Lesson 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

pathogens of low virulence that will only cause disease if administered in very high doses

A

Opportunistic pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a pathogen which cause disease almost every time it invades a healthy individual even in low numbers

A

primary pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

capacity of immune system to remember an antigen and react more vigorously upon re-exposure of the same antigen

A

Immunological memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

failure of immune system to develop tolerance for self-proteins and starting immune response

A

Autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

refers to an antigen induced specific unresponsiveness

A

tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the means of providing specific protection against a damaging pathogen

A

Immunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

proteins used for intercellular communication and intracellular signaling pathways

A

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

part of antibody which recognizes the antigen

A

Paratope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

protein (globulin) which is reactive against specific antigen

A

antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Part of Antigen recognized by immune system

A

epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Small portion of antigen which by it self can not elicit immune reaction

A

hapten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A molecule that stimulates immune response (generally proteins

A

antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give the four functions of the immune response

A
  1. Immunological recognition
  2. Immune effector functions
  3. Immune regulation
  4. Immunological memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the resistance that an individual possesses by birth

A

Innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

large phagocytic tissue cells, responsible for removal of damaged tissue, cells, bacteria

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

short-lived scavenger blood cells containing granules of powerful bactericidal enzymes

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

present antigen to T cells to initiate adaptive immune responses

A

dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lymphocyte-like cells capable of killing virus infected and tumor cells without the specificity of true lymphocytes

A

Natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

found in tissues, release inflammatory mediators when damaged and under the influence of IgE antibody

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give the mediators of inflammatory reactions (4)

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Kinins
  3. Acute phase proteins
  4. Defensins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability during inflammatory reaction

A

Kinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Optimize and traps microorganism and their products, activates the complement system

A

Acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

peptides that produce pores in membrane of the bacteria and thereby kill them

A

Defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Immunity with potency of immune response is acquired by experience only

A

Adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

resistance to infection that an individual possesses by virtue of genetic and constitutional makeup

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type of adaptive immunity induced by exposure to a foreign antigen

A

Active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An immunity acquired by natural clinical or sub-clinical infections that eventually results to long-lasting immunity

A

Natural active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Active immunity induced by vaccines

A

Artificial active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

immunity is conferred by transfer of serum or lymphocytes from a specifically immunized individual

A

Passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Type of immunity whereby the maternal transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus during pregnancy and breastfeeding occur.

A

Natural passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Immunity induced in an individual by
administration of preformed antibodies, generally in the form of antiserum

A

Artificial passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Infectious disease which uses combined passive-active immunity as prevention

A

tetanus, rabies, and hepatitis
B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

carried out by giving both preformed antibodies (antiserum) and a vaccine to provide immediate protection and long-term protection, respectively, against a disease

A

Combined passive-active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Enumerate the four families of PRRs

A
  1. Toll-like receptors (TLR)
  2. Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain-like receptors (NLR)
  3. C-type lectin receptors (CLR)
  4. RIG-1 like receptors (RLR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Differences of the four families of PRRs

A
  1. Ligand recognition
  2. Signal transduction
  3. Sub-cellular localization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This PRR are localized at the plasma membrane recognizing glycans from the wall of fungi and some bacteria

A

C-type lectin receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

These are cytoplasmic sensors which form multiprotein signalling complexes known as inflammasomes & activate caspase-1-mediated

A

Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain-like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Transmembrane proteins localized either at the plasma membrane or in endosomes that activates MAP kinase, Nuclear factor kappa B

A

Toll-like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

These are cytoplasmic sensors of viral RNA that signals via the mitochondrial adaptor protein MAVS

A

RIG-1 like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize viral double-stranded RNA?

A

TLR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize flagellin and flagellated bacteria?

A

TLR5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize small antiviral molecules?

A

TLR7, TLR8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize a pseudogene?

A

TLR10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize diacetylated lipoproteins?

A

TLR1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Give some natural ligands in microbes or damaged tissues recognized by TLR4:

A
  1. LPS
  2. lipotechoieic acid
  3. viral protein
  4. heat-shock protein
  5. fibrinogen
  6. saturated fatty acids
  7. B-defensins
  8. heparan sulfate
46
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize unmethylated CpG bacterial DNA

47
Q

Which of the TLRs recognize lipoproteins, peptidoglycan, spirochetes, mycobacteria?

48
Q

These are molecules released when cells die (intracellular) or generated when connective tissue is damaged

A

DAMPs or Alarmins

49
Q

Cell death initiated in response to infections and other irritants that generate inflammasomes

A

Pyroptosis

50
Q

Enumerate the properties of cytokines

A
  1. Short-lived proteins
  2. Highly diverse structures and receptors
  3. Can act locally and/or systemically
  4. Pleiotropic: affect many different cells
  5. Redundant: exhibit biologically overlapping functions
  6. Carefully regulated
  7. Toxic in high doses
51
Q

Give the four common cytokines

A
  1. Interleukins
  2. Interferons
  3. Tumor necrosis factors
  4. Chemokines
52
Q

Which cytokines signal between lymphocytes and other leukocytes?

A

Interleukins

53
Q

These cytokines are produced in response to virus infection or immune stimulation:

A

Interferons

54
Q

These are cytokines produced by macrophages and T cells involved in the coordination of host defenses, cell survival, immune regulation and inflammation:

A

Tumor necrosis factor

55
Q

A family of at least 50 small proteins that play a role in leukocyte chemotaxis, circulation, migration, and activation, especially in inflammation

A

Chemokines

56
Q

Give the 3 effects on how cytokines act on many targets

A
  1. Autocrine effect
  2. Paracrine effect
  3. Endocrine effect
57
Q

Enumerate the 3 ways of cytokine regulation:

A
  1. by changes in receptor expression
  2. by the presence of specific binding proteins
  3. by cytokines that exert opposing effect
58
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a hapten?

a) A large molecule that stimulates an immune response.
b) A protein secreted by immune cells for communication.
c) A small molecule that can elicit an immune response on its own.
d) A small molecule that can only elicit an immune response when attached to a carrier protein.

A

A small molecule that can only elicit an immune response when attached to a carrier protein.

59
Q

The part of an antibody that recognizes and binds to an antigen is called:

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?

a) Rapid response
b) Specificity
c) Immunological memory
d) Activation of adaptive immunity

A

Immunological memory

61
Q

Which cell type is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to T cells?

a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages
c) Dendritic cells
d) Natural Killer cells

A

Dendritic cells

62
Q

Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

a) Vaccination
b) Transfer of antibodies through breast milk
c) Exposure to a pathogen
d) Injection of antiserum

A

Transfer of antibodies through breast milk

63
Q

Autoimmunity occurs when the immune system fails to:
a) Recognize foreign antigens
b) Develop tolerance to self-antigens
c) Generate immunological memory
d) Activate complement

A

Develop tolerance to self-antigens

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the immune system?
a) Immunological recognition
b) Containment and elimination of infection
c) Unlimited immune response
d) Immunological memory

A

Unlimited immune response

65
Q

Which type of immunity is induced by a vaccine?

A

Artificial active

66
Q

Which of the following is a primary pathogen?

a) A pathogen that causes disease only when present in high numbers.
b) A pathogen that causes disease almost every time it invades a healthy individual.
c) A pathogen that requires a compromised immune system to cause disease.
d) A pathogen that causes disease only in specific age groups.

A

A pathogen that causes disease almost every time it invades a healthy individual.

67
Q

Which of the following is an example of species immunity?

a) Humans being susceptible to tuberculosis while chickens are resistant.

b) Individuals with a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency being less susceptible to malaria.

c) One identical twin developing tuberculosis, and the other twin also developing it.

d) Different breeds of dogs having varying susceptibilities to certain diseases.

A

Humans being susceptible to tuberculosis while chickens are resistant.

68
Q

Which of the following is NOT a soluble component of innate immunity?
a) Complement
b) Cytokines
c) Defensins
d) Macrophages

A

Macrophages

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of innate immunity?
a) Anatomic barriers
b) Antibody production
c) Phagocytosis
d) Inflammatory response

A

Antibody production

70
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mediator of inflammatory reactions?
a) Histamine
b) Kinins
c) Antibodies
d) Acute-phase proteins

A

Antibodies

71
Q

Which factor does NOT influence innate immunity?
a) Age
b) Nutritional status
c) Genetic makeup
d) Prior exposure to an antigen

A

Prior exposure to an antigen

72
Q

Which type of immunity is mediated by B cells?
a) Cell-mediated immunity
b) Humoral immunity
c) Innate immunity
d) Passive immunity

A

Humoral immunity

73
Q

Which type of T cells are involved in killing virus-infected cells?
a) Helper T cells
b) Cytotoxic T cells
c) Regulatory T cells
d) Memory T cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells

74
Q

Local immunity is primarily mediated by:
a) IgG antibodies
b) IgA antibodies
c) IgM antibodies
d) IgE antibodies

A

IgA antibodies

75
Q

Herd immunity refers to:

A

The overall level of immunity in a community.

76
Q

Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?
a) Passing of antibodies through the placenta.
b) Receiving a vaccine.
c) Injection of antibodies in the form of antiserum.
d) Developing immunity after recovering from an infection.

A

Injection of antibodies in the form of antiserum.

77
Q

Which of the following best describes immunological memory?

a) The ability of the immune system to respond immediately and effectively upon subsequent encounters with the same antigen.

b) The ability of the immune system to distinguish between self and non-self.

c) The ability of the immune system to mount an inflammatory response.

d) The ability of the immune system to produce antibodies.

A

The ability of the immune system to respond immediately and effectively upon subsequent encounters with the same antigen.

78
Q

Which of the following BEST distinguishes between active and passive immunity?
a) The duration of protection.
b) The involvement of B cells.
c) Whether antibodies are involved.
d) Whether the individual produces their own antibodies.

A

Whether the individual produces their own antibodies.

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good antigen?
a) High molecular weight
b) Chemical complexity
c) Degradability
d) Small, repetitive structures

A

Small, repetitive structures

80
Q

Which cell type bridges innate and adaptive immunity?
a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages
c) Dendritic cells
d) Natural Killer cells

A

Dendritic cells

81
Q

Which interleukin is crucial for the differentiation of T helper cells into Th1 cells?

82
Q

Which of the following is an example of combined passive-active immunization?
a) Administering a vaccine.
b) Transferring maternal antibodies through the placenta.
c) Giving both antiserum and a vaccine simultaneously.
d) Receiving a blood transfusion.

A

Giving both antiserum and a vaccine simultaneously.

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?
a) Neutralization of toxins
b) Opsonization
c) Direct killing of infected cells
d) Activation of complement

A

Direct killing of infected cells (Antibodies mark cells for destruction, but don’t kill them directly)

84
Q

Which of the following statements about immunological tolerance is INCORRECT?
a) It is antigen-specific.
b) It involves the elimination or inactivation of self-reactive lymphocytes.
c) Failure of tolerance leads to autoimmunity.
d) It is a feature of innate immunity.

A

It is a feature of innate immunity.

85
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of immunological memory?
a) A faster and stronger response upon re-exposure to an antigen.
b) The ability to recognize an unlimited number of antigens.
c) The ability to distinguish between self and non-self.
d) The ability to mount an inflammatory response.

A

A faster and stronger response upon re-exposure to an antigen.

86
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of inflammation in immunity?
a) It is always harmful and should be suppressed.
b) It is a complex process involving various cell types and mediators, crucial for tissue repair and pathogen clearance.
c) It is solely mediated by mast cells and histamine release.
d) It is only triggered by infection.

A

It is a complex process involving various cell types and mediators, crucial for tissue repair and pathogen clearance.

87
Q

Case: A 6-month-old Labrador Retriever puppy presents with recurrent episodes of pyoderma (skin infection). The puppy has received its core vaccinations. What is the MOST likely underlying cause, considering the puppy’s age and recurring infections?

a) Vaccine failure
b) Immunodeficiency
c) Allergic dermatitis
d) Parasitic infection

A

Immunodeficiency

88
Q

A cat, Feline Leukemia Virus positive, presents with chronic gingivitis and stomatitis. What is the MOST likely explanation for the severity of these oral lesions in this cat?

a) The FeLV infection is causing immunosuppression.
b) The cat has a food allergy.
c) The cat has poor dental hygiene.
d) The cat is developing oral cancer.

A

The FeLV infection is causing immunosuppression.

89
Q

A horse develops hives and facial swelling after being administered a new medication. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is MOST likely occurring?

A

Type I (Immediate hypersensitivity)

90
Q

Case: A dog with a history of atopy (allergies) exhibits severe pruritus (itching) and skin lesions. Which cell type plays a CENTRAL role in mediating the allergic response in this condition?

A

Mast cells

91
Q

Case: A dog is diagnosed with a tumor. Which component of the immune system is PRIMARILY responsible for recognizing and destroying cancerous cells?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)

92
Q

A cat presents with a non-healing wound. Biopsy reveals a large number of macrophages and neutrophils at the wound site. What process is occurring at the wound site?
a) Immunological tolerance
b) Inflammation
c) Autoimmunity
d) Apoptosis

A

Inflammation

93
Q

Which of the following BEST describes pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?

a) Molecules released by damaged host cells.
b) Conserved molecular structures found in microbes.
c) Receptors on immune cells that recognize pathogens.
d) Proteins secreted by immune cells for communication.

A

Conserved molecular structures found in microbes.

94
Q

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are primarily expressed on:
a) Epithelial cells
b) Immune cells
c) All cell types
d) Pathogens

A

Immune cells

95
Q

Which of the following is an example of a PAMP?
a) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
b) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
c) Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
d) Antibodies

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

96
Q

Damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) are released from:
a) Healthy cells
b) Damaged or dying cells
c) Invading pathogens
d) Immune cells

A

Damaged or dying cells

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major family of PRRs?
a) Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
b) Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain-like receptors (NLRs)
c) C-type lectin receptors (CTLRs)
d) Antibody receptors

A

Antibody receptors

98
Q

Sentinel cells are primarily responsible for:
a) Producing antibodies
b) Recognizing and responding to pathogens
c) Killing infected cells
d) Presenting antigens to T cells

A

Recognizing and responding to pathogens

99
Q

Which of the following are examples of sentinel cells?
a) Macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells
b) B cells and T cells
c) Neutrophils and eosinophils
d) Fibroblasts and epithelial cells

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells

100
Q

Where are TLRs typically located?
a) Only on the cell surface
b) Only in the cytoplasm
c) On the cell surface and in endosomes
d) Only in the nucleus

A

On the cell surface and in endosomes

101
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of PRRs in innate immunity?
a) They initiate the adaptive immune response.
b) They directly kill invading pathogens.
c) They recognize PAMPs and DAMPs, triggering cellular responses.
d) They produce antibodies.

A

They recognize PAMPs and DAMPs, triggering cellular responses

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of cytokines?
a) Cell-to-cell communication
b) Promoting inflammation
c) Directly recognizing and binding to pathogens
d) Regulating immune responses

A

Directly recognizing and binding to pathogens

103
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of cytokines?
a) They are long-lived proteins.
b) They have highly diverse structures and receptors.
c) They act only locally.
d) They are produced only by immune cells.

A

They have highly diverse structures and receptors.

104
Q

Which of the following is an example of a cytokine?
a) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
b) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
c) Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4)
d) Complement protein C3

A

Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

105
Q

What does the term “pleiotropic” mean in the context of cytokines?
a) They have redundant functions.
b) They act on many different cell types.
c) They are produced by many different cell types.
d) They act only on nearby cells.

A

They act on many different cell types.

106
Q

What is the difference between apoptosis and pyroptosis?
a) Apoptosis triggers inflammation, while pyroptosis does not.
b) Pyroptosis triggers inflammation, while apoptosis does not.
c) Apoptosis and pyroptosis are the same process.
d) Apoptosis is cell death due to injury, pyroptosis is programmed cell death.

A

Pyroptosis triggers inflammation, while apoptosis does not.

107
Q

Which cell death pathway is associated with the formation of inflammasomes?
a) Apoptosis
b) Pyroptosis
c) Necroptosis
d) All of the above

A

Pyroptosis

108
Q

Which cell type is NOT typically considered a sentinel cell?
a) Macrophage
b) Dendritic cell
c) B lymphocyte
d) Mast cell

A

B lymphocyte

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of cytokines?
a) Short-lived proteins.
b) Can act locally and/or systemically.
c) Always beneficial to the host.
d) Pleiotropic effects.

A

Always beneficial to the host.

110
Q

What is the primary function of chemokines?
a) Attract immune cells to the site of infection.
b) Kill infected cells directly.
c) Present antigens to T cells.
d) Produce antibodies.

A

Attract immune cells to the site of infection.