Legal Concepts Of Insurance Flashcards

1
Q

A contract of adhesion is one that has been prepared by one party (the insurance company) with no negotiation between the applicant and insurer. The applicant adheres to the contract terms on a “take it or leave it” basis when accepted. (See Rule Regarding Ambiguities)

A

Adhesion:

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2
Q

This is the person who represents the insurer during an insurance transaction and has been authorized to act on the insurance company’s behalf. Agents have a fiduciary responsibility to both parties—the insurer and the policy owner.

A

Agent:

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3
Q

This is a legal arrangement in which there’s the potential for an unequal exchange of value or consideration between both parties. The insured may never file a claim in an insurance contract, or a claim may be filed after only one or two premiums.

A

Aleatory:

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4
Q

This refers to terms or conditions that are not clearly defined in an insurance contract. (See Adhesion)

A

Ambiguities:

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5
Q

This refers to terms or conditions that are not clearly defined in an insurance contract. (See Adhesion)

A

Ambiguities:

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6
Q

This is the appearance of the insurer providing the agent authority to perform unspecified tasks based on the agent-insurer relationship. This perception of authority must stem from the insurer’s actions, even if the perception is unintended and the perception is in error.

A

Apparent Authority:

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7
Q

This is a licensed producer who represents himself and the insured (i.e., the client or customer) during an insurance transaction.
However, a broker is different from an agent. A broker doesn’t hold an appointment with the insurer in question, and a broker cannot bind coverage on behalf of the insurer.

A

Broker:

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8
Q

This is a person who’s able to understand the contract to which two parties are agreeing. All parties must be of legal competence, which means that they must be of legal age, mentally capable of understanding the contract terms, and not under the influence of drugs or alcohol.

A

Competent Party:

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9
Q

This is the failure of an applicant to disclose a known material fact when applying for insurance.

A

Concealment:

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10
Q

This is an agreement that remains in force if certain conditions are met. The insurer’s promise to pay benefits is dependent on the occurrence of an event that’s covered by the contract.

A

Conditional:

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11
Q

This is the legal description of the items of value that each party to the contract provides to the other. In the case of an insurance policy, the applicant provides material information and the premium. In return, the insurance company agrees to pay the cost of claims that are covered by the policy.

A

Consideration:

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12
Q

This clause is part of an insurance contract and sets forth the initial and renewal premiums and frequency of future payments.

A

Consideration Clause:

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13
Q

This doctrine states that an insurance contract will be interpreted to mean what a reasonable individual would think it means, even if the insurer must pay additional benefits that are not intended by the contract.

A

Doctrine of Reasonable Expectations:

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14
Q

This is the legal impediment to one party’s ability to deny the consequences of its own actions or deeds if such actions or deeds result in another party acting in a specific manner or if certain conclusions are drawn.

A

Estoppel:

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15
Q

This is the explicit authority that’s granted to the agent by the insurer, as written in the agency contract.

A

Express Authority:

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16
Q

This is the explicit authority that’s granted to the agent by the insurer, as written in the agency contract.

A

Express Authority:

17
Q

A fiduciary is a person to whom property or power is entrusted for the benefit of another person. A producer is a fiduciary that’s in a position of trust regarding the funds of its clients and the insurer. It’s the responsibility of an insurance producer to account for all of the premiums collected and to provide sound financial advice to clients.

A
18
Q

An individual commits fraud when he engages in intentional deceit to gain a benefit. Fraud includes having deliberate knowledge of false statements that are made or intended as well as the act of a person making such statements herself.

A

Fraud:

19
Q

This is an authority that’s not explicitly granted to the agent in the contract of agency, but which common sense dictates the agent has. This authority enables the agent to carry out routine responsibilities.

A

Implied Authority:

20
Q

This type of contract attempts to return the insured to his original financial position.

A

Indemnity Contract:

21
Q

This is the financial, economic, and emotional impact that’s experienced by a person who suffers a covered loss. A person has an insurable interest if she has more to gain by not experiencing the loss.

A

Insurable Interest:

22
Q

This is a written contract in which one party promises to indemnify another against a loss that arises from an unknown event.

A

Insurance Policy:

23
Q

This means that an insurance contract must be legal in nature and not in opposition to public policy.

A

Legal Purpose:

24
Q

This is a false statement being made by an applicant that influences either an insurer’s decision to accept the risk, or the classification and pricing of a risk that’s accepted by the insurer.

A

Material Misrepresentation:

25
Q

This is a statement being made as a legal representation that’s factually incorrect, either totally or in part.

A

Misrepresentation:

26
Q

This rule states that, when the parties agree in writing, all previous verbal statements come together. A written contract cannot be changed or modified by parole (oral) evidence.

A

Parole Evidence Rule:

27
Q

This is an amendment which is added to an insurance contract that overrides terms in the original policy.
Riders may add or remove coverages, change deductibles, or revise any other policy feature. In general, a policy owner must pay an additional premium to add a policy rider that enhances policy benefits.

A

Policy Rider or Endorsement:

28
Q

This indicates that the insured is entitled to coverage under a policy that any sensible and prudent person would expect it to provide.

A

Reasonable Expectations:

29
Q

These are statements made by the applicant that he considers true and accurate to the best of his belief.

A

Representations:

30
Q

This rule applies to contracts of adhesion. Courts will interpret the terms of an insurance contract in favor of the insured if there’s a legal dispute and the court holds the terms of the contract to be ambiguous. The insurer is responsible for ensuring that the contract is clear since it creates the policy terms as a contract of adhesion.

A

Rule Regarding Ambiguities:

31
Q

This is the right for an insurer to pursue a third party that caused an insurance loss to the insured.

A

Subrogation:

32
Q

This is a type of contract in which only one party-the insurer-makes any kind of enforceable promise. The promises remain in force for as long as the insured pays the required premium.

A

Unilateral:

33
Q

This statement is based on the belief that both the policy owner and the insurer must know all of the material facts and relevant information. As such, they will provide each other with all material facts and relevant information.

A

Utmost Good Faith:

34
Q

This type of contract pays a stated sum regardless of the actual loss incurred. Life insurance contracts are valued contracts.

A

Valued Contract:

35
Q

This contract is an agreement that has never really been in force because it lacks one of the essential elements of a contract. For example, if a third party (rather than the applicant for insurance) provides a urine sample for analysis, this act of impersonation deprives the insurer of the information it needs. In effect, the applicant is withholding necessary consideration; therefore, any policy is void from the day it’s issued. In other words, it never really goes into effect. (See Voidable Contract for contrast.)

A

Void Contract:

36
Q

This type of contract is an agreement that may be set aside by one of the parties in the contract for a reason that’s satisfactory to the court. (See Void Contract for contrast.)

A

Voidable Contract:

37
Q

This is the voluntary giving up of a legal, given right.

A

Waiver:

38
Q

This is a statement made by the applicant that’s guaranteed to be true in every respect and also becomes a part of the contract. The discovery that a warranty is untrue can be grounds for revoking the agreement. In general, all statements that are made by an applicant are representations, rather than warrantie

A

Warranty: