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Personal Licence Training > Legislation and Ethics > Flashcards

Legislation and Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

What is moral philosophy?

A

The process by which we attempt to distinguish right from wrong

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2
Q

Are all things that are legal necessarily ethical?

A

No

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3
Q

What is Utilitarian/Consequentialist Ethics?

A

A theory that weighs up the pleasure/benefit derived by an action against the suffering/cost incurred. (Created by Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill)

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4
Q

What are three disadvantages of a Utilitarian/Consequentialist ethical assessment?

A

Whether the action is right or wrong is largely dependent on the intended outcome, outcome may sometimes differ in reality. So, often includes a high level of uncertainty.

Serves the “greater good” so may discriminate against minority groups.

The circumstance under which the assessment is being made will influence the outcome.

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5
Q

What is the criteria used in forming a Consequentialist/Utilitarian assessment?

A 
Intensity – extent of pleasure/benefit
Duration – how long it will last
Certainty – likelihood of success
Proximity –time before effect occurs
Fecundity – productiveness 
Purity – possible adverse effects
Extent – how many will be affected
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6
Q

What is Non-Consequentialist (Deontological) Ethics?

A

A method of ethics assessment based on adherence to rules, duties or obligations.

Actions are inherently right or wrong irrespective of the intended outcome.

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7
Q

What are two criticisms of Non-Consequentialist ethics?

A

Time, circumstance and new knowledge have little influence on the ethical decision

Ethical decisions are difficult to influence by rational argument or discussion

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8
Q

What is moral absolutism?

A

An ethical view based on the belief that certain actions are right or wrong regardless of context or circumstance.

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9
Q

Why can’t we use humans instead of animals for research?

A

Difficult to recruit suitable volunteers
Very restrictive on the severity of interventions that can be performed
Wide variation between subjects
Volunteers have to be fully informed, which may influence the outcome

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10
Q

What are Marshall Hall’s Five Principles to justify animal experimentation?

A
  1. The required data can only be obtained by experimentation
  2. The experiment must have clearly defined objectives
  3. The science must relflect current understanding and avoid duplication
  4. The methods used should be the least sever needed to meet the objective
  5. Experiments must be designed to give the clearest possible results
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11
Q

What did the Cruelty to Animal Act (1876) do?

A

Made vivisection an act of cruelty unless performed in compliance with the Act.

Key points:

  1. Registered places used for studies
  2. Banned use of paralysing drugs
  3. Regulated what could be done without anaesthetic
  4. Restricted studies conducted on cats, dogs and horses
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12
Q

What is the purpose of the Animal Scientific Procedures Act (1986) (Directive 2010/63/EU)?

A

Enables regulated procedures to be performed on protected animals for a permissible purpose that would otherwise constitute an offence under other legislation (e.g. Protection of Animals Act 1911 or Animal Welfare Act 2006)

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13
Q

What is a regulated procedure?

A

Anything that has the potential to cause pain, suffering, distress or lasting harm or anything that effects the animals physical, mental or social wellbeing. This includes things done directly to the animal, such as dosing or sample, and things done indirectly e.g. withholding for or water.

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14
Q

What is a non-regulated procedure?

A

Anything done as part of normal husbandry e.g. marking for identification

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15
Q

What is Schedule 1 of the ASPA?

A

A list of the methods of killing that can be performed by any competent person registered with the University (for example).

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16
Q

What is Schedule 2 of the ASPA?

A

A list of the species that MUST be obtained from an ASPA registered source.

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17
Q

What is a protected animal?

A

All living vertebrates (excluding humans) and cephalopods, this includes foetal mammals, birds and reptiles during the last third of gestation, fish and amphibians once they can feed independently and cephalopods from the point of hatching.
Also includes embryonic and foetal forms during the first two thirds of gestation if they will live beyond the point they become protected and could result in pain and suffering after they become protected.

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18
Q

What is the definition of ‘living’ under the ASPA guidelines?

A

An animal is ‘living’ until its circulation stops or its brain is destroyed.

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19
Q

What are the seven ‘permissible purposes’?

A
  1. Prevention, diagnosis or treatment of disease
  2. Assessment or regulation of physiology
  3. Protection of the natural environment
  4. Advancement of biological and behavioural knowledge
  5. Higher education or vocational skills training
  6. Forensic enquiries
  7. The breeding of animals for scientific use
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20
Q

Who does ASPA apply to?

A

Any one using or killing animals for a permissible purpose, those who hold, or are names, on a licence granted under ASPA and any one performing Schedule 1 killing

21
Q

What are the three types of ASPA licence?

A

Establishment licence, project licence and personal licence

22
Q

Who issues ASPA licences?

A

The Secretary of State for the Home Office

23
Q

Where is an establishment license required?

A

Places where:

Regulated procedures are conducted on protected species
Animals listed in Schedule 2 are bred
Animals listed under Schedule 2 are kept or supplied from to other establishment licensed premises

24
Q

Who are the six named individuals on the establishment licence?

A 
Establishment Licence Holder
Named Person Responsible for Compliance 
Named Animal Care and Welfare Office
Named Training and Competency Office 
Named Veterinary Surgeon
25
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Establishment Licence Holder?

A

Ensuring compliance with the ASPA:

Suitability of building
Care of animals
Work conducted under Project licences
Competence of all personnel

26
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Person Responsible for Compliance?

A

Ensuring compliance
The promotion of a culture of care throughout the establishment
Ensuring that mechanisms exist for raising ‘cause for concern’

27
Q

What are the responsibilities of the NACWO?

A

Responsible to the ELH to ensure compliance under ASPA

Responsible for the day to day care of animals held under ASPA

28
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Named Information Officer?

A

Ensure that those working under ASPA have access to the information they need

29
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Named Training and Competency Officer?

A

Responsible for ensuring that those dealing with animals are adequately educated, trained and supervised

30
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Named Veterinary Surgeon?

A

Responsible for advising the ELH on the health and welfare of animals held under ASPA
To provide advice on animal welfare issues including surgical and anaesthetic techniques
To provide advice on the workings of the ASPA
Prescribing drugs used under the ASPA

31
Q

What does the establishment licence specify?

A

The place
The type of animal
The duration of the holding
The type of procedure

32
Q

What is the project licence?

A

The licence granted by the secretary of state authorising a programme of specified regulated procedures at a Designated Establishment or a (POLE) for a permissible purpose

33
Q

What are POLE’s?

A

Places where animal studies are conducted outside a designated establishment (e.g. field studies or specialised vehicles)

34
Q

What is a project licence holder?

A

Must be someone who:

Is able to take responsibility for the scientific direction of the work

Can adequately supervise the personal licensees working under the PPL

Has completed a module 5 training course

35
Q

What are the responsibilities of the PPL holder?

A

Ensuring compliance with the licence

Ensuring severity limits are not exceeded

Ensuring only authorised species and numbers of animals are used

Inform HO if a severity limit is exceeded

Maintaining accurate records (5 years)

Providing adequate training/supervision

Submitting the annual returns

36
Q

What does the project licence outline?

A 
The background to the work
The potential benefits
The programme of work
What will happen to the animals 		
How suffering will be minimised (3Rs)
37
Q

What is the plan of work?

A
  1. is the most likely one to succeed
  2. uses the minimum number of animals
  3. has a valid statistical design
  4. use animals with the lowest neurophysiological sensitivity
  5. cause the least level of suffering
  6. Explains why the results could not be obtained by any other reasonable means
38
Q

What are the 3R’s?

A

Replacement - Wherever possible methods that do not rely on the use of protected species should be used.

Reduction - The number of animals used should be reduced to the minimum needed to achieve the scientific objective

Refinement -should use the method that causes the least possible harm to the animals
and should use animals of the lowest neurophysiological state suitable for the study

39
Q

What are the severity bands?

A

Mild
Moderate
Severe
Non-recovery

40
Q

What is the definition of mild severity?

A

Protocols cause only slight or transitory adverse effects

41
Q

What is the definition of moderate severity?

A

Protocols that would cause major suffering unless appropriate controls were in place e.g. surgery

42
Q

What is the definition of severe severity?

A

Protocols which markedly affect the animals health or wellbeing

43
Q

What is the definition of non-recovery?

A

Studies performed whilst the animal is maintained under general anaesthesia, the animal must be killed whilst still anaesthetised and can’t be allowed to recover

44
Q

What is a personal licence?

A

Permits the holder to perform regulated procedures authority in a project licence

45
Q

What is the restriction of the personal licence?

A

The techniques that can be used are restricted to those:

Permitted in section 8 of the PIL and listed in the PPL protocol under which the work is being conducted

46
Q

What information should be labelled on a cage?

A

PPL Number
The PIL holder responsible
The protocol number
The start date of the protocol

47
Q

Who is in the animal welfare and ethical review bodies?

A

NACWO, scientists, NVS and lay members

48
Q

What does AWERB do?

A

Reviews the ethics of all work conducted on protected animals by the institute
Includes studies not covered under ASPA
Advises ELH on the ethical acceptability of PPL applications and the progress of studies being conducted
Approves animal studies conducted outwith of ASPA
Provides support to named individuals

Personal Licence Training (2 decks)

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