leerstof klas Flashcards

1
Q

What type of network does LAN stand for?

A

Local Area Network.

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2
Q

What is the definition of WAN?

A

Wide Area Network, covering large geographic areas.

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3
Q

What are the typical speeds for LANs?

A

1 Gbps to 100 Gbps.

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4
Q

What technology is commonly used for WANs?

A

MPLS, VPN, Leased Line, SD-WAN.

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5
Q

What is the primary difference in ownership between LAN and WAN?

A

LAN is usually owned by the organization, while WAN is often a leased service from ISPs.

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: UTP stands for _______.

A

Unshielded Twisted Pair.

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7
Q

What is the maximum distance for UTP cables?

A

100 meters.

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8
Q

What type of network topology uses a central hub?

A

Star topology.

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9
Q

What is a key advantage of the mesh topology?

A

Full redundancy, as every node connects to every other node.

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10
Q

What is an example of a personal area network (PAN) technology?

A

Bluetooth.

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11
Q

What are the two main classifications of IPv4 addresses?

A

Public and private.

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12
Q

True or False: Private IPv4 addresses can be accessed directly from the internet.

A

False.

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13
Q

What protocol is used for dynamic IP address assignment?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

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14
Q

What is the range of a private IPv4 address for small networks?

A

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255.

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15
Q

What is the primary use of fiber optic cables?

A

Long-distance and high-speed connections.

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16
Q

What is the maximum speed of a single-mode fiber optic cable?

A

100 Gbps.

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17
Q

What are the two types of fiber optic cables?

A
  • Single-Mode Fiber (SMF) * Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)
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18
Q

What is the risk associated with bus topology?

A

Collision risk and difficult troubleshooting.

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19
Q

What is the maximum distance for coaxial cable?

A

500 meters.

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20
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of the star topology?

A

Single point of failure (hub).

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21
Q

What type of network covers a city or metropolitan region?

A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

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22
Q

What is a primary usage of STP cables?

A

Used in factories or areas with high electromagnetic interference (EMI).

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23
Q

What is the coverage range of a PAN?

A

1 to 10 meters.

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24
Q

What technology is used in WANs for connecting data centers?

A

MPLS.

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25
Q

Fill in the blank: The maximum speed for Wi-Fi is _______.

A

9.6 Gbps.

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26
Q

What is the definition of a loop prevention method in networking?

A

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP).

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27
Q

What is a disadvantage of the hybrid topology?

A

Complex setup and costly.

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28
Q

What type of devices are typically connected in a LAN?

A

Computers, printers, servers, routers, switches.

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29
Q

What is the range of private IPv4 addresses?

A

168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

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30
Q

What are private networks typically used for?

A

Home, Office

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31
Q

What is the definition of public IPv4 addresses?

A

Anything outside the private range

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32
Q

What is required for private IPs to communicate online?

A

NAT (Network Address Translation)

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33
Q

What does DHCP stand for?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

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34
Q

What is the purpose of DHCP?

A

Automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters

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35
Q

What are the benefits of using DHCP?

A
  • Simplifies network management
  • Reduces configuration errors
  • Automates IP address allocation
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36
Q

What is a key function of a DHCP server?

A

Assigns IP addresses to clients

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37
Q

True or False: Multiple DHCP servers can work in failover mode.

A

True

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38
Q

What is the function of the Root DNS Server?

A

Directs the resolver to the Top-Level Domain (TLD) server

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39
Q

What is the role of the TLD DNS Server?

A

Responds with information about the authoritative DNS server for a domain

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40
Q

What does the Authoritative DNS Server contain?

A

The actual IP address of a domain

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41
Q

What is the purpose of a DNS resolver?

A

Translates domain names into IP addresses

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42
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is like the phonebook of the internet.

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

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43
Q

What is the primary DNS address for Google?

A

8.8.8.8

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44
Q

What is a subnet?

A

A segmented piece of a larger network

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45
Q

In regular subnets, what is the first IP address used for?

A

Network address

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46
Q

In regular subnets, what is the last IP address used for?

A

Broadcast address

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47
Q

What CIDR notation allows for point-to-point links?

A

/31

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48
Q

What is the block size for a /24 subnet?

A

256

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49
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts in a /16 subnet?

A

65,534

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50
Q

What does CIDR stand for?

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

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51
Q

What is the CIDR notation for a Class A network?

A

/8

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52
Q

True or False: Class D addresses are used for multicast.

A

True

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53
Q

What is the range of Class E addresses?

A

240.x.x.x - 255.x.x.x

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54
Q

Why won’t you see a /7 CIDR block in local subnets?

A

Too large for practical use in local networks

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55
Q

What is the purpose of DHCP relay (IP Helper)?

A

To centralize DHCP in larger networks

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56
Q

What does a DHCP server do in failover mode?

A

One server takes over if the other fails

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57
Q

Fill in the blank: The first IP in a subnet is called the _______.

A

network address

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58
Q

What happens if a DNS resolver does not have a cached IP address?

A

It queries the Root DNS Server

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59
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts in a /30 subnet?

A

2

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60
Q

What does CIDR stand for?

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

CIDR is used to allocate IP addresses more efficiently.

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61
Q

What is Class D IP range?

A

224.x.x.x - 239.x.x.x

Class D is used for multicast applications like IP-TV and video streaming.

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62
Q

What is the function of the OSI Model?

A

Explains how data travels from one device to another across a network

The OSI model serves as a framework for understanding network processes.

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63
Q

How many layers are in the OSI Model?

A

Seven

Each layer has a specific role in network communication.

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64
Q

What is the starting IP range for Class A?

A

1.0.0.0 - 126.0.0.0

Class A is used for large networks.

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65
Q

What is the typical use of Class B IP addresses?

A

Medium networks

Class B IP range is 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.0.0.

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66
Q

Fill in the blank: The OSI model offers a _______ list of processes on a network.

A

chronological

This helps in troubleshooting network issues.

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67
Q

What is the function of the Application layer in the OSI Model?

A

Allows users to interact with network applications

Examples include HTTP, FTP, and DNS.

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68
Q

What layer of the OSI Model is responsible for data formatting and encryption?

A

Presentation layer

This layer converts data for applications and compresses or encrypts it.

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69
Q

What is the main function of the Transport layer?

A

Ensures complete, error-free data delivery

Protocols include TCP and UDP.

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70
Q

MAC addresses operate at which OSI layer?

A

Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)

MAC addresses are used for local network communication.

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71
Q

What is the format of an IPv4 address?

A

32-bit

Example: 192.168.1.10.

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72
Q

True or False: MAC addresses can change dynamically.

A

False

MAC addresses are burned into network interfaces.

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73
Q

What does a Router do in the OSI Model?

A

Uses IP addresses to route packets

Routers operate at Layer 3 (Network).

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74
Q

What is the primary difference between a Layer 2 switch and a Layer 3 switch?

A

Layer 2 switch uses MAC addresses, Layer 3 switch uses IP addresses

Layer 3 switches can also perform routing.

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75
Q

What is the function of the Firewall in the OSI Model?

A

Filters traffic based on IPs and ports

Firewalls operate at Layers 3 and 4.

76
Q

What type of protocol is TCP?

A

Connection-oriented

TCP requires a handshake to establish a connection.

77
Q

What does UDP stand for?

A

User Datagram Protocol

UDP is a connectionless protocol.

78
Q

Fill in the blank: TCP is _______ while UDP is unreliable.

A

reliable

TCP ensures all data is received correctly.

79
Q

What is the typical usage of UDP?

A

Applications needing speed like VoIP and gaming

UDP skips error checking for faster communication.

80
Q

What is the function of port 80?

A

HTTP (Web Browsing - Insecure)

Commonly used by web servers.

81
Q

What type of applications typically use TCP?

A

Applications needing accuracy

Examples include web browsers and email clients.

82
Q

What is the primary purpose of DHCP?

A

Assigns IP addresses dynamically

DHCP operates on ports 67 and 68.

83
Q

Fill in the blank: A Hub operates at OSI Layer _______.

A

1 (Physical)

Hubs simply repeat signals.

84
Q

What is the function of the Session layer?

A

Manages communication sessions

Examples include RPC and SSH.

85
Q

What is the typical use of port 443?

A

HTTPS (Secure Web Browsing)

Used for secure communication over the web.

86
Q

What is the function of the Data Link layer?

A

Handles switching, MAC addresses, and error detection

Examples include Ethernet and ARP.

87
Q

What does the Physical layer deal with?

A

Cables, signals, and network interfaces

Examples include Ethernet cables and Wi-Fi.

88
Q

What does UDP stand for?

A

User Datagram Protocol

UDP is used for fast communication but does not guarantee data integrity.

89
Q

What does TCP stand for?

A

Transmission Control Protocol

TCP is used for reliable communication, ensuring data integrity.

90
Q

What is the primary focus of UDP?

A

Speed

UDP prioritizes low latency for applications like streaming and gaming.

91
Q

What is the primary focus of TCP?

A

Reliability

TCP ensures that data is received accurately and in order.

92
Q

What is the purpose of the TCP Three-Way Handshake?

A

Establish a reliable connection

It involves SYN, SYN-ACK, and ACK messages for connection setup.

93
Q

What are the three steps of the TCP Three-Way Handshake?

A
  • SYN
  • SYN-ACK
  • ACK

These steps ensure a connection is established between client and server.

94
Q

What is the function of TCP’s flow control?

A

Adjust speed for efficiency

It uses mechanisms like window size and sliding window protocol.

95
Q

What is the purpose of error control in TCP?

A

Ensure accurate delivery

It utilizes checksums and retransmissions to confirm data integrity.

96
Q

What is the four-way handshake used for in TCP?

A

Connection termination

It involves FIN and ACK messages to properly close a connection.

97
Q

When should TCP be used?

A

When reliability is critical

Examples include web browsing, email, and file transfers.

98
Q

When should UDP be used?

A

When speed is more important than reliability

Examples include streaming, gaming, and VoIP calls.

99
Q

What are the four layers of the TCP/IP model?

A
  • Application
  • Transport
  • Internet
  • Network Access

Each layer has specific functions and protocols.

100
Q

What protocols are included in the Application layer of the TCP/IP model?

A
  • HTTP
  • HTTPS
  • FTP
  • SMTP
  • DNS
  • DHCP
  • SNMP
  • POP3
  • IMAP

This layer provides services for applications and users.

101
Q

What is the main function of the Transport layer in TCP/IP?

A

Manages end-to-end communication and reliability

Protocols include TCP and UDP.

102
Q

What is the equivalent OSI layer for the TCP/IP Transport layer?

A

Layer 4

This layer handles reliable and unreliable data transmission.

103
Q

What is the purpose of the Internet layer in TCP/IP?

A

Routes packets across networks

Protocols include IP, ICMP, ARP, and others.

104
Q

What protocols are found in the Network Access layer of the TCP/IP model?

A
  • Ethernet
  • Wi-Fi
  • PPP
  • Frame Relay
  • ATM

This layer handles physical data transmission.

105
Q

What is the OSI model used for?

A

Learning networking concepts and troubleshooting

It provides a framework for understanding network functions.

106
Q

What are the seven layers of the OSI model?

A
  • Application
  • Presentation
  • Session
  • Transport
  • Network
  • Data Link
  • Physical

Each layer serves a specific function in network communication.

107
Q

What is the first step in how the internet works?

A

Device connects to network

This involves connecting via Wi-Fi, Ethernet, or cellular data.

108
Q

What happens when you type a domain name into a browser?

A

A DNS resolution occurs

The device queries a DNS server to find the corresponding IP address.

109
Q

What is the role of routers in the internet?

A

Forward packets across multiple networks

Routers ensure data reaches its destination server.

110
Q

What is involved in designing a LAN?

A
  • Determine network requirements
  • Select topology
  • Plan IP addressing
  • Choose network hardware
  • Implement security measures
  • Ensure redundancy
  • Deploy monitoring

These steps help create an efficient and secure network.

111
Q

What are some key factors in LAN design?

A
  • Topology
  • Scalability
  • Performance
  • Security
  • Reliability & Redundancy
  • Addressing & Subnetting
  • Network Devices
  • Cable Infrastructure

Each factor plays a crucial role in the effectiveness of the network.

112
Q

What is the purpose of Quality of Service (QoS)?

A

Traffic prioritization

QoS ensures critical applications receive higher priority for performance.

113
Q

What is Cisco Packet Tracer used for?

A

Simulates network topology and behavior

It is beneficial for network learning and CCNA students.

114
Q

What is Wireshark primarily used for?

A

Analyzes network traffic and packets

It is a key tool for network troubleshooting and security.

115
Q

What is SDN?

A

Software-Defined Networking (SDN) is a network architecture that separates the control plane from the data plane, enabling centralized network management, automation, and programmability.

116
Q

How does SDN differ from traditional networking?

A

In traditional networking, each switch/router makes its own decisions about packet forwarding. In SDN, a centralized controller decides how traffic should be handled across the entire network.

117
Q

What is the control plane in SDN?

A

The control plane is centralized in SDN, managed by the SDN Controller, which oversees traffic management.

118
Q

What is SD-WAN?

A

Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is a virtualized WAN architecture that enables businesses to securely connect branch offices, data centers, and cloud applications using software-based intelligent routing.

119
Q

What are the main features of SD-WAN?

A

SD-WAN features include traffic optimization, centralized control, built-in security, application awareness, and cloud integration.

120
Q

Fill in the blank: SD-WAN uses _______ to dynamically select the best path for network traffic.

A

[multiple internet links]

121
Q

What is the primary purpose of a firewall?

A

The primary purpose of a firewall is to protect against cyber threats by monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules.

122
Q

How does SD-WAN manage traffic?

A

SD-WAN manages traffic through intelligent path selection, prioritizing business-critical applications, and optimizing WAN connectivity.

123
Q

What are the connectivity options for SD-WAN?

A

SD-WAN supports MPLS, broadband, LTE, 5G, and satellite connectivity.

124
Q

True or False: Traditional WANs require backhauling for cloud integration.

125
Q

What is the main difference between SD-WAN and traditional WAN?

A

SD-WAN is software-defined and uses dynamic routing, while traditional WAN is hardware-based with fixed routing.

126
Q

What is the role of application awareness in SD-WAN?

A

Application awareness in SD-WAN allows prioritization of business-critical applications like VoIP and video conferencing over less important traffic.

127
Q

List three key features of SDN.

A
  • Centralized control
  • Programmable network management
  • Dynamic routing
128
Q

What security features are typically included in SD-WAN?

A
  • Built-in encryption
  • Firewall integration
  • Zero Trust architecture
129
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary function of a router is to _______.

A

[route data between networks]

130
Q

What is the main function of a WAF?

A

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) protects web applications from attacks like SQL injection, XSS, and DDoS.

131
Q

How does SD-WAN provide redundancy?

A

SD-WAN offers advanced failover with multi-link auto-switching for WAN resilience.

132
Q

What are example technologies used in SDN?

A
  • OpenFlow
  • VMware NSX
  • Cisco ACI
  • Juniper Contrail
133
Q

What is the difference in deployment area between SDN and SD-WAN?

A

SDN is used in data centers, cloud networks, and enterprise LANs, while SD-WAN is used in multi-branch office networks and hybrid cloud environments.

134
Q

True or False: SD-WAN optimizes WAN traffic based on network conditions.

135
Q

What is a key advantage of SD-WAN over traditional WAN?

A

SD-WAN has lower costs as it uses broadband and LTE instead of expensive MPLS circuits.

136
Q

What does SD-WAN use to monitor real-time network conditions?

A

SD-WAN uses intelligent routing to monitor real-time network conditions.

137
Q

What is the primary focus of SDN?

A

SDN primarily manages network traffic within data centers, cloud environments, and enterprise LANs.

138
Q

What is the security capability of a typical firewall?

A

Firewalls include IPS/IDS, VPN, malware protection, and threat intelligence.

139
Q

List the key features of Cisco SD-WAN.

A
  • Cloud-managed
  • Deep security integration
  • Scalable
140
Q

Fill in the blank: SD-WAN prioritizes _______ applications over less important traffic.

A

[business-critical]

141
Q

What type of traffic management does SD-WAN provide?

A

SD-WAN provides intelligent path selection, QoS, and load balancing.

142
Q

How does SD-WAN handle encryption?

A

SD-WAN supports secure tunnels using IPSec, ZTNA, and SASE models.

143
Q

What is the best use case for SD-WAN?

A

SD-WAN is ideal for WAN optimization, cloud application performance, and secure remote branch connectivity.

144
Q

What is web application security?

A

Provides full application-layer security (Layer 7 protection) for web applications.

145
Q

What is basic failover in the context of VPNs and firewalls?

A

Basic failover for VPNs and firewalls.

146
Q

What does advanced failover involve?

A

Multi-link auto-switching for WAN resilience.

147
Q

What is the role of CDN and DDoS protection in web application security?

A

Ensures web application availability through CDN and DDoS protection.

148
Q

How does cloud and SaaS optimization function?

A

No cloud-specific optimization, but can integrate with cloud security.

149
Q

What types of applications are optimized for SaaS and cloud apps?

A

AWS, Azure, Google Cloud.

150
Q

What does routing entail in web application security?

A

Basic static and policy-based routing.

151
Q

What is dynamic routing based on?

A

AI-driven routing based on network conditions (latency, jitter, packet loss).

152
Q

Where is web application security typically deployed?

A

At the network perimeter (on-premise or cloud).

153
Q

What is the primary focus of web application security solutions?

A

Protecting web applications from SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and bot attacks.

154
Q

Name an example of a web application firewall solution.

A

AWS WAF, Cloudflare WAF, Akamai Kona Site Defender, Imperva WAF, F5 Advanced WAF.

155
Q

What is an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?

A

Detects malicious activity but does not take action.

156
Q

What is an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?

A

Detects and blocks malicious activity automatically.

157
Q

What is the action taken by an IDS?

A

Detects and logs threats but does not block them.

158
Q

What is the placement of an IDS?

A

Passive – behind firewall (monitors traffic).

159
Q

What is the impact of an IPS on network traffic?

A

Can introduce latency due to active blocking.

160
Q

What technology can be classified as an IDS?

A

Snort IDS, Suricata, OSSEC.

161
Q

What is Darktrace known for?

A

An AI-driven cybersecurity platform that uses machine learning to detect, respond to, and prevent cyber threats.

162
Q

What feature does Darktrace Antigena provide?

A

Automatically neutralizes threats in real-time before they cause harm.

163
Q

What does Darktrace use to identify cyber threats?

A

Machine learning to identify abnormal behaviors.

164
Q

What is a key feature of Darktrace’s threat detection?

A

Zero-Day Threat Detection – identifies previously unknown threats without relying on traditional signatures.

165
Q

How does Darktrace monitor environments?

A

Monitors on-premises and cloud environments for security anomalies.

166
Q

What is the response time of Darktrace compared to traditional security?

A

Real-time, autonomous response.

167
Q

What is a key difference between AI-based and traditional security in threat detection?

A

AI-driven identifies new and unknown threats; traditional relies on known signatures.

168
Q

What does Fortinet FortiGate offer?

A

Enterprise-grade firewall with integrated SD-WAN and IPS.

169
Q

What is the main function of FortiEDR?

A

AI-driven Endpoint Detection and Response for real-time threat prevention.

170
Q

What does FortiAnalyzer utilize for threat correlation?

A

Uses AI for security analytics and SIEM.

171
Q

What is FortiAI?

A

AI-based threat detection and response platform

FortiAI utilizes deep learning AI for detecting zero-day attacks and malware analysis.

172
Q

What technology does FortiEDR use for threat prevention?

A

Behavioral AI for real-time threat prevention and automated response

FortiEDR is an AI-driven Endpoint Detection and Response system.

173
Q

What is the role of FortiAnalyzer?

A

AI-driven security analytics and SIEM

It uses AI for threat correlation, forensic analysis, and compliance.

174
Q

How does FortiSandbox detect malware?

A

Uses machine learning for advanced threat detection and isolation

FortiSandbox is an AI-powered malware detection and sandboxing solution.

175
Q

What does FortiSOAR automate?

A

Incident response

FortiSOAR uses AI-driven automation to streamline the incident response process.

176
Q

What type of analysis does FortiNDR perform?

A

AI-driven network traffic analysis and anomaly detection

It detects lateral movement, insider threats, and network anomalies.

177
Q

What is a key feature of FortiAI compared to Darktrace?

A

Automated malware isolation and forensic analysis

FortiAI focuses on threat detection with a different response mechanism than Darktrace.

178
Q

What type of detection does Darktrace utilize?

A

AI-based anomaly detection

Darktrace employs autonomous response with Antigena AI.

179
Q

How does FortiAI integrate with network environments?

A

Works with Fortinet Security Fabric

This provides seamless integration within Fortinet’s ecosystem.

180
Q

What type of organizations is FortiAI best suited for?

A

Enterprise networks and Fortinet users

FortiAI is tailored for organizations heavily invested in Fortinet solutions.

181
Q

What does FortiAnalyzer provide besides security analytics?

A

SIEM capabilities

FortiAnalyzer’s analytics help in compliance and threat correlation.

182
Q

Fill in the blank: FortiNDR detects _______.

A

lateral movement, insider threats, and network anomalies

183
Q

True or False: Darktrace provides automated reports through Cyber AI Analyst.

A

True

Darktrace’s Cyber AI Analyst automates reporting for better security insights.

184
Q

What type of protection does FortiAI offer for cloud and SaaS?

A

AI-driven SaaS and cloud monitoring

This protection is integrated into Fortinet Cloud Security.

185
Q

What is the primary difference in network visibility between FortiAI and Darktrace?

A

FortiAI works with Fortinet Security Fabric while Darktrace works across multi-vendor environments

This highlights FortiAI’s integration focus versus Darktrace’s flexibility.