Lectures 17&18 - Assisted reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

Where does fertilisation occur in the uterus

A

Ampulla region - the egg turns into a zygote

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2
Q

How many days into development is the embryo in the uterus

A

5-6

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3
Q

Explain human preimplantation embryo development

A

1 cell -> 2 cell (early blastocyst) -> 4 cell (expanding blastocyst) -> 8 cell (fully expanded blastocyst) -> morula ( hatching blastocyst)

embryos all enclosed within a glycoprotein coat called Zona Pellucida - prevents the embryo from implanting as it moves along the fallopian tube

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4
Q

When does the embryo begin to change in size

A

at the expanding blastocyst stage, before this stage the blastomeres become progressivly smaller as the embryo divides through the four cell stage and to the 8 cell stage

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5
Q

What is the last stage of embryonic development that you can see distinct cells within the embryo

A

8 Cell stage - fully expanded blastocyst

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6
Q

What is the first morphological event of development called? when does it occur

A

Compaction - occurs at the fully expanded blastocyst stage (8 cells) goes from a pre-compact 8 cell to a compact 8 cell

cells compact down onto one another and you get a morula stage embryo (about 16 cell stage)

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7
Q

Explain the process of embryo compaction

A

Occurs at 8-cell stage mediated by E-cadherin - member of the Ca2+-dependent cell adhesion molecules

E-cadherin redistributed in each blastomere to being localised to the cell contact sites

Causes cells to flatten and adhere to one another (compacting)

Concurrent onset of cell polarity with loss of microvilli from contact sites

Gap and tight junctional complexes also form - so cells can communicate with each other

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8
Q

How/when does differential division occur in embryo development, what is this process called

A

Cavitation
when the morula (16 cell) is formed

whereby cells inheriting the apical domain of parental 8-cell blastomeres will form part of the trophectoderm at the 32-cell stage
whereas cells inheriting the basaldomain, will remain on the interior and give rise to the inner cell mass (ICM)
the ICM gives rise to the embryo proper

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9
Q

What is the second morphological event that occurs in preimplantation development?

A

Cavitation (blastocyst formation)

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10
Q

Explain Cavitation

A

Blastocyst formation
Results in the first two lineages of development:
Trophectoderm (TE) – gives rise to extraembryonic lineages
Inner cell mass (ICM) – gives rise to the embryo proper

TE is a transporting epithelium responsible for the passage of nutrients and ions into the blastocoel cavity for use by the ICM.

Basal membranes contain the sodium pump (Na+, K+, ATPase). Transports ions across the TE resulting in the
vectorial transport of water into the blastocoel

Tight junctional complex is a necessity – provides impermeable seal allowing fluid to accumulate,
regulates paracellular transport and contributes to a polarisation of the distribution of the Na+, K+, ATPase.

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11
Q

What are statistics on infertility?

A

Affects between 1 in 6 and 1 in 7 couples in UK around 3.5 million people
Most common reason for women aged 20-45 to visit their GP after pregnancy alone

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12
Q

What are the different types of infertility?

A

30% male factor
10% uterine
20% tubal
25% ovulatory
25% unexplained

in 40% of cases, disorders are found in both man and woman

NICE 2013

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13
Q

What are the female causes of infertility?

A

Problems with ovulation:
-polycystic ovarian syndrome
- luteal phase defects

Tubal problems:
- infection
- previous ectopic pregnancy
- congenital abnormality
- endometriosis
- hydrosalpinx

Uterine problems:
- fibroids
- uterine polyps

Age

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14
Q

What are the male causes of infertility?

A

poor sperm quality
azoospermia
sperm dysfunction
ejaculation disorders

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15
Q

What are ovulation disorders classified into?

A
  • anovulation
  • oligoovulation
  • luteal phase defects
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16
Q

What are the primary causes of ovulation disorders?

A

surgical removal of ovary
ovaries damaged radiotherapy/chemotherapy
premature menopause (affects 1-2% <40 years)
congenital defect
Polycystic ovaries

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17
Q

What are the secondary causes of ovulation disorders?

A

severe stress
recent large gain or loss of weight
tumour
excess prolactin
disturbances in thyroid and adrenal gland

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18
Q

What incidences of female infertility are due to ovulation problems?

A

25%

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19
Q

Explain the ovulation problem: Luteal phase defect

A

Defect of progesterone secretion by corpus luteum or defective response of the endometrium to hormonal stimulation

  • Results in inadequate endometrium for embryo implantation

Due to:
1) Poor follicle production
2) Premature failure of corpus luteum
3) Failure of uterine lining to respond to progesterone

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of ovulation disorders in women of reproductive age?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

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21
Q

Explain Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

A

Characterised by many minute follicles in the ovaries and an excess production of androgens.

Associated with weight gain, excessive hair growth, irregular, infrequent or absent periods and infrequent or absent ovulation.

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22
Q

What are the incidences of Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

A

Incidence
90% women with oligomenorrhoea
30% women with amenorrhoea
70% women with anovulation

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23
Q

What are the treatments for Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

A

Lose weight if over weight
Induce ovulation with clomiphene tablets
Controlled ovarian stimulation with FSH and hCG
Surgery

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24
Q

Explain tubal problems

A

Tubal damage common cause of infertility. Incidence ~20%
Damaged fimbriae prevent movement of oocyte into the Fallopian tube

Adhesions may distort the tube

Tubal blockage prevents the sperm from reaching the oocyte, or prevents the zygote from moving to the uterus, leading to an increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy

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25
Q

what are the causes of tubal problems

A
  • Infection – most common cause
    ● Previous pelvic infection
    ● Sexually transmitted diseases eg chlamydia and gonorrhoea
    ● Intrauterine contraceptive device - can lead to uterine infection, which spreads to Fallopian tubes
    ● appendicitis, bowel infection
    ● after termination of pregnancy, miscarriage or delivery -Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • Congenital abnormality
  • Hydrosalpinx – blocked, dilated, fluid filled Fallopian tube usually caused by previous pelvic infection
  • Endometriosis
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26
Q

Explain features of endometriosis

A

Misplaced endometrial tissue outside the uterus

Commonly affects the ovaries and Fallopian tube, less commonly the bowel and bladder

If severe may reduce fertility

Associated with mild, severe or chronic pain during menstruation and sexual intercourse may be painful

Affects up to 10% of women of childbearing age

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27
Q

Explain treatments of endometriosis

A

Pain relief with NSAIDs
Prevent fluctuation in the woman’s hormone levels to remove the stimulation for growth of the endometriosis eg the oral
contraceptive pill

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28
Q

What are the infertility incidents in uterine problems

A

generally no problems with getting pregnant, tend to miscarry - incidence for this is 10%

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29
Q

What are the causes for uterine problems?

A

Fibroids - Benign growths arising from smooth muscle of the uterus
Many are fertile and have no problems maintaining the pregnancy unless fibroids distort the uterine cavity and may prevent implantation

Uterine Polyps - Small grows of endometrial tissue dangling in the uterus may interfere with implantation

Uterine adhesions - may be consequence of infection or surgery may occlude uterine cavity

Congenital problems - absent uterus, hypoplastic uterus, double uterus, uterine septum etc

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30
Q

Explain how female age affects fertility

A

Reproductive function declines as a woman ages, particularly after 35
Women delay starting a family due to career demands, education, financial stability, suitable partner etc

However, women have a finite number of eggs
Egg quality decreases with age
Chromosomal abnormalities increase in late 30s
Ageing also affects hormone production and ovulation
Higher incidence of miscarriage in women in their late 30s

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31
Q

What is the incidence of male infertility

A

30%

32
Q

Explain causes of male infertility

A

Poor sperm quantity (oligospermia) or quality - ~90% of male infertility.

Azoospermia - 3-4% of male infertility

Sperm dysfunction – 3-6% of male infertility

Ejaculation disorders – 4-6% of male infertility

33
Q

Explain features of Poor sperm quantity (oligospermia) or quality

A

Low motility (asthenozoospermia)
High percentage of abnormal sperm (teratozoospermia)
Hormone deficiency
testicular varicocele
infection
drugs eg antidepressants, antihypertensives, anabolic steroids, smoking and excessive alcohol
antisperm antibodies

34
Q

Explain features of Azoospermia

A

no spermatogenesis
blocked vas deferens, or congenitally did not develop
trauma to the testicles, severe mumps infection after puberty
chemotherapy/radiotherapy
Klinefelter’s syndrome

35
Q

Explain features of sperm dysfunction

A

Normal semen analysis but sperm have defective fertilising capacity
Defective acrosome
abnormal sperm movement
inability of sperm to bind to the zona pellucida

36
Q

Explain features of ejaculation disorders

A

retrograde ejaculation – semen ejaculated backwards into the bladder
impotency

37
Q

Explain features of immunological infertility

A

Anti-sperm antibodies can be present in either or both partners
Present in either the blood or in the genital tract secretions eg cervical mucus and ejaculate

Incidence 1-2%

In ejaculate anti-sperm antibodies cause sperm to stick together and prevent them from being released.

In the female anti-sperm antibodies may interfere with sperm transportand fertilisation.

Unknown cause but may be due to genital infection or vasectomy.

38
Q

What are features of unexplained infertility

A

Failure to conceive after one year of unprotected intercourse and despite thorough investigations no cause of infertility could be determined

Incidence ~25%

Causes: None, even after thorough investigations of both partners

39
Q

Explain features of human in vitro fertilisation (IVF)

A

Regulated by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority (HFEA)
1.3 million IVF treatment cycles in UK since 1991
Overall live birth rate per embryo transferred 24% in 2018
Average multiple birth rate decreased from 24% in 2008 to 10% 2017 to 6% in 2019
Single embryo transfer now common practice.
In 2019 one embryo transferred in 75% of IVF cycles compared to just 13% in 1991

40
Q

What is the treatment for infertility and what does the process involve?

A

IVF-ET (In vitro Fertilisation and Embryo transfer) process:

  • Preliminary testing
  • Downregulation
  • Ovarian stimulation
  • Monitoring growth of follicles
  • Egg collection guided by transvaginal ultrasound
  • Sperm sample provided same day as egg collection
  • Fertilisation and embryo culture
  • Embryo transfer
  • Pregnancy testing/monitoring
41
Q

What are the different types of IVF

A

Standard IVF – oocytes incubated with sperm over night and allowed to fertilise the oocytes

ICSI (Intracytoplasmic sperm injection) – single sperm injected directly into the oocyte

In 2017 ICSI accounted for 34% of fresh IVF treatments in UK

42
Q

Explain the step of downregulation in IVF

A

To stop the body’s normal control mechanisms for ovulation

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone agonist (GnRH agonist) eg as a nasal spray (Nafarelin)

Agonists do not dissociate quickly from the GnRH receptor
- causes Flare Effect
- An initial increase of pituitary hormones but after ~10 days FSH and LH levels decrease

Downregulation confirmed with a blood test for oestradiol levels

Side effects: hot flushes, vaginal dryness, headaches,
mood swings

43
Q

Explain the step of ovarian stimulation in IVF

A

To increase the number of oocytes produced

Stimulate ovaries with daily injections of FSH
eg Gonal F
Continue to take GnRH agonist nasal spray

Monitoring response of drugs;
- blood tests (oestradiol levels)
- ultrasound scans to measure the number & size of follicles

When follicles have reached right size (lead follicles ~18mm)a hCG injection (eg Profasi) given to trigger final oocyte maturation
Stop the GnRH agonist nasal spray and FSH injections

44
Q

Explain oocyte retrieval as a step in IVF

A

Occurs 34-36h post hCG injection

A thin needle is passed through the vaginal wall into the
ovaries guided by vaginal ultrasound

The follicular fluid is gently aspirated and given to embryologists to search for oocytes

Procedure takes ~20-30mins
.
A good cycle should produce ~10 oocytes

45
Q

Explain Insemination, Fertilisation & Embryo transfer in IVF

A

Semen sample obtained, washed and concentrated20,000 - 30,000 motile sperm/ml are incubated with the oocytes overnight in culture medium to allow fertilisation to occur

Embryologists perform a fertilisation check to obtain the number of fertilised oocytes (zygotes) of normal morphology ie the presence of 2 pronuclei = Day 1

If embryos have developed, 1 or 2 (or occasionally 3 in women over the age of 40 and using embryos created from their own eggs) are transferred via a catheter through the cervix into the uterus, either on day 2 or 3 (2-cell to 8-cell stage), or at the blastocyst stage.

Progesterone vaginal pessaries are taken daily to
support the endometrium and increase the chance
of success

46
Q

Explain the step of pregnancy testing in IVF

A

Blood test on Day 14 – measures level of hCG
If positive repeated on Day 16 to check for rising hCG levels
Stop taking progesterone pessaries

47
Q

How are embryos selected for transfer in Assisted Reproductive Technologies?

A

Predominantly based on morphological criteria
- rate of cleavage
- embryo scoring
- blastocyst scoring

More recent developments
- live cell imaging

48
Q

Explain the rate of cleavage

A

Embryos that cleave to the 2-cell stage by 24-25h
post-insemination are more viable than pronuclear
embryos.

On day 2 (44-48h post-insemination) embryos should
be at 4-cell stage, transfer of 2-cell embryos given a
lower priority

backed up by Van montfoort et al. (2004) showed that pregnancy rate (%) when no early cleavage lower than when there was early cleavage

49
Q

Explain the morphological embryo grade

A

Grade I:
Even blastomeres
No fragmentation

Grade II:
Even blastomeres
<10% fragmentation

Grade II.5:
Even blastomeres
<30% fragmentation

Grade III:
Uneven blastomeres
>30% fragmentation

Grade IV:
Only one viable blastomere

Grade V:
No viable blastomeres

50
Q

Explain the blastocyst scoring system

A

Grade 1: Early blastocyst: blastocoel being less than half
the volume of the embryo

Grade 2: Blastocyst: blastocoel being greater than half
the volume of the embryo

Grade 3: Full blastocyst: blastocoel completely fills embryo

Grade 4: Expanded blastocyst: blastocoel volume is now larger than that of early embryo and zona is thinning

4A - ICM: Tightly packed many cells, TE: Many cells forming cohesive epithelium
4B - ICML: Loosly grouped several cells, TE: Few cells forming loose epithelium
4C - ICM: Very few cells, TE: Very few large cells

Made by Gardner & Schoolcraft (1999)

51
Q

Explain the pros of blastocyst culture

A

Transfer of embryo to uterus
Assess embryo viability prior to transfer
Increase time between cleavage stage biopsy and transfer

52
Q

Explain the cons of blastocyst culture

A

Requires ~8 or more oocytes
Prolonged culture in artificial environment
Higher risk of no transfer/cycle cancellation
Reduced number of embryos for cryopreservation

53
Q

In the UK, what % of woman have a blastocyst transfer compared to cleavage stage transfer

A

~75% of women have a blastocyst transfer and ~25% cleavage stage transfer

54
Q

What does live cell imaging for embryos do?

A

Give an image throughout development
computer software will give an automated tracking of the blastomeres
from this a schematic can be made

found that successful development to the blastocyst stage can be predicted as early as the 4 cell stage - this is based of first 3 mitotic divisions
Embryos that develop into the blastocyst stage undergo cytokinesis at the two cell stage within 15 mins
and complete the second mitotic devision to the three cell stage within 11 hours
and reach the fourth cell stage within an hour of the three cell stage

55
Q

What is Preimplantation Genetic testing (PGT)

A

Test performed to analyse the DNA of embryos for human leukocyte antigens (HLA) typing or for determining genetic abnormalities

patients undergo IVF to produce preimplantation embryos in vitro.

Embryos biopsied at either the 8-cell stage (1 cell removed), or blastocyst stage (5-10 trophectoderm cells removed) and tested

56
Q

Explain Preimplantation genetic testing for monogenic / single gene defects (PGT-M)

A

Detects monogenic disorders. Also used for HLA testing with or without concurrent testing for monogenic disorder.

Sometimes referred to in literature as PG-D (pre-implantation genertic diagnosis)

57
Q

Explain Preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy (PGT-A)

A

Detects abnormal number of chromosomes in embryo biopsies
Sometimes called PGS (Pre-inmplantation genertic screening)

58
Q

Explain an 8 cell embryo biopsy

A

Lasers generally used to make a hole in the zona pellucida

biopsy pippete can come in and aspirate off one cell, leaving a 7 cell embryo and one cell to be sent off for biopsy

generally done using a calcium and magnesium free medium and this dirsrupts the adhereance junction (which is calcium dependent) allowing the removal of a cell

only embryos found to be unaffected by the genetic disorder are transferred to the uterus

59
Q

Explain how a Trophectoderm biopsy of the blastocyst is carried out

A

Blastocyst held with a holding pipette very close to the inner cell mass (ICM)
laser is used to put a hole in the zona pellucida
Biopsy pipette comes in and aspirates out 5-10 cells of the TE, and then the laser cuts this off
left with the collapsed blastocyst on the holding pipette, this will re-expand
5-10 TE cells sent off for testing

60
Q

When should you biopsy for PGT be carried out?

A

Embryo biopsy on day 3 (cleavage stage) allows 2-3 days for PGT analysis before fresh embryo transfer at blastocyst stage.
No affect on development if embryo of good quality but mosaicism thought to be higher at early cleavage stage

Blastocyst biopsy removes 5-10 trophectoderm cells at blastocyst stage (day 5 or 6).
Not removing cells that will form embryo.
Not all zygotes will develop to blastocyst – fewer embryos to biopsy

61
Q

When is PGT-M used?

A

Early form of prenatal diagnosis for patients at risk of transmitting
a monogenic disorder to their offspring
First used in 1990 to determine embryo sex allowing the transfer of
unaffected females in families carrying X-linked disease

62
Q

What can PGT-M be used to diagnose?

A

More than 600 monogenic disorders in the UK including:

Recessive:
Cystic fibrosis
b-thalassaemia
Sickle cell anaemia

Dominant:
Huntington’s
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Myotonic dystrophy

Sex linked:
Fragile X syndrome
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Cystic fibrosis & fragile X syndromeFanconi’s anaemia & human leucocyte antigen typing

63
Q

What can PGT-M by PCR be hampered by?

A

Contamination - Paternal contamination overcome by using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) for all PCR-based PGT cases.

Allele dropout - Amplification failure sometimes affects only one of the two alleles in a cell. Thus a heterozygous cell may appear to be homozygous

64
Q

How can allele dropout in PGT-M by PCR be overcome

A

Multiplex-PCR:

Involves the simultaneous amplification of several DNA fragments in a single reaction. Usually a DNA fragment encompassing the site of the causative mutation is amplified along with one or more closely linked informative polymorphisms.

Diagnosis can be based on the presence of the mutation itself or a particular polymorphic allele that is inherited along with it.

(Allele dropout may still affect either of the amplified fragments but the probability of it affecting both in the same reaction is low.)

65
Q

What reduces the PCR reaction workup needed when using a single or small number of cells in PGT-M

A

employment of whole genome amplification of biopsied cells

66
Q

What techniques can be used to perform PGT-A?

A
  • Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
  • Array-Comparative Genomic Hybridization (array-CGH)
  • Next generation sequencing (NGS)
67
Q

Explain how PGT-A is done using FISH

A

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

Original method for analysis of up to 10 chromosomes in a blastomere.Individual blastomeres are spread on a glass slide and DNA probes labelled with fluorochromes specific for the chromosomes of interest are applied.

DNA denatured, hybridised, label and end up with a fluorescent spot

Imaging is normal if two spots of each coloyur (coloyur represents the number chromosome e.g. 13) if more or less than two, something is incorrect

68
Q

What are the limitations of PGT-A using FISH

A

Inability to screen simultaneously for all 24 chromosomes. Thus, some embryos diagnosed as normal are undoubtedly abnormal due to aneuploidies of chromosomes not analysed

Typically screen 7 chromosomes (13, 16, 18, 21, 22, X, Y) most frequently associated with miscarriage

Limited interrogation of chromosomes and thus prone to errors associated with chromosome extrapolation based on the presence or absence of a single locus

Technically challenging – optimise single cell lysis, chromosomal spreading and fixation difficult

69
Q

Explain PGT-A using array-CGH

A

Array-CGH uses microarray technology to screen all chromosomes and requires whole genome amplification

Tests for aneuploidy and unbalanced translocations.

Array-CGH involves competitive hybridization of differentially labelled test and reference DNA samples to DNA probes affixed to a microscope slide

Each probe specific to a different chromosomal region and occupies a discrete spot on the slide

Chromosomal loss or gain revealed by the ratio of fluorescence intensity for the 2 colours

70
Q

Explain the process of Array CGH

A

Step 1-3: Patient and control DNA are labelled with fluorescent dyes and applied to a microarray
Step 4: Patient and control DNA compete to attach, or hybridize, to the microarray
Step 5: The microarray scanner measures the flourecent signal
Step 6: Computer software analyses the data and generates a plot
dosage loss indicates loss of that chromosome

71
Q

When selecting blastocysts, is it better to go on morphology and state, or morphology alone?

A

Morphology and state
experiment by Yang et al. (2012) selected both and then just morphology alone, when selecting using both, ongoing pregnancy rate was 69%, whereas it was only 42% in morphology alone

72
Q

What are the benefits of PGT-A using array-CGH

A

Comprehensive chromosomal analysis achieved in ~24 hours by the evaluation of multiple loci along the length of each chromosome.

Compared to FISH does not require cell fixation onto slides.

Amplification step produces enough DNA to detect aneuploidy via array-CGH and gene defects using PCR.

73
Q

What are the limitations of PGT-A using array-CGH

A

Cannot detect balanced translocations, or inversions or single base pair mutations

74
Q

What are some things to consider with PGT-A

A
  • Involves embryo biopsy posing a risk of harm to the embryo
  • Only analyses 5-10 cells, which may or may not be representative of the rest of the embryo
  • Results may be inconclusive or may obtain false positives or false negatives
  • May lead to fewer embryos to use in treatment

The use of PGT-A is a much debated in reproductive medicine with advocates and opponents

Some evidence PGT-A may be beneficial for certain categories of women
Counselling required to ensure patients understand the risks, benefits and limitations

75
Q

Who might consider PGT?

A

1) Couples whose children are at increased risk for a specific genetic disorder
eg carriers of monogenic disease or of chromosomal aberrations such as Translocations

Those who have opted to terminate previous pregnancy following prenatal tests
Those who suffer recurrent miscarriages
Those with religious or moral objections to pregnancy termination
Those who have had previous failed attempts at IVF without explanation

2) Couples being treated with IVF who may have a low genetic risk but whose embryos are screened for chromosomal aneuploidies to enhance their chance of an ongoing pregnancy

76
Q

What are the ethical considerations of PGT

A

Is PGT morally acceptable?
- depends on how moral status of embryo is viewed
- is selective transfer favourable to pregnancy termination?

Is strain on women acceptable?
- IVF involves risk to women with only a limited chance of success
- need for counselling and informed choice

Slippery slope argument
- potential for would-be parents to design the “perfect child”

Social sex selection
- In UK sex selection only allowed for medical reasons eg to avoid giving birth to a child with a sex-linked disorder.

Saviour sibling
- Selection of an embryo for implantation to provide a treatment for a sibling with life-limiting blood disorders.

77
Q

All fertility treatment in the UK is regulated by who?

A

HFEA - Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority.