LEED Class Flashcards

1
Q

What does LEED stand for?

A

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

People are LEED _______

Buildings are LEED _________

A

Accredited professionals

Certified buildings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ID+C Credit categories

A
  • Integrative Process
  • Location and Transportation
  • Water Efficiency
  • Energy and Atmosphere
  • Materials and Resources
  • Indoor Environmental Quality
  • Innovation
  • Regional Priority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum amount of credits to be LEED certified

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

LEED platinum points:

A

80+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

LEED silver points:

A

50 - 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IDP stands for

A

Integrative design process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This credit intends to support high-performance, cost-effective project outcomes through an early analysis of the interrelationships among systems.

A

Integrative Process Credit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A written document that details the ideas, concepts, and criteria determined by the owner to be important to the success of the project.

(Programming)

A

Owner’s Project Requirements (OPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The information necessary to accomplish the owner’s project requirements, including system descriptions, indoors environmental quality criteria, design assumptions, and references to applicable codes, standards, regulations, and guidelines.

(Design execution strategy)

A

Basis of Design (BOD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An intensive, multiparty workshop that brings people from different disciplines and backgrounds together to explore, generate, and collaboratively produce design options.

A

Charette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

OPR stands for

A

Owner’s Project Requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

BOD stands for

A

Basis of Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Process stages

A
  • Discovery (Pre-design)
  • Design and Construction (Implementation)
  • Occupancy (Measurement/Performance Feedback)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Site Selection and Energy-Related Systems

A

DISCOVERY
– Assess project potential based on project goals: Building site attributes, transportation, building features, occupants’ well-being
IMPLEMENTATION
– Document above analysis that will inform the site selection for the project, the OPR, and the BOD: Suitability and Capabilities, Commitment to gather occupant’s satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nonpotable Water

A

Water that does NOT meet drinking standards (e.g., rainwater, graywater, municipally supplied)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Potable Water

A

Water that meets or exceeds U.S. EPA drinking water quality and approved for human consumption (e.g., municipally supplied)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Process Water

A

Water that is used for industrial processes and building systems, such as cooling towers, boilers, and chillers; also used in dishwashers, laundry, and ice making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Water-Related Systems

A

DISCOVERY
– Perform preliminary water budget analysis (before end of SD): Fixture and fitting water demand, process water demand, supply sources
IMPLEMENTATION
– Document above analysis that will inform the design decisions for the project, the OPR, and the BOD: Demonstrate at least one on-site nonpotable water supply source was used to reduce burden of municipal supply; Plumbing systems, sewage conveyance and/or on-site treatment systems, process water systems, methods to gather feedback, and other systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ASHRAE

A

American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The [Location + Transportation] credit encourages:

A
  • Compact site development
  • Alternative Transportation
  • Community Connectivity and Networks
  • Reducing Strain on Environment
  • Reducing Urban Sprawl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The [Location + Transportation] credit opportunities:

A
(no prerequisites)
- LEED for Neighborhood Development Location
– Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses
– Access to Quality Transit
– Bicycle Facilities
– Reduced Parking Footprint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Greenfield vs. Brownfield

A

Greenfield: untouched land (think parks)
Brownfield: sites that have been developed but need remediation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

F.A.R.

A

Floor-area-ratio (not including parking)

sq. ft. building / sq. ft. lot = FAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

EP

A

exemplary performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bicycle facilities requirements

A
  • Entry within 200 yards of a bike network
  • Storage
  • Showers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FTE

A

Full Time Equivalent
(staff+visitors)
(full time employees) + (sum of daily PT employee hours / 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Strategies for reduced parking

A
  • telecommuting
  • shuttles
  • shared parking
  • sell residential units separately from parking
  • transit subsidy
  • compressed workweek
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

WaterSense

A
  • Label system for fixtures that use 20% less water and perform well
  • Third party
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Baseline water consumption of toilet for WE prerequisite

A

1.6 gpf (gallons per flush)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Baseline water consumption of urinal for WE prerequisite

A

1.0 gpf (gallons per flush)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most appliances that fall under the WE pre-req. need to meet ____ requirements.

A

Energy star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Days of operation - office and retail not open on weekends

A

313

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aerators

A

Restrict flow to private lavatories/showers. May be used to meet water efficiency requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cx stands for

A

Commissioning process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Commissioning

A

Process of verifying and documenting that a building and all of its systems and assemblies are planned, designed, installed, tested, operated, and maintained to meet the OPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Alternative energy sources

A

Wind, biomass, solar, geothermal, hydropower (rivers), tidal (waves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ROI

A

Return on investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CxA stands for

A

Commissioning authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Energy and Atmosphere Prescriptive compliance

A
  • comply with ashrae 90.1-2010
  • reduce connected lighting power density by 5%
  • install energy star appliances (copiers, microwaves, food service) for 50% of eligible products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ASHRAE 90.1-2010 purpose:

A

to establish min. energy efficiency requirements of buildings for

  • design, construction, plan for operation and maintenance and
  • utilization of on-site renewable energy sources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ODP

A

ozone depletion potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

GWP

A

global warming potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What’s worse? ODP or GWP

A

ODP is more harmful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CFC

A

chlorofluorocarbon

- high ODP, medium-high GWP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HFC

A

hydrofluorocarbon

- low ODP, med GWP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

REQUIREMENTS for the “optimize energy performance” credit

A

Option 1: tenant-level energy simulation

Option 2: Prescriptive compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

REC

A

Renewable energy certificates/credits

  • purchased carbon offsets
  • tradable commodity representing proof that a unit of electricity was generated from a renewable source resource
  • green e-certified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Eligible renewable energy systems

A
  • Photovoltaic
  • Solar thermal
  • Wind
  • Biofuel (in some cases)
  • Low-impact hydroelectricity
  • Wave and tidal energy
  • Geothermal energy (in some cases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

REQUIREMENT for the “Green Power and Carbon Offsets” credit

A
  • Green power and RECs must be Green-e certified
  • Carbon offsets must be Green-e Climate certified

% OF TOTAL ENERGY ADDRESSED BY GREEN POWER, RECs AND/OR OFFSETS
50% = 1 POINT
100% = 2 POINTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

commingled waste

A

building waste streams that are combined on the project site and hauled away for sorting into recyclable streams. Also known as single-stream recycling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

dedicated storage

A

a designated area in a building space or a central facility that is sized and allocated for a specific task, such as the collection of recyclable waste. Signage often indicates the type of recyclable waste stored there. Some waste streams, such as mercury-based light bulbs, sensitive paper documents, biomedical waste, or batteries, may require particular handling or disposal methods. Consult the municipality’s safe storage and disposal procedures or use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

electronic waste

A

discarded office equipment (computers, monitors, copiers, printers, scanners, fax machines), appliances (refrigerators, dishwashers, water coolers), external power adapters, and televisions and other audiovisual equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Storage and Collection of Recyclables Prerequisite

A
Dedicated areas for
- mixed paper
- cardboard
- glass
- plastic
- metals
Appropriate/safe measures for
- batteries
- mercury
- e-waste

Show on floor plans (storage, collection areas, hazardous waste areas). Show access for occupants, visitors, operations staff, waste haulers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Prerequisite: Construction & Demolitions waste management

A

Needs to be integrated early because a lot of documentation needs to be done right away.

  • Establish waste diversion for at least 5 materials (structural and non-structural)
  • specify if materials are separated or commingled
  • Waste-to-energy is permissible
  • Donating is permissible
  • Infilling mining pits is permissible
  • Leaving on curb is NOT permissible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Long-Term Commitment

A
  • Requires tenant lease of at least 10 year.

- Encourages avoidance of transportation and materials needed when relocating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Interiors Life-Cycle impact reduction

A

Intent is to encourage adaptive reuse and optimize environmental performance of products/materials.

Requires

  • interior reuse (2pts) and/or
  • furniture reuse (1 pt) and/or
  • design for flexibility (1 pt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ADC

A

alternative daily cover:
material other than earthen material placed on the surface of the active face of a municipal solid waste landfill at the end of each operating day to control vectors, fires, odors, blowing litter, and scavenging. Generally these materials must be processed so they do not allow gaps in the exposed landfill face. (CalRecycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

waste-to-energy

A

the conversion of nonrecyclable waste materials into usable heat, electricity, or fuel through a variety of processes, including combustion, gasification, pyrolization, anaerobic digestion, and landfill gas (LFG) recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

interior reuse

A

Reuse or salvage interior nonstructural elements for at least 50% of the surface area. Hazardous materials that are remediated as a part of the project must be excluded from the calculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Furniture reuse

A

Reuse, salvage, or refurbish furniture and furnishings for at least 30% of the total furniture and furnishings cost. If from previous building, furniture needs to be over 2 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Design for flexibility

A
  • flexible lighting control system (dimmable) (50%)
  • use at least 3 of these strategies:
  • install accessible floor or ceiling systems for at least 50% of floor area
  • design 50% demountable/movable walls
  • 50% integral labels (by cost)
  • include at least 1 major component with a take-back system
  • implement flexible power distribution for at least of floor area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

EPD

A

Environmental Product Declarations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

differential durability

A

a state in which two materials with different life spans make up one complete component. If one material wears out and cannot be separated and replaced, the entire product must be thrown away.

65
Q

integral labeling

A

an information conveyance system that cannot be easily removed. For furniture, such labeling may include radio frequency identification, engraving, embossing, or other permanent marking containing information on material origin, properties, and date of manufacture.

66
Q

premature obsolescence

A

the wearing out or disuse of components or materials whose service life exceeds their design life. For example, a material with a potential life of 30 years is intentionally designed to last only 15 years, such that its remaining 15 years of service is potentially wasted. In contrast, components whose service life is the same as their expected use are utilized to their maximum potential.

67
Q

Building product disclosure and optimization - environmental product declarations REQUIREMENTS

A

Environmental Product Declaration (1 pt)

Multi-Attribute optimization (1 pt)

68
Q

EPD needs __ different products from at least __ different manufacturers

A

20 / 5

69
Q

LCA

A

life cycle analysis

70
Q

PCR

A

Product category rule

71
Q

Common methodology

A
  • Research
  • Track
  • Calculate
  • Collect
72
Q

product calculations: Total number of products with environmental

A

{products with specific declarations x .25} + {products with industry specific declarations x .5} + {products with type III EPDs x 1}

73
Q

Product-specific declarations

A

are publicly available and critically reviewed (but not necessarily verified) by a third party to ensure that they conform to ISO 14044, which defines how LCAs are critically reviewed.

74
Q

cradle-to-gate assessment

A

analysis of a product’s partial life cycle, from resource extraction (cradle) to the factory gate (before it is transported for distribution and sale). It omits the use and the disposal phases of the product.

75
Q

Eutrophication

A

Eutrophication is defined as an increase in the rate of supply of organic matter in an ecosystem

76
Q

INTENT: Building Product Disclosure and optimization - sourcing of raw materials

A

To encourage the use of products and materials for which life cycle information is available and that have environmentally, economically, and socially preferable life cycle impacts. To reward project teams for selecting products verified to have been extracted or sourced in a responsible manner.

77
Q

CREDIT OPTIONS: Building Product Disclosure and optimization - sourcing of raw materials

A
  • Raw materials source and extraction reporting (1 pt)

- Leadership extraction practices (25% of products by cost)

78
Q

CSR

A

Corporate Sustainability Report

79
Q

Number of products with raw material extraction reporting

A

{products with manufacturer declared reports x .5} + {products with 3rd party verified reports x 1}

80
Q

Location valuation factor

A

increased points because materials are local

81
Q

Building Product Disclosure and Optimization - Material Ingredients. Requires __ different products from at least __ diff. manufacturers

A

20 / 5

82
Q

PBT

A

Persistent bioaccumulative and toxic chemicals

83
Q

POPs

A

Persistent Organic Pollutants

84
Q

HPD

A

Health Product Declaration

85
Q

Health Product Declaration benchmarking company

A

GreenScreen

86
Q

Construction and Demolition Waste Management options

A

1: divert 50% of total construction/demo material from 3 material streams (1 pt)
2: 75% of 4 material streams (2 pts total)

87
Q

Ways to divert waste

A
  • deconstruction materials sent for reuse
  • recycling
  • take-back program
88
Q

Indoor Environmental Quality Prerequisites

A
  • Min. Indoor Air Quality Performance

- Environmental Tobacco Smoke Control

89
Q

Indoor Environmental Quality Credits available

A
  • Enhanced indoor air quality strategies
  • Low-emitting materials
  • Construction indoor air quality management plan
  • Indoor air quality assessment
  • Thermal comfort
  • Daylight
  • Quality views
  • Acoustic performance
90
Q

IEQ

A

Indoor environmental quality

91
Q

IAQ

A

Indoor air quality

92
Q

What makes up IEQ?

A
  • Thermal comfort
  • Visual comfort
  • Acoustic comfort
  • Air quality
  • Lighting quality
  • Control over one’s surroundings

Health and comfort of building occupants.

93
Q

Sources of indoor air contaminants

A
  • smoking in/near building
  • VOCs
  • combustion processes in HVAC equipment, fireplaces, stoves, vehicles
  • mold/moisture
  • cleaning products
  • radon/methane
  • pollutants from processes in labs, hospitals, factories
  • tracked in on shoes
  • respirations of occupants, CO2, germs
94
Q

How to prevent indoor pollutants

A
  • Eliminate or control them from the source

- Provide proper ventilation

95
Q

Occupiable space

A

Enclosed space intended for human activities, excluding those that are primarily for other purposes (EG storage, equipment).

96
Q

Occupied space

A

Enclosed space intended for human activities, excluding those that are primarily for other purposes (EG storage, equipment)

  • Regularly occupied or Nonregularely
  • Individual or Shared multi occupant
  • Densly or Nondensly
97
Q

Densly occupied vs. nondensly

A

Densly - greater than 25 ppl per 1,000 sq. ft.

98
Q

What is the intent of the following prerequisite: Min. Indoor Air Quality Performance

A

To contribute to comfort / well-being.

99
Q

Types of ventilation

A
  • mechanical
  • natural
  • mixed mode
100
Q

Reference standard for Mechanically ventilated spaces

A

ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2010

101
Q

Reference standard for naturally ventilated spaces

A

ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2010

102
Q

What you can use to meet the following prerequisite: Min. Indoor Air Quality Performance

A
  • Ventilation strategies
  • Ventilation zones
  • Net occupiable space
  • Occupancy category
  • Design occupancy
103
Q

Min air filter rating to meet min. indoor air quality performance

A

MERV 11

104
Q

MERV

A

Minimum efficiency reporting value

105
Q

If using existing ventilation system, requires:

A

10 cfm (cubic feet per minute) minimum per person for occupied

106
Q

ETS

A

Environmental tobacco smoke control

107
Q

What is the prerequisite for environmental tobacco smoke control

A
  • smoking must be at least 25’ away from entries, air intakes, and operable windows
  • prohibit smoking outside property line
  • signage must be posted within 10’ from entry
  • no interior smoking rooms
108
Q

VOCs

A

volatile organic compounds

109
Q

Where does interior stop and exterior begin?

A

The waterproofing membrane (which counts as exterior)

110
Q

Reference standards for low-emitting materials

A
• CDPH standard method v1.1-2010
• ISO 17025
• ISO Guide 65
• AgBB-2010
• ISO 16000 parts 3,6,7,11
• South Coast Air Quality Management District
(SCAQMD) Rule 1168
• South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD) Rule 1113
111
Q

Requirements for Construction indoor air quality management plan

A

Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning National Contractors Association IAQ Guidelines
– SMANCA 008-2008
• Protect absorptive materials on-site and
installed from moisture damage
• Use MERV8 filters
• Prohibit use of tobacco products within 25 ft

112
Q

Requirements for Credit: Indoor air quality assessment

A

OPTION 1

Flush-out - 1pt

  • all furniture must be installed and finishes installed before flush-out counts
  • must be .3 cfm outdoor air per sq. ft.

OPTION 2

Air testing - 2 pts

  • at least one location per ventilation system per occupiable space
  • at least one location per floor
  • in all space types
  • must be in breathing zone (3-6 ft aft)
113
Q

Reference standard for indoor air quality assessment

A

ISO/IEC 17025

114
Q

Why the thermal comfort credit matters

A
  • productivity
  • comfort
  • well-being
115
Q

Factors affecting personal thermal comfort

A
  • surface temperature
  • air temperature
  • humidity
  • air movement
  • metabolic rate
  • clothing
116
Q

Standard related to thermal comfort

A

ASHRAE Standard 55-2010

117
Q

Examples of thermal controls

A
  • thermostats
  • ceiling fans
  • adjustable underfloor diffusers
  • task mounted controls
  • operable windows
118
Q

Interior lighting credit options

A
  • lighting control (1 pt)

- lighting quality (1 pt)

119
Q

Lighting control credit requires __% of control for individual occupancy spaces and __% for shared multi occupant spaces

A

90% // 100%

120
Q

To achieve the interior lighting quality credit, __ of the following options must be achieved…

A

4 of the following:

  • luminance
  • CRI
  • lamp life
  • direct overhead lighting
  • surface reflectances of walls/ceiling/floors
  • surface reflectances of furnishings
  • illuminance ratio of wall to work surface
  • illuminance ration of ceiling to work surface
121
Q

The purpose of the daylight credit

A
  • reinforce circadian rhythms

- reduce energy use

122
Q

Daylight credit requirements

A
  • provide glare control devices for all regularly occupied spaces
    and one of the following
  • simulation: daylight autonomy and sunlight exposure (2-3 pts)
  • simulation: illuminance calculations (1-2 pts)
  • measurement (3 pts)
123
Q

Acceptable and unacceptable forms of glare control devices

A

ACCEPTABLE

  • interior window
  • blinds/shades
  • curtains
  • movable exterior louvers
  • movable screens
  • movable awnings

UNACCEPTABLE

  • fixed exterior overhangs
  • fixed fins and louvers
  • dark colored glazing
  • frit, other glazing treatment
124
Q

IESNA

A

Illuminating Engineering Society of North America

125
Q

Standard for daylighting/sunlight

A

IESNA LM-83

126
Q

Information needed in order to simulate lighting scenarios

A
  • exterior obstructions
  • site plan / location / context
  • floor plan / furniture plan
  • interior and finish reflectances
  • glazing specs
127
Q

Light is measured __ inches A.F.F.

A

30 inches

128
Q

purpose of the “Quality views” credit

A
  • give occupants a connection to natural outdoor environment
129
Q

Requirements of the “quality views” credit

A
  • Provide direct line of sight to outdoors for 75% regularly occupied spaces

and

  • provide a clear image of the exterior
130
Q

The purpose of the acoustic performance credit

A
  • Well-being
  • Productivity
  • communications
131
Q

Considerations for acoustic performance

A
  • HVAC background noise
  • Sound isolation
  • Reverberation time
  • Sound reinforcement and masking
132
Q

STC

A

Sound transmission class

133
Q

Innovation credit required any combination of ____, ____, and ___ ____ strategies.

A

innovation, pilot, and exemplary performance (double)

134
Q

LEED AP credit requirement

A

Inclusion of a team member who has a specialty.

135
Q

Intention of “regional priority” credit

A
geographically specific
- environmental
- social equity
- public health
priorities
136
Q

(Pick one)
When applying for innovation credits, a project team:
A. Cannot submit any previously awarded innovation credit.
B. May receive credit for performance that doubles a credit requirement threshold.
C. May submit a product or strategy that is being used in an existing LEED credit.
D. May receive a credit for each LEED Accredited Professional that is on the project team.

A

B. May receive credit for performance that doubles a credit requirement threshold.

137
Q

(Pick one)
A developer wants to maximize the triple bottom line by maximizing daylighting and views. What actions might the developer take to fulfill all parts of the triple bottom line?
A. Restore habitat onsite
B. Purchase ergonomic furniture
C. Pursue local grants and incentives
D. Provide lighting controllability for occupants

A

D. Provide lighting controllability for occupants

138
Q

CIR

A

Credit Interpretation Ruling

139
Q

USGBC vision

A

buildings and communities will regenerate and sustain the health and vitality of all life within a generation

140
Q

MPRs

A

MINIMUM PROJECT REQUIREMENTS

  • Comply with local/state/federal environmental laws
  • Permanent location + complete structure
  • Reasonable site boundary. Portions of the project can’t be excluded to skew calculations.
  • Be over minimum square footage (250 sq. ft. for commercial interiors or 1,000 sq. ft. for all others).
  • Meet requirements. Must serve at least one full time equivalent. For O+M, must be at typical occupancy and occupied for 12 months prior to certification application.
  • Share energy and water info with USGBC
  • Have a minimum building to site area ratio.
141
Q

GBCI

A

Green Building Certification Institute

142
Q

Phases of the LEED certification process

A
  1. Register
  2. Apply
  3. Review
  4. Certify
143
Q

PREREQUISITE: Indoor Water Use Reduction

A
  • Reduce water use from baseline by 20%

- All common use fixtures need WaterSense label

144
Q

Three P’s

A

People, Planet, Profit

145
Q

Reference standard for VOC testing

A

CDPH (California Department of Public Health) Standard Method v1.1-2010

146
Q

SCAQMD

A

South Coast Air Quality Management District

147
Q

SMACNA

A

Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning National Contractors Association

148
Q

Factors that affect thermal comfort

A
  • Surface Temp
  • Air Temp
  • Humidity
  • Air Movement
  • Metabolic rate/clothing
149
Q

ASHRAE 55-2010

A

thermal conditions

150
Q

ASHRAE 62.1

A

Ventilation / IAQ

151
Q

ASHRAE 90.1-2010

A

Energy efficiency

152
Q

In the U.S., buildings are associate with ___% of CO2 emissions.

A

38%

153
Q

Additional categories for LEED for homes

A
  • Education & Awareness

- Location & Linkages

154
Q

Additional categories for LEED for Neighborhood development

A
  • Green Infrastructure & buildings
  • Neighborhood Pattern & Design
  • smart Location & Linkage
155
Q

Goals of LEED

A
  1. reverse contribution to global climate change
  2. enhance individual human health and well-being
  3. protect and restore water resources
  4. protect, enhance and restore biodiversity and ecosystem services
  5. promote sustainable and regenerative material resources cycles
  6. build a greener economy
  7. enhance social equity, environmental justice, and community quality of life
156
Q

Four levels of LEED certification

A
LEED has four levels of certification, depending on the point thresholds achieved:
· Certified, 40–49 points
· Silver, 50–59 points
· Gold, 60–79 points
· Platinum, 80 points and above
157
Q

Steps to certification

A

Steps to certification:

  1. Initiate Discovery phase.
  2. Select LEED Rating System.
  3. Check MPRs.
  4. Establish Project Goals.
  5. Define LEED Project scope.
  6. Develop LEED Scorecard.
  7. Continue discovery phase.
  8. Continue iterative process.
  9. Assign roles and responsibilities.
  10. Develop consistent documentation.
  11. Perform Quality assurance review and submit for certification.
158
Q

ACP

A

alternative compliance path

  • additional options to achieve credits that address unique project needs and advancements in science and technology