Legal Medicine Flashcards

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1
Q

Medical jurisprudence

A

Laws, rules and doctrines, legal opinions of the authority regarding the governance and regulation of the practice of medicine

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2
Q

The practice of medicine is a right or privilege?

A

Privilege

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3
Q

Law that governs the medical prac in the Philippines?

A

Medical act of 1959; as amended.

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4
Q

Natural law :

Divine law :

Moral law :

A
  1. Rational thinking
  2. 10 commandments
  3. Conscience
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5
Q

Substantive law:

Procedural law:

A
  1. Rights and obligations ofpeople in their daily lives between each other and society
  2. Substantive rights and duties are enforced: litigation criminal.
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6
Q

Public Law

Private Law

A
  1. Between state and subjecet; state’s political and sovereign capacity
  2. Relationship between 2 individuals.
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7
Q

Practice of medicine is based on the _________ power of the state

A
  1. Police

The govt should be able to protect the citizens from stupid doctors.

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8
Q

The nature of the contract between patient and physician consensual and fiduciary.

Meaning?

A
  1. Consensual: both consent to it

2. Fiduciary: based on trust and confidence.

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9
Q

Types of contractual relationships

  1. Expressed
  2. Implied contract
A
  1. Expressed: oral OR writing

2. Inferred (patient at doctors clinic, unconscious in ER)

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10
Q

The contract is “commenced” when?

A
  1. Invitation of physician
  2. Patient agrees
  3. Physician treats
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11
Q

Special NO RELATIONSHIP

A
  1. Pre employment PE
  2. Eligibility of insurance
  3. MD appointed by court to examine
  4. Surgeon performing autopsy
  5. Casual questions asked
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12
Q

Patterns of relationship

  1. Activity passivity
  2. Guided cooperation
  3. Mutual participation
A
  1. All doctor no input from patient
  2. Patient fully cooperates with doctor
  3. Equal, jammy/unsympathetic
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13
Q

Duties in the physician patient relationship

A
  1. Average MD knowledge
  2. Ordinary care and diligence
  3. Best judgment
  4. Utmost good faith
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14
Q

Duties of a patient

A
  1. Honest medical history
  2. Cooperate follow the instructions of the doctor
  3. Give feedback on the treatment
  4. State if he understands the treatemtn
  5. Exercise prudence of an ordinary patient
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15
Q

INHERENT Rights of a physician

A
  1. To choose patients WAIVED if in an emergency: loss to life and limb
  2. Limit the field of practice
  3. Determine appropriate management
  4. Avail of hospital services: clinic vs hospital; private vs public
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16
Q

INCIDENTAL rights

A
  1. Right of way
  2. Exemption from execution of instruments and library
  3. Hold public or private offices
  4. Right to compensation
  5. Right to membership in medical societies.
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17
Q

Unethical fees include

  1. Contingent fee
  2. Dichotomous fee/ splitting/ commission
  3. Pakyaw / straight fee
A
  1. Depends on success of treatment
  2. Self explanatory
  3. “Packages”: unethical bec if its not part of the package then you might not be able to give it
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18
Q

Legal age

Solis :

Family code of 1988:

A
  1. 16M 14F

2. 18

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19
Q

Criminal liability (revised penal code; article 365)

A crime is commited when?

A
  1. Deliberate harm
  2. Negligence
  3. Imprudence
  4. Lack of foresight
  5. Lack of skill
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20
Q

Burden of proof

  1. Criminal
  2. Civil
  3. Administrative
A
  1. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  2. Preponderance of evidence
  3. Substantial evidence / preponderance
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21
Q

Doctrine of vicarious liability

A

Employer-employee relationship: employer is liable also

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22
Q

Doctrine of ostensible agent

A
  1. Pathologist, radiologist and anes were chosen by the hospital; hospital still liable
  2. Doctor and hospital is liable
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23
Q

Borrowed servant doctrine

A
  1. MDs “borrow” the employees of the hospital;
  2. Resident does bubu; resident loses license; AP still pays.
  3. Happens
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24
Q

Captain of the ship doctrine

A
  1. Head surgeon is always liable: pay

1. Surgeon Chose his team.

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25
Q

Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur

A

“Common knowledge”

Ex. Foreing bodies left inside after OR, cut off wrong leg

  1. Negligence occured
  2. Third party could not have caused the injury
  3. Duty to patient.
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26
Q

Doctrine of contributory negligence (doctrine of common fault)

A
  1. On the side of the patient; its his fault

2. Patient fails to fulfill his duties as a patient

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27
Q

Doctrine of continuing negligence

A
  1. Failes to do anything after even after seeing clear evidence something has to be done
  2. Ex.
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28
Q

Doctrine of last clear chance

A

Is criminally punishable

You fail to prevent the harm,

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29
Q

Doctrine of foreseeability

A

If patient is a known case of ______, doctor is held liable for not being able to safeguard him/her regarding the possible risks of that condition

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30
Q

Fellow servant doctrine

A

Hospital is not liable for damages towards an employee by another employee

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31
Q

Rescue doctrine

A

If a doctor is injured in helping a patient in an accident and is hit by another car; the doer of the initial accident is held liable.

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32
Q

Independent contract theory

A

If resident kills a patient: he loses license, gets jailed

AP still pays

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33
Q

Trust fund doctrine

A

All donations are earmarked for that certain charity ONLY

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34
Q

Implied waiver theory

A

Charity vs private cases are treated differently

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35
Q

Moral damages: are physical/psychological etc injuries caused by an ACT.
Award of damages are based on article _____ of the civil code

A

Article 2219 of the civil code

  1. Perdiem method: estimate the value
  2. Golden rule method: judge determines
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36
Q

Exemplary / corrective damages

A

Monetary compensation to add insult to the guilty so that others will not follow suit.

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37
Q

Patient rights

A
  1. Consent to treatment
  2. Right to religious beliefs
  3. Right of privacy
  4. Right to disclosure of information
  5. Confidential information
  6. Choose MD
  7. Right to treatment
  8. Refuse necessary treatment
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38
Q

Consent may not be necessary when it is implied / compulsory

(X2 examples)

A
  1. Emergency cases

2. Mandated by law

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39
Q

Full disclosure may not be necessary?

A
  1. Disclosure may cause upset to patient (child needs to be sutured)
  2. Medical procedure is publicly known to be safe.
40
Q

Parts of written consent

A
  1. Name of MD
  2. Nature and extent of procedure
  3. Understandable language
  4. Allowed treatment
  5. Signature of patient and witness
41
Q

Who can give consent?

A
  1. Patient > spouse > legal children > paternal parents
  2. Emancipated minor
    A. Marriage, majority, concession of parents.
  3. Minors under special circumstances if it will redound to life and death
42
Q

Emancipation is revocable or irrevocable

A

Irrevocable

43
Q

The right of consortium is the basis behind asking a spouse’s consent for procedures that will impair?

A
  1. Sexual function

2. Products of conception

44
Q

Patient, doctors, students are what kind of persons in the hospital?
1.

A

Invitee or business visitors

45
Q

For consent to be valid:

A
  1. Autonomous
  2. Legal
  3. Volunatary
  4. Informed
46
Q

Justifiable grounds to refuse admission

A
  1. Full
  2. Chronically ill
  3. Only needs convalescent care
  4. Contagious
47
Q

RA 4226

A

Hospital licensure act: hospital can be used by their MDs to treat to patients in danger of death or emergency

48
Q

RA 6615

A

Licensed medical shiz should extend medical assistance in an emergency.

49
Q

Medical records can be disclosed…

A
  1. Patient request
  2. Birth certificate, death certificate, immunization certificate, communicable disease
  3. Upon order of court.
50
Q

Privileged communication

X5

A
  1. Husband and wife
  2. Lawyer/ staff of lawyer
  3. Person authorized to “practice” medicine
  4. Minister or priest
  5. Anything the. Govt official learns during time in office.
51
Q

Who can become an ordinary witness?

A
  1. Must have the organ and power of perception
  2. Perception can be imparted to others
    3.
52
Q

Persons not disqualified from being witnesses

A
  1. Persons interested in the outcome of the case
  2. Criminals
  3. Religious views
53
Q

Persons who cannot be a witness on acount of physical disqualifications

A
  1. Unsound of mind

2. Children of tender age and inferior capacity

54
Q

Leading questions are allowed

A
  1. On cross examination
  2. Preliminary matters
  3. When its hard to get direct answers from witness
  4. Hostile witness
  5. Is speaking on behalf of a corporation
55
Q

Misleading questions are not allowed becuase

A
  1. It assumes a fact which is not yet true.
56
Q

Dying declaration vs hearsay

A
  1. Hearsay is not admisisble

2. Dying declaration can be admissible

57
Q

Dying declaration is admissible if

A
  1. It concerns the cause and circumstances regarding why he is being put to death
  2. He knew he is being put to death
  3. Competent witness
  4. Criminal case: homicide, murder, paricide when the declarant is the victime
58
Q

Subpoena ad testificandum

Subpoena duces tecum

A
  1. Testiomony

2. Documents

59
Q

Qualifications board of medicine

A
  1. Natural born citizen
  2. Duly registered MD in the PHIL
  3. In practice for at least 10 years
  4. Good moral character
  5. Not a member of the faculty of any medical school and has no interest in any institution
60
Q

Ignorantia legis nominem excusat

A

Ignorance of teh law excuses no one from compliance therewith

61
Q

Conclusive test for teh presence of semen.

A

Acid phosphatase test

62
Q

Test if the semen is human or not

A

Precipitin test.

63
Q

Simple vs qualified seduction

A

Seduction

  1. Sexual intercourse via deceit
  2. > 12 <18

Simple: not a virgin
Qualified: virgin + perosn of “authority”

64
Q

Forcible vs consented abduction

A

Abduction: carrying away of a women with lewd design

Forcible: against will
Consented >12 < 18 virgin with consent

65
Q

Adultery vs concubinage

A

Adultery: married woman with not husband man who both know

Concubinage: husband with mistress underown house with sexual intercourse “scandalous circumstances” : so maid is concubinage.

66
Q

Male vs female cranium

A

Male: larger mastoid shorter styloid
Female: smaller mastoid, longer styloid

67
Q

Determination of sex

Presumptive vs highly probable vs conclusive

A
  1. Presumptive: features that make them socially male/femle
  2. Secondary sexual organs
  3. Conclusive: gonads
68
Q

Dead body will climatize to the surrounding environment on average by ______ hours in tropical countries?

A

12-15

69
Q

Algor mortis

A

Is cooling of the body.

70
Q

Signs of death

A
  1. Cessation of heart and circulation
  2. Cessation of respiration
  3. Algor mortis
  4. Loss of power to move
  5. Changes in skin
  6. Changes in eyes.
71
Q

Rigor mortis of the whole body occurs in ____ hours?

Rigor mortis starts ____ hours after death?

A
  1. 12

2. 3-6 hours

72
Q

Primary flaccidity or period of muscular irritablity occurs

A

Immediately after death.

Flexed extremities, incontinence.

73
Q

Conditions “simulating” rigor mortis

  1. Heat stiffening
  2. Cold stiffening
  3. Cadaveric spasm
A
  1. > 75 deg C; pugilistic attitude: lower and upper extremities are flexed, hands clenched
  2. Solidification of fat
  3. Instantaneous rigidity of muscles at the moment of death: ex at death its hard to take the weapon away from the body; secondary to neurlogic injury or chest injury causing death
74
Q

Stage of secondary flaccidity after ____ _Hours

A

36 hours or the onset of decompensation.

75
Q

Livor mortis

A

Blood accumulation in the dependent portions of the body.

76
Q

Color of blood if death is caused by?

  1. Asphyxia
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. CO
  4. Hydrocyanic acid
  5. Phosphorus
  6. Postassium chlorate
  7. Snow or ice
A
  1. Asphyxia : dark
  2. hemorrhage : less dark
  3. CO : pink
  4. Hydrocyanic acid: bright red
  5. Phosphorus : dark brown
  6. Potassium chlorate : coffee brown
  7. Snow or ice : bright red
77
Q

Putrefaction: protein breakdown leading to?

A

Evolution of foul smelling gases ad change in color of body.

78
Q

Components of putrefaction

  1. Changes in tissue color:
  2. Evolution of gases in body
  3. Liquefaction
A
  1. Green is earliest change; marbolization: superficial veins are proiment
  2. Distension of abdomen and whole body
  3. Highly muscular organs liquefy late.
79
Q

Duration of death

  1. Rigor mortis
  2. Post mortem lividity (livor mortis)
  3. Putrefaction
A
  1. 2-3 hours in philippines; full 12 hours.
  2. Libor mortis: 3-6 hours after death.
  3. Putrefaction 24-48 hours.
80
Q

Entomology of the cadaver: if with maggots

A
  1. > 24 hours.
81
Q

Skeleton with no tissue?

A

1-2 years.

82
Q

Presumption of death

A

7 years

10 years if for succession

83
Q

Autopsy vs post mortem examination

A

Internal examination is conducted autopsy

84
Q

Non official vs official autopsy

A
  1. Non official: done by hospital cause of death

2. Official : determining time cause manner of death; recover evidence

85
Q

Need for autopsy:

A
Death by violence
Accidental death: drown burn bangungot
Suicides
Sudden death of persons with good health
Death unattended by physician
DOA
Death occuring in unnatural manner
86
Q

Deahty from asphyxia internal findings on autopsy in the lung pleura

A

Tardieu spots

87
Q

External findings from deathy by asphyxia

A

Lividity : lips fingers toenails

88
Q

Contusion ages

1 green

  1. Yellow
  2. Gone
A
  1. 4-5 days
  2. 7-10 days
  3. Gone by 14th to 15th
89
Q

Post mortem findings of injury from cold

A

Blood is fluid in the heart bright red color.

Parenchyma of organs congested with petechial hemorrhage

90
Q

Death from heat stroke post mortem findings

A

Rigor mortis quick
Quick putrefaction
Marked lividity

91
Q

Postmortem findings burns and scalde

A

Boxers posture of body

Hemoconcentration

92
Q

Boxer position in death by heat is secondary to?

A

Coagulation of protein in body.

93
Q

Ante mortem vs post mortem burn

A

Ante mortem

  1. Inflammation
  2. Soot in trachea
  3. Carboxyhemoglobin
94
Q

Main cause of death from lightning is?

A

Shock

95
Q

Post mortem findings in death by lightning

A

Internal: fracture, hemorrhage, rupture of internal organs

96
Q

Metallization is?

A

Embeded metal in the epidermis of teh person