Windows with the previous registry settings and device driver configuration. Which option should you select?

A. Use the Safe Mode boot option.
B. Use the Last Known Good Configuration boot option.
C. Use the Recovery Console.
D. Use the Boot with Debugger boot option

A

B. Use the Last Known Good Configuration boot option.

63
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to troubleshoot a Windows Server 2008 computer. You want to view the processor and memory utilization on the server. What utility should you use?
A. Task Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Explorer
D. Control Panel
E. Performance
A

A. Task Manager

64
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You need to prevent a server from being affected by power fluctuations. What should you do?

A. You should configure Power Management.
B. You should install an UPS.
C. You should install a fail-over PSU.
D. You should enable ACPI.

A

B. You should install an UPS.

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is used for data recovery?

A. Backup and Restore
B. RAID-5
C. Hot-swap hard drives
D. Hot-spare hard drives

A

A. Backup and Restore

66
Q
  1. A ______ backup only stores new and altered files to the backup set?

A. full
B. incremental
C. snap shot
D. shadow copy

A

B. incremental

67
Q
  1. When starting a Windows Server 2003 R2 computer you receive an error message stating that NTLDR is missing. How would you repair the computer?

A. You should replace NTLDR using Windows PE.
B. You should replace NTLDR using the Recovery Console.
C. You should boot into Safe Mode and locate NTLDR.
D. You should select the ‘Last Known Good Configuration’ boot option.

A

B. You should replace NTLDR using the Recovery Console.

68
Q
  1. When starting a Windows Server 8 computer you receive an error message stating that NTLDR is missing. How should you repair the computer?

A. You should replace NTLDR using Windows PE.
B. You should replace NTLDR using the Recovery Console.
C. You should boot into Safe Mode and locate NTLDR.
D. You should select the ‘Last Known Good Configuration’ boot option.

A

A. You should replace NTLDR using Windows PE.

69
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to access older versions of files and folders?

A. incremental backups
B. differential backups
C. shadow copies
D. File Distribution Services

A

C. shadow copies

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to resolve a host name to an IP address?

A. A DNS server.
B. A domain controller.
C. An lmhost file.
D. AN IIS server.

A

A. A DNS server.

71
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding A records in DNS is TRUE?

A. In DNS, the A record is used to resolve host names to IP addresses.
B. In DNS, the A record is used to resolve IP addresses to host names.
C. In DNS, the A record is used to locate a domain controller.
D. In DNS, the A record is used to resolve computer names to IP addresses.
E. In DNS, the A record is used to resolve IP addresses to computer names.

A

A. In DNS, the A record is used to resolve host names to IP addresses.

72
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding PTR records in DNS is TRUE?

A. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve host names to IP addresses.
B. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve IP addresses to host names.
C. In DNS, the PTR record is used to locate a domain controller.
D. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve computer names to IP addresses.
E. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve IP addresses to computer names.

A

B. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve IP addresses to host names.

73
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding SRV records in DNS is TRUE?

A. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve host names to IP addresses.
B. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve IP addresses to host names.
C. In DNS, the PTR record is used to locate a domain controller.
D. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve computer names to IP addresses.
E. In DNS, the PTR record is used to resolve IP addresses to computer names.

A

C. In DNS, the PTR record is used to locate a domain controller.

74
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding WINS is TRUE?

A. WINS is a legacy service used to resolve host names to IP addresses.
B. WINS is a legacy service used to resolve IP addresses to host names.
C. WINS is a legacy service used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
D. WINS is a legacy service used to resolve IP addresses to NetBIOS names.

A

C. WINS is a legacy service used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses.

75
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding IP Address allocation is TRUE?

A. WINS is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers on a network.
B. DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers on a network.
C. Active Directory is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers on a network.
D. DNS is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers on a network.

A

B. DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers on a
network.

76
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding Windows Server are TRUE?

A. Any server that is a member of a domain is called a member server.
B. A server that is a member of a domain is called a domain controller.
C. Any server that runs Active Directory is called a member server.
D. Any server that is not a domain controller is called a stand-alone server.
E. Any server that is a member of a domain but is not a domain controller is called a member server.

A

E. Any server that is a member of a domain but is not a domain controller is called a
member server.

77
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding FSMO roles are TRUE?

A. The RID master acts as the primary server for password changes and as the master time server.
B. The Schema master is responsible for updating references from objects in its domain to objects in other domains.
C. The PDC Emulator provides backward compatibility for NT4 clients and acts as the master time server.
D. A domain can have more than one Infrastructure master, which is responsible for updating references from objects in its domain to objects in other domains.

A

C. The PDC Emulator provides backward compatibility for NT4 clients and acts as the
master time server.

FLEXIBLE SINGLE MASTER OPERATIONS Active Directory uses multimaster replication, which means that there is no master domain controller, commonly referred to as a primary domain controller within Windows NT domains. However, because there are certain functions that can be handled by only one domain controller at a time, Active Directory uses Flexible Single Master Operations (FSMO) roles, also known as operations master roles

ROLE NAME Schema Master
SCOPE 1 per forest
DESCRIPTION Controls and handles updates/modifications to the Active Directory schema.

ROLE NAME Domain Naming Master
SCOPE 1 per forest
DESCRIPTION Controls the addition and removal of domains from the forest if present in root domain.

ROLE NAME PDC Emulator
SCOPE 1 per domain
DESCRIPTION PDC is short for Primary Domain Controller, which was the main domain controller used with Windows NT. The PDC emulator provides backwards compatibility for NT4 clients. It also acts as the primary server for password changes and as the master time server within the domain.

ROLE NAME RID Master (Relative ID Master)
SCOPE 1 per domain
DESCRIPTION Allocates pools of unique identifiers to domain controlers for use when creating objects.

ROLE NAME infrastructure Master
SCOPE 1 per domain
DESCRIPTION Synchronizes cross-domain group membership changes. The infrastructure master cannot run on a global catalog server unless all DCs are also GCs.

78
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding groups are TRUE?

A. You can assign permissions to a security group.
B. You can assign permissions to a domain local group.
C. You can assign permissions to a global group.
D. You can assign permissions to a universal group.

A

A. You can assign permissions to a security group.

79
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding groups in a forest are TRUE?

A. Global groups can contain groups and user accounts from multiple domains.
B. Distribution groups can contain groups and user accounts from multiple domains.
C. Universal groups can contain groups and user accounts from multiple domains.
D. Global Domain groups can contain groups and user accounts from multiple domains.

A

C. Universal groups can contain groups and user accounts from multiple domains.

80
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols is the default protocol that Active Directory uses to authenticate domain users?
A. Kerberos
B. MS-CHAPv2
C. Integrated Windows Authentication
D. RADIUS
E. RIS
A

A. Kerberos

81
Q
  1. Which of the following Windows servers makes use of the LDAP?
A. Domain Controllers
B. File and Print Servers
C. Application Server
D. DHCP Server
E. DNS Server
A

A. Domain Controllers

82
Q
  1. In which of the following can a disjointed namespace be used?
A. A domain
B. A forest
C. A tree
D. An Organizational Unit
E. Active Directory
A

B. A forest

83
Q
  1. You work as a domain administrator at ABC.com. You need to standardize the desktop on all Windows client computers in the domain. Which utility should you use?

A. Group Policy
B. Remote Desktop
C. Roaming Profiles
D. DFS

A

A. Group Policy

84
Q
  1. You work as a server administrator at ABC.com. You have assigned NTFS permissions to a shared folder. Where are these permissions stored?

A. Group Policy
B. XML
C. ACL
D. DFS

A

C. ACL

85
Q
  1. Which of the following are the minimum NTFS permissions you must have in order to alter a file’s attributes?
A. Full Control permissions
B. Read permissions
C. Execute permissions
D. Write permissions
E. List Files permissions
A

D. Write permissions

86
Q
  1. Which of the following are the minimum NTFS permissions you must have in order to take ownership of a shared folder?
A. Full Control permissions
B. Read permissions
C. Execute permissions
D. Read & Write permissions
E. List Files permissions
A

A. Full Control permissions

87
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding shared folders are TRUE?

A. The permissions that are assigned to a shared folder are called explicit permissions.
B. The permissions that are assigned to a shared folder are called propagated permissions.
C. The permissions that are assigned to a shared folder are called inherited permissions.
D. The permissions that are assigned to a shared folder are called NTFS permissions.

A

A. The permissions that are assigned to a shared folder are called explicit permissions.

88
Q
  1. Which of the following explicit NTFS permissions overrides all other permissions?

A. Take Ownership
B. Deny Full Control
C. Allow Full Control
D. Allow Read & Write

A

B. Deny Full Control

89
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding NTFS permissions is TRUE?

A. A file that is copied from one volume to another retains the permissions that have been assigned to it.
B. A file that is copied from one volume to another acquires the permissions of the folder to which it is copied.
C. A file that is copied from one volume to another will have no permissions assigned to it on the new volume.
D. A file that is copied from one volume to another acquires deny permissions.

A

B. A file that is copied from one volume to another acquires the permissions of the folder to which it is copied.

90
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding NTFS permissions is TRUE?

A. The files in a folder that has been moved within the original vlume will retain the permissions that have been assigned to it.
B. The files in a folder that has been moved within the original volume will acquire the permissions of the parent folder.
C. The files in a folder that has been moved within the original volume will have no permissions assigned to it in the new location.
D. The files in a folder that has been moved within the original volume will acquire deny permissions.

A

A. The files in a folder that has been moved within the original volume will retain the permissions that have been assigned to it.

91
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to encrypt files and folders in Windows Server 2008?
A. NTFS
B. EFS
C. DNS
D. WINS
E. DHCP
F. CIFS
A

B. EFS

92
Q
  1. Which of the following are the minimum share permissions you must have in order to alter a file’s attributes?

A. Read permissions
B. Execute permissions
C. Write permissions
D. Change permissions

A

D. Change permissions

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is the default TCP port used by a printer?

A. 143
B. 273
C. 3260
D. 9100

A

D. 9100

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is the minimum permission you must have in order to print to ashared printer?
A. Print permissions.
B. Write permissions.
C. Change permissions.
D. Take Ownership permissions.
E. Full Control permissions.
A

A. Print permissions.

95
Q
  1. Which of the following is the default TCP port used for internet printing?
A. 80
B. 143
C. 215
D. 3260
E. 8080
F. 9100
A

A. 80

96
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding user access and activity are TRUE?

A. Permissions are used to control user access to a domain.
B. Auditing is used to track user activity on a domain.
C. Authentication is used to allow a user access at the file system level.
D. The Event log track user activity on a client computer.

A

B. Auditing is used to track user activity on a domain.

97
Q
  1. Which of the following describes an NTFS permission that has been passed from a folder to files and subfolders in that folder?

A. Inherited permissions
B. Explicit permissions
C. Access Control List
D. Shared permissions

A

A. Inherited permissions

98
Q
  1. Where would you find the default print spool folder?
A. C:\Users\\Printers
B. C:\Windows\System\Printers
C. C:\Windows\System32\Spool\Printers
D. C:\Users\\Local Settings\Application
Data\Microsoft\Spool\Printers
A

C. C:\Windows\System32\Spool\Printers

99
Q
  1. Which of the following NTFS permission do you require in order to gain immediate access to a folder that you do not have permissions on?

A. Full Control permissions
B. Take Ownership permissions
C. Read & Write permissions
D. Read, Write & Execute permissions

A

B. Take Ownership permissions

100
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding shared folders are TRUE?

A. The Full Control shared permission is the recommended permissions you should set on a shared folder.
B. You should configure shared folders to inherit permissions from its parent container.
C. The Read and Write shared permissions and the Read NTFS permission are the recommended permissions you should set on a shared folder.
D. The Full Control shared permission and the Read NTFS permission are the recommended permissions you should set on a shared folder.

A

A. The Full Control shared permission is the recommended permissions you should set on a shared folder.

My Exam Review 2014 (8 decks)

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