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Lesions Flashcards

1
Q 
A reactive hyperplastic mass that occurs
on the gingiva and is believed to be
derived from connective tissue of the
submucosa or periodontal ligament.
a. Giant cell fibroma
b. Peripheral fibroma
c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A

b. Peripheral fibroma

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2
Q 
A gingival mass in which islands of
woven (immature) bone and osteoid
are seen.
a. Giant cell fibroma
b. Peripheral fibroma
c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A

d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma

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3
Q 
A gingival mass composed of wellvascularized, non-encapsulated fibrous
connective tissue.
a. Giant cell fibroma
b. Peripheral fibroma
c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A

c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

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4
Q 
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma is best
treated by:
a. Local excision which should include
the periodontal ligament, if
involved.
b. Extraction of the adjacent teeth is
seldom necessary or justified
c. Simple surgical excision with clear
margins on histology.
d. Reexcision to the periosteum
A

c. Simple surgical excision with clear

margins on histology.

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5
Q 
A fibrous hyperplasia in which many of
the mesenchymal cells are relatively
larger than normal fibroblasts (giant
cells) and assume a stellate shape.
a. Giant cell fibroma
b. Peripheral fibroma
c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
A

a. Giant cell fibroma

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6
Q 
A connective tissue tumor which is the
most common benign soft tissue
neoplasm occurring in the oral cavity. It
is often considered as reactive
hyperplasia to trauma or local sources
of irritation.
A. Focal fibrous hyperplasia
B. Myxoma
C. Giant cell angiofibroma
D. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
A

A. Focal fibrous hyperplasia

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7
Q 
Focal Fibrous Hyperplasia may be
ulcerated or demonstrate a thickened
white surface. This white thickening of
white surface is called as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Leukocytes
C. Keratosis
D. Leukoplakia
A

A. Hyperkeratosis

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8
Q 
Treatment for focal fibrous hyperplasia
A. Chemoradiation
B. Surgical excision
C. Surgical incision
D. Both A and B
A

B. Surgical excision

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9
Q 
What is the other name of focal fibrous
hyperplasia?
A. Odontogenic fibroma
B. Peripheral fibroma
C. Neurofibroma
D. Irritation fibroma
A

D. Irritation fibroma

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10
Q 
Females are affected twice as
frequently as males.
a. False
b. True
c. Both males and females
d. None of the above
A

b. True

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11
Q 
What is the other term for Solitary
Fibrous Tumor?
A. Hemangiopericytoma
B. Pericytoma
C. Giant cell Angiofibroma
D Myxoma
A

A. Hemangiopericytoma

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12
Q 
What is the treatment for Solitary
Fibrous tumor?
A. Incision
B. Excision
C. Both
D. None of the above
A

B. Excision

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13
Q 
Solitary fibrous tumoris a tumor that is
derived from?
A. Leukocytes
B. Pericytes
C. Monocytes
D. Erythrocytes
A

B. Pericytes

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14
Q 
In the histologic feature of Solitary
Fibrous Tumor, the branching vascular
chanels of varying sizes is often
described as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pattern.
A. Staghorn pattern
B. Epitheloid pattern
C. Spindle cell pattern
D. Round cell pattern
A

A. Staghorn pattern

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15
Q 
All are clinical features of Giant Cell
Angiofibroma, EXCEPT;
a. Well-circumscribed variably
encapsulated lesions
b. Well-defined CD34 (-) tumor
without atypia
c. Fibroblastic spindle cells mingled
with collagenous stroma
e. None of the above
A

b. Well-defined CD34 (-) tumor

without atypia

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16
Q 
Cases were reported in extra-orbital
sites of GCA, EXCEPT;
a. Hip
b. Retroauricular
c. Mediastinum
d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

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17
Q 
Histologic features of GCA, except.
a. Prominent vascularity
b. Solid and pseudovascular spaces
c. Absence of Infiltrating growth
patterns
d. Contain granules of melanin pigment
A

d. Contain granules of melanin pigment

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18
Q

Site of predilection of GCA in oral cavity

a. Palate
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Tongue
d. None of the Above

A

b. Buccal mucosa

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19
Q 
It is a heterogeneous group of soft
tissue tumors which have a common
histologic appearance of abundant
myxoid ground substance. Composed of
mucoplysaccharide mainly hyaluronic
acid.
A. Myxoma
B. Keratoacanthosis
C. Giant cell fibroma
D. Focal fibrous hyperplasia
A

A. Myxoma

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20
Q 
Myxoma of the oral cavity occurs more
in which part?
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Both
D. None of the above
A

B. Mandible

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21
Q 
The oral counterpart of a dermal lesion
known as cutaneous focal mucinosis or
cutaneous myxoid cyst and is often
misdiagnosed as an intraoral soft tissue
myxoma:
A. Nerve sheath myxoma
B. Giant cell fibroma
C. Oral focal Mucinosis
D. Neuro fibroma
A

C. Oral focal Mucinosis

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22
Q 
Lesion in Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
is generally manifested by the
following, EXCEPT:
A. nasal obstruction
B. epistaxis
C. nosebleeding
D. none of the above
A

C. nosebleeding

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23
Q 
It is usually sessile, lobulated, rubbery
and redpink to tan-gray in appearance?
A. Angiomatous polyp
B. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal fibroma
C. Nasopharygeal teratoma
D. Nasal polyp
A

B. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal fibroma

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24
Q 
Treatment for Fibroangioma:
A. surgical excision
B. radiotherapy
C. surgical resection with preoperative
embolization
D. no treatment needed
A

C. surgical resection with preoperative

embolization

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25
Q 
Used to delineate and define the extent
of the tumor especially in case of intra
cranial involvement in juvenile
nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
a. MRI
b. CT Scan
c. Angiogram
d. Both A &B
A

a. MRI

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26
Q 
. If benign fibrous hystiocytoma is found
at the oral area, where is it usually
located?
A. floor of the mouth & tongue
B. upper and lower lip
C. vestibule & buccal mucosa
D. soft and hard palate
A

C. vestibule & buccal mucosa

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27
Q 
. In BFH, when there are large areas with
tumor cells streaming on interlacing
fascicles from a central nidus, it imparts
a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pattern.
A. Rosette
B. Storiform
C. Villous
D. Reticular
A

B. Storiform

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28
Q 
Most common site where BFH is located
when it is not found in the oral area.
a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Ears
d. Sinus
A

a. Legs

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29
Q 
The histologic feature of BFH presents a
lesional stroma that is occasionally very
densely fibrotic or hyalinized that
makes it commonly misdiagnosed as
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sclerosing Hemangioma
B. Myxoma
C. Giant Cell Fibroma
D. Peripheral Fibroma
A

A. Sclerosing Hemangioma

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30
Q 
Treatment for benign fibrous
histiocytoma.
A. Wide incision
B. Chemotherapy
C. Wide excision
D. None due to possible recurrence
A

C. Wide excision

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31
Q 
It is the usual or most commonly seen
radiographic appearance of synovial sarcoma.
A. Soap-bubble
B. Snow storm
C. Honey comb
D. Bubble storm
A

B. Snow storm

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32
Q

A rarely described tumor of unknown etiology and
pathogenesis. It appears to be a benign process
mimicking malignant processes.
A. Myofibroblastic Tumors
B. Myxoma
C. Synovial Sarcoma
D. Giant Cell Angiofibroma

A

A. Myofibroblastic Tumors

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33
Q 
Where do synovial sarcoma originate or arises?
A. Synovial Tissues
B. Synovial Cells
C. Epitheloid Cells
D. Pluripotential Mesenchymal Cells
A

D. Pluripotential Mesenchymal Cells

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34
Q

Tumor of mesenchymal cell origin composed of
malignant fibroblasts in a collagenous background
A. Fibromatosis
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Nodular fascitis

A

C. Fibrosarcoma

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35
Q 
Treatment recommended dor fibrosarcoma
A. Attentive oral hygiene
B. Wide surgical excision
C. Gingivoplasty/gingivectomy
D. Conservative excision
A

B. Wide surgical excision

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36
Q 
Differential diagnosis of Myofibroblastic Tumors
except.
A. Benign and malignant neoplasms of the
minor salivary glands
B. Leiomyoma
C. Irritation fibroma
D. Fibrosarcoma
A

D. Fibrosarcoma

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37
Q 
Nodular growth contains plump spindle cells with
vesicular nuclei.
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Fibromatosis
C. Nodular fasciitis
D. Solitary Fibrous Tumor
A

C. Nodular fasciitis

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38
Q 
Locally aggresive lesion which is also called
pseudosarcomatos fibromatosis.
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Nodular fasciitis
C. Fibromatosis
D. Myxoma
A

B. Nodular fasciitis

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39
Q 
Treatment for myofibroblstic tumor:
A. conservative excision
B. Excision
C. incision
D. no treatment
A

A. conservative excision

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40
Q

Myofibroblastic tumors are ____ and similar to
fibromatosis but less aggressive.
A. benign
B. malignant

A

A. benign

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41
Q 
What is the well-known etiologic factor of
generalized gingival hyperplasia?
A. Hormonal imbalance
B. Phenytoin
C. Plaque
D. Bacteria
A

B. Phenytoin

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42
Q

Increase in bulk of the free and attached gingiva
especially the interdental papilla is the common
clinical feature of this type of reactive hyperplasia.
A. Denture-Induced Fibrous Hyperplasia
B. Peripheral Fibroma
C. Generalized Gingival Hyperplasia
D. Focal Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

C. Generalized Gingival Hyperplasia

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43
Q

Nodular fascitiis is:

a. Benign
b. Malignant
c. Benign but aggresive

A

c. Benign but aggresive

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44
Q

Nodular fasciitis is commonly located at:

a. labial vestibule
b. buccal frenum
c. buccal mucosa

A

c. buccal mucosa

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45
Q

A condition where fibrous overgrowths of dermal
and subcutaneous connective tissue develop
tumours
A. Nodular Facitis
B. Generalized gingival hyperplasia
C. Fibromatosis
D.Synovial Sarcoma

A

C. Fibromatosis

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46
Q 
Slow growing tumor
A. Superficial fibrosmtosis
B. Deep fibromatosis
C. Benign fibrous histiocytoma
D.Myofibrobalstic tumor
A

A. Superficial fibrosmtosis

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47
Q 
What is the prognosis for patient with denture
induced hyperplasia?
A. Good
B. Bad
C. Fair
D. None of the above
A

A. Good

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48
Q 
It has a mucopolysaccharide keratin dystrophy,
also reffered to as "plasma pooling"
A. Synovial Sarcoma
B. Fibromatosis
C. Denture-Induced Hyperplasia
D. Nodular Fascitis
A

C. Denture-Induced Hyperplasia

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49
Q

A rare type of cancer that affects the soft tissues
which surrounds bones and organs seen in the
radiograph as spotty calcification
A. Fibromatosis
B.Nodular fascitis
C. Synovial sarcoma
D. Solitary Fibrous tumor

A

C. Synovial sarcoma

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50
Q 
This is true about synovial sarcoma except:
A. Mostly found 5cm of a joint
B. slow enlarging deep seated mass
C. Has a snowstorm appearance
D. It arises from synovial cells
A

D. It arises from synovial cells

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51
Q

Palatal Condyloma may appear similar to papillary
hyperplasia. The only difference is that the palatal
condyloma is limited only to the denture boarder.
A. ALL STATEMENTS ARE TRUE
B. ALL STATEMENTS ARE FALSE
C. FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE WHILE
SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE
D. FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE WHILE
SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

C. FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE WHILE

SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE

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52
Q

As seen on the picture, some cases of redundant
tissue exhibit extremely large rolls of what tissue
around the denture?
A.Loose connective tissue
B. Fibrous tissue
C. Dense connective tissue
D. Muscle Tissue

A

B. Fibrous tissue

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53
Q

Which of the following is not a classic
histopathologic features of malignant fibrous
histiocytoma?
A. Atleast mild cellular and nuclear
pleomorphism
B. The overlying epithelium usually
exhibits some hyperplasia
C. An admixture of fibroblastic and histiocytic
elements
D. Focal areas with a storifom or cartwheel
pattern of streaming spindle cells

A

B. The overlying epithelium usually

exhibits some hyperplasia

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54
Q 
A variant of malignant fibrous histiocytoma which
often has a soft consistency.
A. Prototypical pleomorphic-storiform
B. Myxoid
C. Giant cell
D. Angiomatoid
A

B. Myxoid

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55
Q 
Where do usually malignant fibrous histiocytoma
occur?
A. Maxilla
B. Mandibular
C. Head and Neck areas
D. Neck area only
A

C. Head and Neck areas

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56
Q

Treatment for nodular fasciitis
A. surgical incision
B. surgical excision
C. conservative excision

A

B. surgical excision

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57
Q 
Abundance of \_\_\_ is noted in Generalized Gingival
Hyperplasia.
A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Fibroblasts
D. All of the above
A

B. Collagen

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58
Q 
What is the most common variant of malignant
fibrous histiocytoma?
A. Prototypical pleomorphic-storiform
B. Myxoid
C. Angiomatoid
D. Gian Cell
A

A. Prototypical pleomorphic-storiform

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59
Q 
Differential diagnosis of Fibrosarcoma, except:
A. Synovial sarcomas
B. Sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcomas
C. Fibrosarcomatous protuberans
D. Neurofibrosarcoma
A

D. Neurofibrosarcoma

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60
Q

Oral lesions appear as firm submucosal nodules or
exophytic masses with a diameter of ______.
A. 0.5-3.0 mm
B. 0.3-0.5 cm
C. 0.3-5.0 mm
D. 0.3-5.0 cm

A

D. 0.3-5.0 cm

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61
Q 
Often demonstrates an alarmingly rapid rate of enlargement after birth and most commonly located
in the oral/pharyngeal mucosa
a. Vascular leiomyoma
b. Myxoid liposarcoma
c. Infantile hemangiopericytoma
d. Angiosarcoma
A

c. Infantile hemangiopericytoma

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62
Q 
Histologically this type of vascular lesion branching vascular channels of varying sizes is often
described as, "staghorn pattern".
a. Hemangiopericytoma
b. Angiosarcoma
c. Lymphangioma
d. Benign lymphangioendothelioma
A

a. Hemangiopericytoma

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63
Q

. It is a relatively rare intraoral tumor made of fat, a round or oval-shaped lump of tissue that grows
just beneath the skin. is a relatively rare intraoral tumor made of fat, a round or oval-shaped lump of
tissue that grows just beneath the skin.
A. RHABDOMYOMA
B. LEIOMYOMA
C. HEMANGIOPERICYTOMA
D. LIPOMA

A

D. LIPOMA

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64
Q

They can feel a soft, mobile mass of tissue beneath the skin. Unless they encroach on joints, nerves,
or blood arteries, they are usually painless. These are frequently seen in the upper torso by patients.
These can arise in muscles or organs on a rare occasion.
A. LEIOMYOSARCOMA
B. LIPOMA
C. LYMPHANGIOMA
D. HEMANGIOPERICYTOMA

A

B. LIPOMA

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65
Q

SKELETAL MUSCLE CELLS with variable degrees of development and maturity in a benign tumor.
Currently characterized as a benign striated muscle tissue tumor.
A. LEIOMYOSARCOMA
B. RHABDOMYOMA
C. RHABDOMYOSARCOMA
D. LEIOMYOMA

A

B. RHABDOMYOMA

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66
Q

4 classifications of Lymphangioma

A
  1. Lymphangioma simplex
  2. cavernous lymphangioma
  3. cystic lymphangioma
  4. benign lymphangioendothelioma
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67
Q

Give at least 2 clinical features of HEMANGIOPERICYTOMA

A
  1. Rapidly enlarging red or bluish mass

2. sessile or pedunculated lesion

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68
Q

Treatment/s for ANGIOSARCOMA

A

Surgical resection

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69
Q

2 types of myossitis ossificans

A
  1. Traumatic myositis

2. Myositis ossificans progressive

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70
Q

Rhabdomyoma is a malignant tumor showing skeletal muscle cell with varying degree of
differentiation and maturity.
a. true
b. false

A

b. false

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71
Q

The most common subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma observed in children, accounting for 60–70% of
all rhabdomyosarcoma cases in this age group.
a. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
b. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
d. botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A

c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

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72
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma is the malignant tumor of striated muscle which is derived from primitive
mesenchyme that retained capacity for skeletal muscle differentiation.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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73
Q

It is a Subclassification of lymphangioma that comprises a dilated lymphatic vessels with adventitia.

a. Lymphangioma simplex
b. Cavernous lymphangioma
c. Cystic lymphangioma
d. Benign lymphaendothelioma

A

b. Cavernous lymphangioma

74
Q

Recommended treatment for Lymphangioma since it is more radioresistant

A

SURGICAL EXCISION

75
Q 
It is a benign hamartomatous hyperplasia of lymphatic vessels three fourths of all cases usually
occurs in the head and neck region.
a. Hemangiopericytoma
b. Lymphangioma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Leiomyoma
A

b. Lymphangioma

76
Q 
The 2 inherited conditions can cause Lipoma:
o Madelung’s disease
o Gardner’s syndrome
o Cowden syndrome
o Adiposis Dolorosa
A

o Gardner’s syndrome

o Cowden syndrome

77
Q

Lipoma are freely movable beneath the mucosa, have a thin epithelium, superficial blood vessels
that are readily visible over the surface. Relatively soft to palpation and usually what color of surface
discoloration?
a. yellow
b. blue
c. brown
d. red

78
Q

Stage of intraosseous lipoma lesions with partial necrosis based on the degree of involution.

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

b. Stage 2

79
Q

Average diameter of a well-circumscribed palpable mass of Liposarcoma

a. 11cm
b. 9cm
c. 10cm
d. 8cm

80
Q

A rare type of cancer that begins in the fat cells and considered a type of soft tissue sarcoma. It can
occur in fat cells in any part of the body, but most cases occur in the muscles of the limbs or in the
abdomen.
a. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Liposarcoma

A

d. Liposarcoma

81
Q

Extremely rare malignant mesenchymal tumor with a differentiation into vascular endothelium. It
can occur in any location, the most common sites are soft tissue and skin. May appear macular, nodular
or plaque-like.
a. Hemongiopericytoma
b. Angiosarcoma
c. Leiomyoma
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

b. Angiosarcoma

82
Q

The muscle in this disease is gradually replaced by connective tissue which undergoes osteoid
formation and subsequently ossification. In some cases cartilage formation may also be evident.
Characteristically, intact muscle fibers may be found within the bony tissue.
a. Myositis Ossificans Progressiva
b. Traumatic Myositis Ossificans
c. Leiomyoma
d. Rhabdomyoma

A

a. Myositis Ossificans Progressiva

83
Q

Locally aggressive tumor with a high rate of lymph node infiltration and metastases.

a. Angiosarcoma
b. Lipoma
c. Hemangiopericytoma
d. Lymphangioma

A

a. Angiosarcoma

84
Q

Muscle lesions, except.

a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Leiomyoma
d. Hemangiopericytoma

A

d. Hemangiopericytoma

85
Q

Most common sites of angiosarcoma are soft tissues and skin. Angiosarcoma of oral cavity is
extremely rare.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect
c. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

A

a. Both statements are correct.

86
Q

. Least common of all rhabdomyosarcoma

a. Botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A

c. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

87
Q

Myositis ossificans progressiva treatment

a. Surgical excision
b. No treatment

A

b. No treatment

88
Q

. The radiographic pattern may appear either as a feathery type of calcification in muscle, following ossification of a hematoma which dissected along muscle bundles, or as a solitary irregular calci- fied mass occurring in a simple hematoma.

A

Traumatic Myositis Ossificans

89
Q

Clinical features of angiosarcoma is a rapidly enlarging red or bluish mass.

a. True
b. False

90
Q

Occurs more frequently in the extremities than in other sites and is generally seen in older
individuals. It is occasionally ulcerated and may invade underlying bone and develop distant metastases.
The most common site of presentation is head and neck region
a. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
b. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
d. botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma

A

a. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

91
Q

. It is a rare malignant vascular neoplasm of endothelial-type cells that line vessel walls.

a. Lipoma
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangiopericytoma
d. Angiosarcoma

A

d. Angiosarcoma

92
Q

The most common site of radiation-induced angiosarcoma development.

a. Head & neck
b. Breast
c. Liver
d. Kidney

93
Q

Lymphangiomas are benign, hamartomatous malformations originate from lymph vessels.
Which of the following is the most frequent location of lymphagiomas that oftenresulted to
macroglossia?
a. Dorsum of the tongue
b. Palate and buccal mucosa
c. Gingiva
d. Anterior two-thirds of the tongue

A

d. Anterior two-thirds of the tongue

94
Q

. Lymphangiomas exhibit these clinical features except;

a. Red or purple nodules
b. pebbly surface resembling cluster of translucent vesicles
c. frog eggs or tapioca pudding
d. All of the above

A

a. Red or purple nodules

95
Q

What type of lesion is the Lipoma?

a. fat lesion
b. Muscle lesion
c. Vascular lesion

A

a. fat lesion

96
Q

Rarest site of lipoma?

a. Buccal mucosa
b. Lips
c. tongue
d. palate

97
Q

Often misdiagnosed as a non-malignant lesion because of its asymptomatic condition of slow -
growing painless and circumscribed submucosal mass which maybe present for several months or years
before the diagnose.
A. Hemangiopericytoma
B. Liposarcoma
C. Lipoma
D. Lymphangioma

A

B. Liposarcoma

98
Q

Which statement is correct about Liposarcoma:
A. Most frequently arise from the deep-seated stroma rather than the submucosal or the
subcutaneous fat.
B. Dermal lesions are rare and may resemble as phleomorphic fibroma
C. Both A and B

A

C. Both A and B

99
Q

What is the treatment for rhabdomyosarcoma?

a. Supportive care
b. Complete resection
c. Combination of surgery, radiation and chemotherapy
d. Surgical excision

A

c. Combination of surgery, radiation and chemotherapy

100
Q

Presents as a rapidly growing mass that may cause pain or paresthesia if jaw involvement occurs

a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Lipoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Myositis ossificans

A

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma

101
Q

Histologically it appears as an area with osteoid material surrounded by osteoblasts and a central
zone made of a cellular proliferation, well delimited and with peripheral mature laminar bone that
formed trabeculae.
A. Sterner’s Tumor
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Angiosarcoma
D. Lymphangioma

A

A. Sterner’s Tumor

102
Q

.Best treatment/management for Myositis Ossificans …
A. Surgical Incision
B. Use of radiation in combination with drug administration
C. Wide Surgical Excision with free margins
D. Chemotherapy

A

C. Wide Surgical Excision with free margins

103
Q 
What is the best way to treat leiomyosarcoma
A. Radiation therapy
B. Complete resection
C. Surgical incision
D. Chemotherapy
A

B. Complete resection

104
Q

There is no definite identifiable factor as a causative factor for leiomyosarcoma.
A. True
B. False

105
Q 
Present as slow growing, asymptomatic sub mucosal masses, usually in the tongue, hard palate or
buccal mucosa
a. Lipoma
b. Leiomyoma
c. Leiomyosarcoma
d. Liposarcoma
A

b. Leiomyoma

106
Q

What is the best treatment for Leiomyoma?

a. Surgical incision
b. Surgical excision
c. Complete resection
d. Radiation therapy

A

b. Surgical excision

107
Q

. It is a genetic disorder that causes tumors to form in many different organs, has been reported in up
to 60-80% of patients diagnosed with rhabdomyomas.
a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. Marfan syndrome

A

a. Tuberous sclerosis

108
Q

. What is the imaging modality of choice for rhabdomyoma?

a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Xray

109
Q 
Treatment for hemangiopericytoma
A. surgical resection
B. Wide local excision
C. conservative excision
D. surgical incision
A

B. Wide local excision

110
Q 
Is a soft tissue tumor arising from the pericytes of Zimmermann
A. Angiosarcoma
B. Leiomyosarcoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. hemangiopericytoma
A

D. hemangiopericytoma

111
Q

It is a locally aggressive tumor with a high rate of lymph node infiltration and metastases.

a. Angiosarcoma
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangiopericytoma
d. Lipoma

A

a.Angiosarcoma

112
Q

Myositis ossificans developing after a single acute traumatic injury usually manifests as a firm and
painful mass in the injured muscle. Mild discomfort without progressive limitation of motion.
A. ALL STATEMENTS ARE TRUE
B. ALL STATEMENTS ARE FALSE
C. FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE WHILE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE
D. FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE WHILE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

C. FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE WHILE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE

113
Q

The palate, mandible and lower lip are the most common site of hemangiopericytoma. No etiological
factors identified.
A. ALL STATEMENTS ARE TRUE
B. ALL STATEMENTS ARE FALSE
C. FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE WHILE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE
D. FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE WHILE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

A. ALL STATEMENTS ARE TRUE

114
Q 
Univaculated and multivaculated nucleated lipoblasts.
A. Lymphangioma
B. Hemangiopericytoma
C. Lipoma
D. Liposarcoma
A

D. Liposarcoma

115
Q

Lipomas are benign, slow growing, soft tissue mesenchymal tumors. Lipomas of oral cavity is
common.
A. 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement is wrong.
B. 1st statement is wrong, 2nd is correct
C. Both statements are wrong
D. Both statements are correct

A

A. 1st statement is correct, 2nd statement is wrong.

116
Q

what are the 3 principal microscopic forms of rhabdomyosarcoma?

a. spindle, botryoid, strap
b. alveolar,pleomorphic, embryonic
c. spindle, alveolar, botryoid

A

b. alveolar,pleomorphic, embryonic

117
Q

Leiomyoma usually arises from

a. Oral cavity
b. muscle tissue
c. blood vessel
d. buccal mucosa

A

a. Oral cavity

118
Q 
Histopathology of Lymphangioma shows lymphatic spaces that contain:
A. RBC
B. PROTEINACEOUS FLUID
C. BOTH A AND B
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
A

C. BOTH A AND B

119
Q

Which is true about leiomyosarcoma?
A. A very rare tumor that is associated with aggressive clinical behavior and low survival
B. Presenting signs and symptoms are generally non-specific, usually painless
C. Higher incidence is supposed to occur among children
D. A and B are both correct

A

D. A and B are both correct

120
Q

Patients with rhabdomyoma should be monitored with

a. Echocardiography
b. Electrocardiography
c. Both a and b

A

c. Both a and b

121
Q 
Granular cell tumor is a rare softtissue neoplasm that occur anywhere
in the body especially in
a. mouth
b. tongue
c. neck
d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

122
Q 
Prominent feature of Granular Cell
Tumors
a. presence of microfilaments
b. pseudoepitheliomatous
hyperplasia
c. autophagic vacuoles
d. unencapsulated sheets of large
polygonal cells
A

b. pseudoepitheliomatous

hyperplasia

123
Q 
Congenital Granular Cell tumor occurs
in any site. It only occurs on infants.
a. Statement 1 is false.
Statement 2 is true.
b. Statement 1 is true. Statement
2 is false.
c. All statements are true.
d. All statements are false.
A

a. Statement 1 is false.

Statement 2 is true.

124
Q 
Treatment and Prognosis of GCTs.
a. conservative surgical incision
with poor prognosis.
b. conservative surgical incision
with excellent prognosis.
c. conservative surgical excision
with excellent prognosis.
d. conservative surgical excision
with poor prognosis
A

c. conservative surgical excision

with excellent prognosis.

125
Q 
Granular cell tumors usually begins in
\_\_\_ cells
a. Schwann Cells
b. Fibroblasts
c. Satellite Cells
d. Loose connective tissue
A

a. Schwann Cells

126
Q 
Neural sheath in origin and has intact
epithelium
a. Traumatic Neuroma
b. Oral Granular Cell Tumor
c. Olfactory neuroblastoma
d. Schwannoma
A

b. Oral Granular Cell Tumor

127
Q 
Has large uniform cells with granular
cytoplasms
a. Oral GCT
b. Congenital GCT
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
A

c. Both A & B

128
Q

Treatment for Traumatic Neuroma

a. Surgical excision
b. Incision
c. Conservative excision
d. No treatment

A

a. Surgical excision

129
Q 
Differential diagnosis of Traumatic
Neuroma
a. Traumatic Fibroma
b. Lymphagioma
c. C.lipoma
d. Neurofibroma
A

d. Neurofibroma

130
Q

Caused by injury to peripheral nerve

a. Granular cell tumor
b. Schwannoma
c. Traumatic neuroma
d. Olfactory neuroblastoma

A

c. Traumatic neuroma

131
Q 
All are true about Traumatic neuroma
except
a. It is small, firm, slow glowing
often painful nodules
b. Usually arise from the side of a
nerve
c. Originate from schwann cells
d. D It is yellowish surface
A

a. It is small, firm, slow glowing

often painful nodules

132
Q 
It may occur centrally in association
with nerve trunk
a. Olfactory Neuroblastoma
b. Traumatic neuroma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Schwannoma
A

b. Traumatic neuroma

133
Q 
Histopathologic features of Traumatic
neuroma
a. Vessels are prominent and
often surrounded by a dense
sclerosis
b. No distinct myelin sheath
c. A histologic subtype is
plexiform neurofibroma
d. Fungating, plexiform and
multilobular variants may occur
A

b. No distinct myelin sheath

134
Q 
Microscopically, bundles of nerves in a
haphazard or tortuous arrangement
are found admixed with dense
collagenous fibrous tissue.
a. Traumatic neuroma
b. Neurofibroma
c. Mucosal neuroma
d. Granular Cell Tumor
A

a. Traumatic neuroma

135
Q 
Schwannomas originate from what
cell?
a. White Blood Cells
b. Spindle Cells
c. Brain Cells
d. Schwann Cells
A

d. Schwann Cells

136
Q 
What best describes a Schwannoma’s
malignancy?
a. Always malignant
b. Rarely malignant
c. Never malignant
d. Situationally malignant
A

b. Rarely malignant

137
Q 
Which is true for Schwannomas?
a. They are triangular lesions
b. Nerves are pushed out of the
tumor
c. Commonly cancerous
d. Nerves inflate into tumors
A

b. Nerves are pushed out of the

tumor

138
Q

How are Schwannomas treated?

a. Excision
b. Incision
c. Revision
d. Derision

A

a. Excision

139
Q 
What neoplasm is said to originate
from Schwann cells that is described to
be well circumscribed, minimally
invasive, and is classified as idiopathic
a. Shawarma
b. Olfactory Neuroma
c. Schwannoma
d. Neurofibroma
A

c. Schwannoma

140
Q 
What radiographic analysis can be
observed in Schwannoma?
a. Cystic and fatty degeneration
b. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
Type 2B Presents Early in
Childhood
c. dumbbell shaped mass
centered at cribriform
d. Beef fatty sauce with welldefined borders
A

a. Cystic and fatty degeneration

141
Q 
Schwannoma’s cellular are composed
of?
a. Lobular growth pattern, with
asymmetrical contours and
sharply delineated borders.
b. haphazard arrangement of
bland cells with spindled and
oval nuclei
c. A round cell tumor
d. Haphazard arrangement of
small nerve fascicles
A

b. haphazard arrangement of
bland cells with spindled and
oval nuclei

142
Q 
Schwannomas are malignant
encapsulated tumors found on the
nerve sheath.
a. False
b. True
143
Q 
It is broadly classified as dermal
(myxoid) and plexiform neurofibromas.
a. Palisaded Encapsulated
Neuroma
b. Schwannoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Traumatic Neuroma
A

c. Neurofibroma

144
Q

Solitary nodular neurofibroma, except:

a) lipoma
b) amyloidosis
c) traumatic fibroma
d) granular cell tumor

A

b) amyloidosis

145
Q 
It is the histologic subtype of
neurofibroma
a) fusiform or wavy nuclei
b) spindle-shaped cells
c) plexiform neurofibroma
d) mast cell
A

c) plexiform neurofibroma

146
Q

Diffuse neurofibroma, except:

a. granular cell tumor
b. lymphangioma
c. amyloidosis
d. all of the above

A

a. granular cell tumor

147
Q 
A benign tumors of nerve sheath origin
involving multiple nerve fascicles of the
smaller branches of peripheral nerves.
a) Palisaded Encapsulated
Neuroma
b) Granular Cell Tumor
c) Neurofibroma
d) Schwannoma
A

c) Neurofibroma

148
Q 
Differential Diagnosis Solitary nodular
neurofibroma.
a) Granular cell tumor
b) Schwannoma
c) Salivary gland tumors
d) Palisaded encapsulated
neuroma
A

a) Granular cell tumor

149
Q 
. Clinical Features of neurofibroma,
except.
a) Nonulcerated nodules
b) Crowe’s sign
c) Lisch spots
d) Encapsulated submucosal mass
A

d) Encapsulated submucosal mass

150
Q 
Treatment for neurifibroma.
a) Surgical excision
b) Prophylactic thyroidectomy
c) Radiation
d) Combination of surgery,
radiation, and chemotherapy
A

a) Surgical excision

151
Q 
It comprises a group of conditions characterized
by neoplasms arising in several endocrine
organs.
a. Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma
b. Schwannoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Multiple endocrine neoplasia or MEN
syndromes
A

d. Multiple endocrine neoplasia or MEN

syndromes

152
Q

Is caused by a mutation in the RET oncogene
resulting in a single amino acid substitution of a
single methionine to threonine that affects a
critical region of the tyrosine kinase catalytic
core.
a. Solitary neurofibroma
b. MEN III
c. MEN I
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)

A

b. MEN III

153
Q

It usually appears early in life as small, discrete
nodules on the conjunctiva, labia, or larynx, or
in the oral cavity.
a. Mucosal neuromas of MEN III
b. Palisaded encapsulated neuroma
c. Esthesioneuroblastoma
d. Granular Cell Tumors

A

a. Mucosal neuromas of MEN III

154
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is where the Multiple endocrine
neoplasia oral lesions are seen.
a. Gingiva, buccal mucosa, tongue
b. Hard palate and lips
c. Tongue, lips, and buccal mucosa
d. Soft palate and tongue
A

c. Tongue, lips, and buccal mucosa

155
Q 
Mucosal neuromas are composed of
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of nerve tissue surrounded by
normal connective tissue.
a. serpiginous bands
b. prominent lymphatic vessels
c. pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
d. palisaded schwannoma cells
A

a. serpiginous bands

156
Q

A progressive malignancy that invades locally
and has the ability to metastasize to local lymph
nodes and distant organs.
a. neurilemmoma
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)
d. Olfactory neuroblastoma

A

c. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)

157
Q 
A benign neoplasm that produces
catecholamines that may cause significant
hypertension and other cardiovascular
abnormalities.
a. esthesioneuroblastoma
b. pheochromocytoma
c. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)
d. Schwannoma
A

b. pheochromocytoma

158
Q

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor is
commonly found in people with this genetic
condition.
a. Neurofibromatosis type 1
b. Neurofibromatosis type 2
c. Neurofibroma
d. None of the above

A

a. Neurofibromatosis type 1

159
Q 
When Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
gets larger, what does it manifests?
a. Symptoms includes lump under the
skin, weakness and pain.
b. Could result in anasopharyngeal mass
or an invasive maxillary sinus lesion
c. No symptoms at all
d. Café-au-lait macules are seen
A

a. Symptoms includes lump under the

skin, weakness and pain.

160
Q

Where does Malignant peripheral nerve sheath
tumor arise more often when it is seen on the
bone?
a. Buccal Nerve
b. Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve
c. Inferior Alveolar Nerve
d. Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve

A

c. Inferior Alveolar Nerve

161
Q 
Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
believed to be from which cell origin?
a. Microglial cell
b. Ependymal cell
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Schwann cell
A

d. Schwann cell

162
Q 
Histopathologic activity of Malignant peripheral
nerve sheath tumor, except…
a. Resembles neurofibroma
b. Indistinct cytoplasm
c. Abundance of spindle cells
d. Areas of apoptosis
A

d. Areas of apoptosis

163
Q 
Differential diagnosis of Malignant peripheral
nerve sheath tumor.
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Epithelioid sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Uterine sarcoma
A

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma

164
Q 
What is the best treatment for Malignant
peripheral nerve sheath tumor?
a. Radiation therapy
b. Excision with wide free margins
c. Chemotherapy
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

165
Q

Patients with neurofibromatosis 2 are at high
risk of developing benign and malignant nerve
sheath tumor. Treatment of Malignant
peripheral nerve sheath tumor could cause
metastasis.
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. 1
st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
d. 1
st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

A

d. 1

st statement is false, 2nd statement is true

166
Q 
What are the symptoms of Olfactory
Neuroblastoma?
a. Losing the sense of smell
b. Frequent nosebleeds
c. Difficulty breathing through the nose
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

167
Q

High-risk patients with neuroblastoma can be
maintained in continual remission with antiGD2-specific monoclonal antibody therapy
combined with GM-CSF with / without IL-2
a. True
b. False

168
Q 
A thorough history and a comprehensive head
and neck examination are not performed
initially.
c. True
d. False
169
Q

Olfactory Neuroblastoma is a round cell tumor

e. True
f. False

170
Q 
What color does Olfactory Neuroblastoma
appear to be on t1 weight images?
a. Black
b. White
c. Hypointense to gray
d. Yellow
A

c. Hypointense to gray

171
Q 
What does T3 mean in TNM Classification?
g. into the orbit/protruding into the anterior
cranial fossa, without dural invasion
h. involving the nasal cavity and/or pns
(excluding sphenoid)
i. including sphenoid with extension to or
erosion of the cribriform plate
j. involving the brain
A

g. into the orbit/protruding into the anterior

cranial fossa, without dural invasion

172
Q

Another term for Olfactory Neuroblastoma

k. Sarcoma
l. Carcinoma
m. Lymphoma
n. Esthesioneuroblastoma

A

n. Esthesioneuroblastoma

173
Q

. _________ is a rare form of cancer involving
nasal cavity and believed to arise from the
olfactory epithelium.
o. Lymphoma
p. Olfactory Neuroblastoma
q. Sarcoma
r. Carcinoma

A

p. Olfactory Neuroblastoma

174
Q

It is a distinctive benign neural tumor, which
usually presents as a solitary skin-colored
papule or a nodule.
a. Neural Lesions
b. Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma
c. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndromes
d. Olfactory Neuroblastoma

A

b. Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma

175
Q

Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma (PEN) is also
called as?
a. Neural Lesions
b. Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma
c. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndromes
d. Solitary Circumscribed Neuroma

A

d. Solitary Circumscribed Neuroma

176
Q 
What is the only definitive way to treat
Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma?
a. Immunotherapy
b. Surgical excision
c. Chemotherapy
d. Surgery: Wide Excision
A

b. Surgical excision

177
Q 
Where does the Palisaded Encapsulated
Neuroma occur?
a. Palate
b. Nose
c. Lips
d. Head
178
Q 
What is the shaped of the Palisaded
Encapsulated Neuroma?
a. Dome- shaped
b. Spherical shaped
c. Shoe shaped
d. Curved shape
A

a. Dome- shaped

179
Q

What does this dome-shaped nodule exhibits?

a. infiltrative growth pattern
b. Solid microscopic pattern
c. Myoepithelial Cells
d. Fascicular microscopic pattern

A

d. Fascicular microscopic pattern

180
Q

What does Palisaded Encapsulated Neuroma is
associated with?
a. Neurofibromatosis
b. MEN III
c. Both Neurofibromatosis and MEN III
d. It is not associated with Neurofibromatosis
or MEN III

A

d. It is not associated with Neurofibromatosis

or MEN III

Oral Path 2 (1 decks)

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