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LEED AP Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Commissioning (Cx)?

A

The process of verifying and documenting that a building and all of its systems and assemblies are planned, designed, installed, tested, operated and maintained to meet the Owner’s Project Requirements (OPR).

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2
Q

What are areas where people sit or stand to work are called?

A

Regularly Occupied Spaces

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3
Q

To be classified as a regularly occupied space how much time must an individual spend in it?

A

More than 1 hour per person per day on average

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4
Q

Portions of the building under the tenant’s scope need to be designed to what standard to be achieve Minimum Energy Performance?

A

ASHRAE 90.1-2010

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5
Q

Connected lighting power density must be what % below (what) to meet the prescriptive path of Minimum Energy Performance?

A

5% below ASHRAE 90.1-2010

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6
Q

Installing 50% or more ENERGY STAR equipment helps with what prerequisite or credit?

A

EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance

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7
Q

What is lighting power density defined as?

A

The installed lighting power, per unit area

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8
Q

What is the lighting power allowance measured in?

A

Watts

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9
Q

What other credits does lighting density affect.

A

EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance
EA Optimize Energy Performance
EA Prerequisite Fundamental Cx and Verification
EA Enhanced Cx
EQ Interior Lighting
EQ Daylight

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10
Q

For prescriptive compliance to earn 4 points for Interior Lighting, what % below the standard is required?

A

25%

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11
Q

For prescriptive compliance optimizing HVAC Zoning and Controls can earn how many points?

A

2 points

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12
Q

Of CFC’s, HCFC’s, and HFC’s, which are less harmful to the environment?

A

HFC’s

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13
Q

What must every tenant fit out meet for HVAC points when following the prescriptive path?

A

Every solar exposure must have a separate control zone. Interior spaces must be separately zoned and private offices and special occupancies must have active controls capable of sensing space use and modulating the HVAC system in response to space demand.

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14
Q

What is the prescriptive compliance path for HVAC Equipment Efficiency in base building systems?

A

For all base building HVAC systems that serve the project, comply with the recommendations in the appropriate ASHRAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide.

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15
Q

What interior lighting controls can earn points for the prescriptive compliance path of EA Optimize Energy Performance

A 
Daylight Controls (1 pt)
Occupancy Sensor Lighting Controls (1 pt)
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16
Q

What 3 base building systems can earn points for the prescriptive compliance EA Optimize Energy Performance

A

Building Envelope, Opaque (2 pts)
Building Envelope, Glazing (2 pts)
HVAC Equipment Efficiency (2 pts)

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17
Q

What is an economizer?

A

A device used to make building systems more energy efficient. Examples include HVAC enthalpy controls, which are based on humidity and temperature.

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18
Q

What types of equipment and appliances can earn points for prescriptive compliance in EA Optimize Energy Performance?

A

ENERGY STAR appliances, office equipment, electronics, and commercial food service equipment. Excluded are HVAC, lighting, and building envelope products.

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19
Q

If 90% of the equipment in a new tenant space is ENERGY STAR rated, how many points would a project team earn?

A

2 points

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20
Q

Who should be involved with purchasing ENERGY STAR qualified equipment and appliances.

A

The office manager and project owner should institute a purchasing policy, and track purchases.

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21
Q

What is rated power?

A

the nameplate power on a piece of equipment, representing the capacity of the unit and its max draw.

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22
Q

Furniture must be tested in accordance with what standard to be considered low-emitting?

A

BIFMA

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23
Q

What used furniture is considered compliant with low-emitting materials?

A

Salvaged and used furniture that is more than 1-year-old at the time of use.

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24
Q

Pressure differential is measured in what units?

A

Pascals (Pa)

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25
Q

What does MERV stand for?

A

Minimum Efficiency Reporting Value

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26
Q

Flush-out air must be at what temperature and humidity?

A

An internal temperature of at least 60 degree and no higher than 80 degrees F and a relative humidity no higher than 60%

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27
Q

What is a technology strategy for project teams when selecting water efficient fixtures and fittings on a project?

A

Use EPA WaterSense labeled fixtures and fittings

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28
Q

Under typical circumstances how many times does 1 male FTE use a urinal per day.

A

2 times per standard fixture use

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29
Q

Under typical cirumstances how many times does 1 female FTE use a water closest per day?

A

3 times per standard fixture use

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30
Q

Under typical circumstances, how many times does 1 FTE (both male and female) use a lavatory faucet per day?

A

3 times per standard fixture use for a duration of 15 seconds

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31
Q

What are some types of eligible on-site renewable energy systems?

A 
Photovoltaic
Wind energy
Solar thermal
Biofuel-based energy
Geothermal
Low impact hydroelectic
Wave and tidal power
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32
Q

What are some types on ineligible on-site renewable energy systems?

A

Architectural features
Passive solar
Daylighting
Geo-Exchange (ground source heat pumps)

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33
Q

What are the WE Credit Indoor Water Use Reduction point thresholds for commercial interiors?

A 
25% = 2 pts
30% = 4 pts
35% = 6 pts
40% = 8 pts
45% = 10 pts
50% = 12 pts

No exemplary performance

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34
Q

What is the definition of source reduction?

A

To reduce the amount of unnecessary material brought into a building (e.g. purchasing products with less packaging)

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35
Q

What is the minimum number of years a tenant must commit to remain in the same location for MR Credit Long Term Commitment?

A

10 years

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36
Q

What is the % threshold associated with Option 1 Interior Reuse for MR Credit Interiors Life-Cycle Impact Reduction

A

50%

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37
Q

Calculations for the MR Credit Interiors Life-Cycle Impact Reduction Option 1 Interior Reuse are based on what factor?

A

Surface Area

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38
Q

What are the 4 preferred strategies for reducing waste?

A

source reduction, reuse, recycling, and waste-to-energy

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39
Q

What are some design strategies/techniques for minimizing waste through source control?

A
  • Shop fabrication of component parts
  • Modular construction
  • Ordering material cut to size
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40
Q

What do project teams need to obtain to retain as verification records for MR Credit Construction and Demolition Waste Management

A
  • Waste haul receipts
  • Waste management reports
  • Spreadsheets
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41
Q

What is one trade-off comingled construction waste sorting might have even though it simplifies waste management efforts and helps with space constraints.

A

Increased recycling costs

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42
Q

What types of salvaged material should project teams consider for MR Credit Interiors Life-Cycle Impact Reduction?

A

Beams, posts, flooring, paneling, doors, frames, cabinetry, brick and decorative items

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43
Q

What types of salvaged or reused furniture and furnishings should project teams consider for MR Credit Interiors Life-Cycle Impact Reduction?

A
  • Case pieces
  • Seating
  • Filing systems
  • Decorative lighting and accessories
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44
Q

What is the definition of the developmental footprint?

A

The area affected by development or by project site activity. Hardscape, access roads, parking lots, nonbuilding facilities, and the building itself are all included in the development footprint.

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45
Q

What are the transportation distances measured from for the location valuation factor?

A

Project site

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46
Q

What are the different classification types for a building’s occupant?

A

Regular building occupants and visitors

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47
Q

What are building visitors (transients)?

A

Occupants who do not use a facility on a consistent, regular, daily basis. Examples: students in higher education and retail customers

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48
Q

What standard set limits for plumbing fixture settings?

A

Energy Policy Act (EP Act) of 1992 and 2005

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49
Q

What is the default gender ratio for LEED water calculations?

A

1 to 1; i.e. 50/50 male to female

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50
Q

What are the baseline water consumption fixtures and fittings?

A

water closets, urinals, lavatory faucets, showers, kitchen sink faucets

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51
Q

What appliances must be addressed for Indoor Water Use Reduction?

A
  • Residential clothes washers
  • Commercial clothes washers
  • Residential dishwashers
  • Pre-rinse spray valves
  • Ice machines
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52
Q

What are the benefits of commissioning?

A
  • Reduced energy use
  • Lower operating costs
  • Reduced contractor callbacks
  • Better building documentation
  • Improved occupant productivity
  • Verification that systems perform with OPR
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53
Q

What energy-related systems must be commissioned?

A

HVAC&R, lighting & daylighting controls, domestic hot water systems, renewable energy

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54
Q

What do the Owner’s Project (OPR) Requirements typically include?

A
  • owner and user requirements
  • environmental and sustainability goals
  • energy efficiency goals
  • indoor environmental quality requirements
  • equipment and system expectations
  • building occupant and O&M personnel requirements
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55
Q

What should the Basis of Design (BOD) include?

A

Primary design assumptions, standards, and narrative descriptions

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56
Q

Process energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what equipment?

A

It may include refrigeration equipment, cooking and food preparation, clothes washing, and other major support appliances

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57
Q

Regulated or (non-process) energy includes what systems?

A
  • Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, facade, or building grounds)
  • HVAC
  • Service water heating for domestic or space heating purposes
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58
Q

What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?

A

Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration

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59
Q

Where can technical guidance be found if a project utilizes a district energy system?

A

ASHRAE 90.1-2010 Appendix G

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60
Q

What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?

A
  • Orientation
  • Site energy sources
  • Efficient envelope
  • Energy recovery systems
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61
Q

What are the 3 basic methods for ventilating buildings

A
  • Mechanical ventilation (active ventilation)
  • Natural ventilation (passive ventilation)
  • Mixed-mode ventilation (both mechanical & natural ventilation)
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62
Q

What are ECM’s?

A

Energy Conservation Measures – installations or modifications of equipment or systems intended to reduce energy use and costs

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63
Q

What is a BAS?

A

Buildings Automation System – a BAS uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.

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64
Q

When can certification be revoked?

A

Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such circumstances occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.

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65
Q

What is premature obsolescence?

A

The wearing out or disuse of components or materials whose service life exceeds their design life. For example, a material with a potential life of 30 years is intentionally designed to last only 15 years, such that its remaining 15 years of service is potentially wasted. In contrast, components whose service life is the same as their expected use are utilized to their maximum potential.

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66
Q

What is differential durability?

A

A state in which 2 materials with different life spans make up 1 complete component. If 1 materials wears out and cannot be separated and replaced, the entire product must be thrown away.

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67
Q

How many strategies must be implemented when designing for flexibility

A

At least 3

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68
Q

What are the requirements for surrounding density?

A

Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density withing 1/4 mile radius of the project boundary meets either the separate residential and non residential densities or combined density value.

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69
Q

What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?

A

0.5 non-residential density (FAR) and 7 residential density (DU/acre)

OR

22,000 SF/acre of buildable land combined density

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70
Q

What are the requirements for diverse uses

A

Construct or renovate a building or a space within a building such that the building’s main entrance is withing 1/2-mile walking distance of the main entrance of 4 - 7 (1 pt) or 8+ (2 pts) existing and publicly available diverse uses

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71
Q

What are the 5 use categories for diverse uses

A
  • Food retail
  • Community-serving retail
  • Services
  • Civic and community facilities
  • Community anchor uses (BD&C and ID&C only)
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72
Q

What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit

A

1/4 mile walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, OR withing 1/2 mile walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals

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73
Q

Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?

A

A functional entry - a building opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.

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74
Q

How many bike racks are required for a CI project?

A

Short-term storage: at least 2.5% of all peak visitors

Long-term storage: 5% of all regular building occupants

(no fewer than 4 spaces per building)

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75
Q

How many bike racks are required for a retail project?

A

2 short-term storage spaces for every spaces for every 5,000 SF but no fewer than 2 per tenant space

Long term storage for at lease 5 % of regular building occupants, but no fewer than 2 per building in addition to the short-term storage

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76
Q

How many shower and changing facilities are required for a CI project?

A

At least 1 for the first 100 FTE and 1 additional for every 150 regular building occupants thereafter.

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77
Q

What do Retail project have to include for Bicycle Facilities instead of shower rooms.

A

A bicycle maintenance program OR bicycle route assistance for employees and customers that is easily visible.

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78
Q

How do you calculate an FTE?

A

An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8

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79
Q

How is preferred parking defined?

A

The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a building (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees.

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80
Q

What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?

A

1 to 1; i.e. 50/50 male to female

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81
Q

What are the benefits of commissioning?

A
  • Reduced energy use
  • Lower operating costs
  • Reduced contractor callbacks
  • Better building documentation
  • Improved occupant productivity
  • Verification that systems perform with Owner’s Project Requirements
82
Q

What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification?

A
  • Cx report
  • Current facility requirements
  • Operations & Maintenance Plan
83
Q

What energy-related systems must be commissioned?

A
  • Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
  • Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
  • Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
  • Renewable energy systems
84
Q

What do the Owner’s Project Requirements (OPR) typically include?

A
  • Owner and user requirements
  • Environmental and sustainability goals
  • Energy efficiency goals
  • IEQ requirements
  • Equipment and system expectations
  • Building occupant and O&M personnel requirements
85
Q

What should the Basis of Deign (BOD) include?

A

Primary design assumptions, standards, and narrative descriptions

86
Q

Process Energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?

A
  • Misc equipment
  • Computers
  • Elevators
  • Escalators
  • Kitchen cooking & refrigeration equipment
  • Laundry washing & drying
  • Lighting exempt from power allowance (e.g. medical equipment)
  • and other (e.g. waterfall or fountain pumps)
87
Q

Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?

A
  • Lighting (interior, parking, garage, surface parking, facade, or building grounds)
  • HVAC
  • Service water heating for domestic or space heating purposes
88
Q

What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?

A

Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration

89
Q

What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making building systems more energy efficient?

A

An economizer

90
Q

What are 6 components of ASHRAE 90.1?

A
  • Building Envelope
  • HVAC
  • Service Water Heating
  • Power
  • Lighting
  • Other equipment
91
Q

What 4 fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?

A
  • Orientation
  • Site energy sources
  • Efficient Envelope
  • Energy recovery systems
92
Q

What are the 2 options for Enhanced Refrigerant Management?

A

Option 1: No Refrigerants or Low-Impact Refrigerants

Option 2: Calculation of Refrigeration Impact

93
Q

When using low-impact refrigerants, what maximum GWP is allowed?

A

50

94
Q

In a retail project following the prescriptive requirements of Enhanced Refrigerant Management what procedures should be followed for leak detection?

A

GreenChill’s Best Practices Guideline for leak tightness at installation

95
Q

What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental Refrigerant Management requirements?

A

Small HVAC units (less than 0.5 lbs of refrigerant), standard refrigerators, small water coolers

96
Q

What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?

A

5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project’s energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates

97
Q

What are the 2 Options to determine electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets

A

Option 1: Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance

OR

Option 2: Estimate electricity use using CBECS database

98
Q

RECs can be used to mitigate what types(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets

A

Scope 2, electricity use

99
Q

Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets

A

Scope 1 or Scope 2 emissions

100
Q

What are the 3 basic methods for ventilating buildings

A
  • Mechanical ventilation (active ventilation)
  • Natural ventilation (passive ventilation)
  • Mixed-mode ventilation (both mechanical & natural ventilation
101
Q

What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?

A

25 feet

102
Q

What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)

A

25 feet

103
Q

What acoustic issues need to be considered for Acoustic Performance?

A
  • HVAC background noise
  • Sound transmission
  • Reverberation time
  • Sound reinforcement and masking systems
104
Q

At what % must a monitoring system generate an alarm when CO2 sensors exceed a setpoint?

A

10% variation from design values

105
Q

What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?

A

25 people or more per 1,000 SF

106
Q

For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilated rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?

A

30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1

107
Q

What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?

A

MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)

108
Q

How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?

A

Follow the CIBSE flow diagram

109
Q

What is required fro Construction IAQ Management Plan?

A
  • Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
  • Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
  • Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
  • Prohibit smoking in the building and within 25 feet of entrances
110
Q

What are the 5 SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?

A
  • HVAC protection
  • Source control
  • Pathway interruption
  • Housekeeping
  • Scheduling
111
Q

What are the 2 Options for Indoor Air Quality Assessment

A

Option 1: Flush-out

Option 2: Air Testing

112
Q

What are the 2 building flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment ?

A

14,000 cubic feet of outdoor air per SF of floor area at 60 F and 60% relative humidity

OR

3,500 cubic feet of outdoor air per SF of floor area at a minimum rate of 0.30 (cfm) until reaching 14,000 cubic feet per SF

113
Q

At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment

A

3 - 6 feet above the floor to represent the breathing zone

114
Q

What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?

A

California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)

115
Q

How long must a permanent entryway system be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies

A

10 feet in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances

116
Q

What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?

A

MERV 13 (F7) or higher

117
Q

What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck ceilings for interior cross contamination prevention?

A
  • Garages
  • Housekeeping and laundry areas
  • Copying and printing rooms
118
Q

What % of the building occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?

A

At least 90% of individual occupants spaces and 100% of multioccupant spaces

119
Q

How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?

A

3: on, off, and mid-level

120
Q

What % of the building occupants must have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?

A

At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared mutlioccupant spaces

121
Q

What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?

A

Option 1: ASHRAE Standard 55-2010

OR

Option 2: IOS and CEN Standards

122
Q

What are the 6 primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?

A
  • Surface/radiant temperature
  • Air temperature
  • Humidity
  • Air movement/speed
  • Metabolic rate
  • Clothing
123
Q

What are the 3 options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?

A

Option 1: Simulation: Spatial Daylight Autonomy and Annual Sunlight Exposure

Option 2: Simulation: Illuminance Calculations

Option 3: Measurement

124
Q

What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?

A

75% = 1 point

125
Q

What are the 4 kinds of views?

A
  • Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different directions at least 90 degrees apart
  • Views that include at least 2 of the following: (1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; and (3) objects at least 25 ft from the exterior of the glazing
  • Unobstructed views located within the distance of 3x the head height of the vision glazing
  • Views with a view factor of 3 or greater
126
Q

What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Quality Views?

A

75% = 1 point

127
Q

Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what % of the required area for Quality Views?

A

30%

128
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?

A

2 points

129
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn in Innovation Credit Innovation for the innovation option?

A

4 points

130
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits

A

4 points

131
Q

What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?

A

1 LEED AP with a specialty appropriate for the project

132
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits

A

4 points

133
Q

At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what 5 materials?

A
  • Paper
  • Corrugated cardboard
  • Glass
  • Plastics
  • Metals
134
Q

What do calculations need to be done by for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?

A

Weight or Volume

135
Q

What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Management

A 
50% = 1 point
75% = 2 points
136
Q

What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Management Planning

A

Waste diversion goals

137
Q

Who is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?

A

the end user

138
Q

What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredient optimization?

A

REACH Optimization

139
Q

For Innovation credit when pursuing Option 1 Innovation, what must the team identify?

A
  • Intent of proposed innovation credit
  • Proposed requirement(s) for compliance
  • Proposed submittals
  • Strategies used to meet requirements
140
Q

What is a BAS

A

Building Automation System (BAS), it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting

141
Q

What is WaterSense?

A

WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs

142
Q

At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?

A

3-6 ft above the floor

143
Q

When can certification be revoked?

A

Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such circumstances occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.

144
Q

What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process

A
  • Basic envelope attributes
  • Lighting levels
  • Thermal comfort ranges
  • Plug and process load needs
  • Programmatic operational parameters
145
Q

What water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?

A
  • Fixture and fitting water demand
  • Process water demand
  • Supply sources
146
Q

During the discovery for Integrative Process what should be considered for site selection?

A
  • Building site attributes
  • Transportation
  • Building features
  • Occupants’ well-being
147
Q

For Integrative Process what must be analyzed at a minimum?

A

Site selection and energy-related systems. Water-related systems are optional.

148
Q

How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building design aspect for Integrative Design?

A

At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the 5 aspects

149
Q

What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?

A
  • LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED ND, Stage 3 LEED NED Certified Project
  • LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
  • LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified ND
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
150
Q

What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?

A

Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased within 100 miles of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost

151
Q

What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?

A

At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers

152
Q

What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?

A

Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products

153
Q

What are the 3 types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?

A
  • Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
  • Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
  • Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 whole product
154
Q

How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary performance for product disclosure?

A

At least 40 qualifying products

155
Q

A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?

A

Each of the 3 types of EPDs (product-specific declaration, industry-wide (generic) EPD, and product-specific Type III EPD) require at least a cradle-to-gate scope

156
Q

Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what % of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?

A

30%

157
Q

All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?

A

ISO 14025, 14040, 14044 and EN 15804 or ISO 21930

158
Q

What are the acceptable corporate sustainability (CSR) frameworks?

A
  • Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
  • Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
  • UN Global Compact: Communication of Progress
  • ISO 26000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
159
Q

What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?

A
  • Extended producer responsibility
  • Bio-based materials
  • Wood products
  • Material reuse
  • Recycled content
160
Q

What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?

A
  • GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
  • C2C Certified
  • REACH Optimization (international alternative compliance path)
161
Q

What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?

A
  • C2C v2 Gold: 100% of cost
  • C2C v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
  • C2C v3 Silver: 100% of cost
    C2C v2 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
162
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)

A

72 weekday, 40 weekend

163
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?

A

24 weekday, 6 weekend

164
Q

When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit ?

A

When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date

165
Q

What must a bicycle network connect to?

A

At least one of the following:

  • at least 10 diverse uses
  • a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
166
Q

What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?

A

Within 200-yards walking or bicycling distance

167
Q

What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, quality transit must be?

A

Within a 3-mile bicycling distance of the project boundary

168
Q

Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?

A

Within 100 ft walking distance of any main entrance

169
Q

Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?

A

Within 100 ft walking distance of any functional entry

170
Q

What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A
  1. Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements

2. A % reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)

171
Q

When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

When a project earns 1 or more points under LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses OR LT Credit Access to Quality Transit

172
Q

How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reduction are made from the base ratios

173
Q

How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?

A

A 5-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first

174
Q

Any individual energy end use that represents ___% of the total annual consumption of the tenant space must have an advanced energy meter?

A

10%

175
Q

How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?

A

18 months

176
Q

What energy sources must be metered in a building?

A
  • Electricity
  • Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
  • Biofuels
  • District chilled water, steam and hot water
177
Q

How often must advanced meters be able to report data?

A

Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually

178
Q

What 3 components are part of MBCx?

A
  • Permanent energy monitoring systems
  • real-time energy analysis
  • ongoing Cx
179
Q

What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?

A

Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least 3 material streams

180
Q

When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management, what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?

A

2.5 lbs/SF of waste for the building’s floor area

181
Q

What does not quality as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?

A

Alternative daily cover (ADC) and land-clearing debris

182
Q

What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage and disposal?

A

Choose 2 of the 3:

  • batteries
  • mercury-containing lamps
  • electronic waste
183
Q

What 2 simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?

A

sDA and ASE

184
Q

What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?

A

300/50% - 300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8am and 6pm local time for a full calendar year

185
Q

What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?

A

1000, 250 - 1000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8am and 6pm local time for a full calendar year

186
Q

When do the daylight simulations for Options 2: Illuminance calculations occur?

A

9am on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3pm on the second equinox

187
Q

At what height should daylight measurements be taken

A

30 inches above the finished floor for the default workplane height

188
Q

What % of furniture reuse is required for MR Credit Interiors Life-Cycle Impact Reduction?

A

30% of the total furniture and furnishings costs

189
Q

For ID+C projects, what are the 3 options for materials life-cycle impact reduction?

A

Option 1 - Interior Reuse
Option 2- Furniture Reuse
Option 3 - Design for Flexibility

190
Q

What are some approaches to flexible design?

A
  • Accessible floor and ceiling systems
  • Demountable partitions
  • Plug-and-play power and lighting systems
  • Integral labels
  • Take-back program
  • Leasing arrangements
191
Q

What is a product as it applies to the MR credits?

A

An item that arrives on the project site either as a finished element ready for installation or as a component to another item assembled on-site. The product unit is defined by the functional requirement for use in the project; this includes the physical components and services needed to serve the intended function of the permanently installed building product. In addition, similar product within a specification, each contributes as a separate product.

192
Q

What are the material contributions of an assembly based on?

A

The value is based on the weight of the component as a % of the weight of the total material

193
Q

What does a retail project require for MR Prerequisite Storage and Collection of Recyclables?

A

A waste stream study

194
Q

What additional appliances must meet minimum indoor water use reductions for retail and hospitality projects?

A

Dishwashers, food steamers, and combination ovens

195
Q

Are projects where fixtures or fittings not within the tenant space exempt from WE Prerequisite Indoor Water Use Reduction?

A

Yes

196
Q

What maximum % of the certifying gross floor area of a LEED project may consist of incomplete space?

A

40%

197
Q

For ID+C projects, what spaces are considered incomplete?

A

If they do not include the furnishings, fixtures, and equipment intended for regular operations of the space

198
Q

What are the 3 ID+C rating systems variations?

A
  • Commercial Interiors
  • Retail
  • Hospitality
199
Q

When is the prescriptive path for Minimum Energy Performance advantageous?

A
  • When the project has conventional systems
  • When the budget and timeline benefit from simplified decisions
  • When the cost of energy modeling is not warranted
200
Q

What are the 2 allowed methods for reducing lighting power density for the prescriptive compliance path of EA Credit Optimize Energy Performance?

A

Space-by space method or applying the whole-building lighting power allowance to the entire tenant space

LEED AP Exam (1 decks)

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