Legal Services - SQE 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 4-stage test for determining whether something is a regulated activity?

A
  1. Are you in a business?
  2. Is there a specified investment?
  3. Is there a specified activity?
  4. Is the activity excluded?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What constitutes a specified activity?

A
  1. Dealing
  2. Arranging
  3. Managing
  4. Safeguarding
  5. Advising
  6. Lending money on/administering a regulated mortgage contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What activities are excluded under the FSMA?

A
  1. Introducing
  2. Using an authorised third party
  3. Acting for an execution-only client
  4. Acting as trustee/PR
  5. Professional/necessary exclusion
  6. Takeover exclusion (must be acquiring 50%+ of shares)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What conditions need to be satisfied for the exemption to apply?

A
  1. Must not receive any benefit/advantage from a third party that it does not account to its clients for
  2. Specified activity must be a minor, incidental part of the professional services
  3. Must be a member of a profession that is regulated by a professional body
  4. Person must comply with the rules of their professional body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the test for a specified activity being incidental?

A

Specific test = regulated activity must arise out of/be complementary to some other service being provided by the firm

General test = cannot be a major part of firm’s activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is required under standard due diligence?

A

Verify the identity of the client on ID documents received from an independent source

Verify the beneficial owner and their identity

Verify authorisation
- eg: when someone purports to act on behalf of a client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors point towards using simplified due diligence?

A
  1. Company is listed on regulated market
  2. Location of regulated market
  3. Where the client is established and does business
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors point towards using enhanced due diligence?

A
  1. Client provided false/stolen ID
  2. Client is a PEP or family member of a PEP
  3. Complex/unusually large transaction which has not economic or legal purpose
  4. Client/counter-part to transaction is in a high risk country
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a client on the ‘sanctioned list’, can a firm still act for them?

A

Yes if they obtain a licence to receive reasonable fees for the provision of legal advice to someone on the sanctioned list

Firms can face liability even where they have no knowledge/reasonable cause to suspect that a transaction is in breach of the sanctions’ regime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the arrangement which one knows/supsect facilitates money laundering offence

A

An arrangement which know/suspect facilitates the acquisition/retention/use/control of proceeds of crime

Know/suspect is subjective; must amount to ‘suspicion’

Criminal property = the property constitutes or represents benefit from criminal conduct
- If committed abroad, it will come under the definition of criminal conduct if it would have been considered as such in the UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the authorised disclosure defence and the circumstances which enable a solicitor to exercise it?

A

Making a disclosure, normally to the nominated officer whose responsibility it is to report a suspicious activity report to the NCA

Before the act: once SAR has been sent, officer cannot give consent until:
a) Nominated officer receives consent
b) Nominated officer hears nothing for 7 days
c) Where consent is refused, nominated officer cannot give consent unless subsequently granted within 31 days or if the 31 day period expires
- 31 day period gives authorities time to take action with respect to the money laundering

During the act:
a) When the solicitor began to do the act, they did not know/suspect that property represented a benefit from criminal conduct; and
b) Disclosure is made as soon as practicable and on solicitor’s own initiative

After the act: must have goods reasons for failing to disclose; must be done as soon as practicable and on their own initiative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define the overseas defence

A

Knew/believed criminal conduct occurred abroad and conduct was lawful in country where it took place

Secretary of State does have the power to override this provision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the acquiring/possessing/using criminal property offence

A

Acquiring/using/possessing criminal property

Usually for those who had no involvement in the original crime, but have enjoyed the benefit

Defences:

  1. Authorised disclosure defence
  2. Overseas defence; and
  3. Adequate consideration defence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the concealing money laundering offence

A

Concealing/disguising/converting/transferring criminal property or removing it from the UK

Authorised disclosure and overseas defence applies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the failing to disclose offence

A

Max 5 years’ imprisonment

  1. Know/suspect OR have reasonable grounds to know/suspect (=> objective) person is engaged in money laundering
  2. Information comes in course of business in regulated sector
  3. Information may assist in identifying money launderer/location of laundered property; and
  4. Do not make disclosure as soon as is practicable

Legal professional privilege defence applies, as well as overseas defence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the tipping off offence

A

Tipping off/altering someone suspected of money laundering (or an associate) that an investigation has started/is anticipated

Can be committed through disclosing a disclosure/investigation

Unlimited fine/2 years’ imprisonment

17
Q

What are the defences to tipping off?

A
  1. Person making disclosure did not know/suspect that disclosure would prejudice the investigation
  2. Disclosure was made by an adviser to their client for the purposes of dissuading the client from engaging in alleged money laundering