lectures 10-21 Flashcards

1
Q

genome sizes are stated as….

A

bp per haploid genome

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2
Q

benefits from HGP?

A

personalised medicine

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3
Q

the central dogma

A

dna makes rna makes protein
dna and rna replication transfers info

DNA replication, transcription, translation, RNA replication, reverse transcription

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4
Q

reverse transcription

A

info at RNA level is copied to DNA

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5
Q

RNA viruses

retroviruses

A

mostly in RNA level

insert RNA into our DNA

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6
Q

why did Mendel work with peas?

A
large numbers of offspring
short generation time
self-fertilisation and cross-fertilisation possible
cheap
convenient
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7
Q

the first law of inheritance: the law of segregatin

A

2 coexisting alleles of an individual for each trait, segregate during gamete formation so that each gamete gets only 1 of the 2 alleles

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8
Q

what acts like Mendelian factors?

A

sex chromosomes

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9
Q

what did T. H. Morgan propose?

A

X chromosomes carried genes other than sex determinants (eye-colour in fruit flies)
sex-linked

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10
Q

what did Walter Sutton propose?

A

chromosome theory of inheritance: sex was determined by chromosome based inheritance

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11
Q

alkaptonuria disease

A

secrete homogenistic acid into urine which goes black following exposure to air

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12
Q

what did Garrod propose?

A

a gene for a metabolic step was defective in albinism and alkaptonuria

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13
Q

Life cycle of Neurospora crassa (haploid organism)

A
haploid ascospores (4A, 4a), ascus
germination
growth of conidiospores (reproduces by vegetative haploid spores)
germinating conidium
vegetative mycelium of A and a
cells of opposite mating type (A and a) fuse to form binucleate heterokaryon (2 diff nuclei)
nuclear fusion
meiosis, mitosis to form diploid nucleus
fruiting body
separate to haploid ascospores
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14
Q

Beadle and Tatum’s question

what did they do?

A

is there a separate gene for each step?
made arginine auxotrophs of Neurospora crassa
mutated arginine biosynthesis

X-RAY MUTATION in A and a, mate them to form fruiting body, contained mutants in arginine biosynthesis
MATE wild and mutated type of both A and a types
DISSECT individual microscopic ascospores to individual test tubes, grow colonies
IDENTIFY MUTANTS by transferring to minimal medium so failure to grow identified nutritional requirements
IDENTIFY NUTRITIONAL REQUIREMENT by diff minimal mediums so mutation in AA biosynthesis
IDENTIFY ARGININE AUXOTROPHS by testing all AAs

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15
Q

auxotroph

A

mutant that requires a particular additional nutrient

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16
Q

prototroph

A

normal strain which does not require that nutritional supplement

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17
Q

evidence for multiple steps of pathway

A

if auxotrophs came from different asci, probably have different mutations
if defective in different parts of arginine pathway
mated, then mutants might complement each other so heterokaryon would grow in absence of arginine
provides evidence of multiple steps

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18
Q

how does complementation work

A

heterokaryon contains both nuclei so between them they can perform all steps in complementation
defects complement each other

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19
Q

Beadle and Tatum’s results

A

each step of metabolism requires individual gene

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20
Q

What did Friedrich Miescher find?

A

discovered nucleic acids
sticky substance in pus
like protein but rich in phosphorus with no detectable sulphur

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21
Q

Griffith’s experiment on the transforming principle/factor

Avery-MacLeod-McCarthy follow up experiment

A

R rough colonies are non-pathogenic
S smooth colonies are pathogenic
dead S cells don’t cause pneumonia, no cells left
mixture of dead S and living R caused pneumonia so S cells transformed the R cells into pathogens

living S killed by heat, with enzyme treatment, with living R, only DNase destroyed the transforming principle

also purified DNA from S cells added to R cells transformed R cells to S cells, therefore hereditary material

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22
Q

T2 ‘phage research

A

phage infects E.coli with attachment mediated by base plate and fibres
remain attached but heads appear empty

labelled their DNA radioactively
infect, centrifuge
some bacteria were now radio-labelled
grow bacteria in fresh medium
phages were radiolabelled - confirms DNA is genetic material

labelled phage protein, not transferred to E.coli so not genetic material

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23
Q

what sugar is used in DNA?

A

pentose deoxyribose (5 carbon)

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24
Q

purine bases

pyrimidine bases

A

adenine, guanine (2 rings)

cytosine, thymine (1 ring)

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25
Q

which bond joins a nitrogenous base to deoxyribose sugar?

A

glycosidic bond

between sugar C-1’ and N-9 (purine) or N-1 (pyrimidine)

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26
Q

what other bond is in DNA?

A

ester bonds are formed between sugar C-5’ and phosphate

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27
Q

phosphate in DNA makes it …

A

negative

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28
Q

DNA has a 5’ and 3’ end so it is…

A

polar

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29
Q

phosphodiester bond in DNA

A

links 3’ C of 1 nucleotide to 5’ C of next so has polarity

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30
Q

5’ end

3’ end

A

phosphate group

hydroxyl group

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31
Q

what was Levene’s model?

A

4 nucleotides in tetranucleotide blocks with bases pointing out
so DNA simple and not repetitive so not genetic material
also meant that each base present in equal amounts (not true)

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32
Q

x-ray crystallography

A

cross is typical of helical structure
stretched out DNA and left hydrated, produced cross pattern because alligned helices effectively form a diffraction grid which produces a cross pattern
closer spots on diffraction pattern means larger actual distance
calculated distances in DNA

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33
Q

why was Linus Pauling’s DNA model wrong?

A

triple helix means that sugar-phosphate backbone faced inwards but negative charges would repel each other

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34
Q

B-DNA

Z-DNA

A

right-handed clockwise (if slid down it)

left-handed anti-clockwise

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35
Q

6 key features of Watson-Crick model of DNA

A

right-handed
anti-parallel strands (for bases to match)
bases inwards, sugar-phosphate outwards
complementary base pairing
base pair distance (0.34nm apart)
major and minor grooves (backbones not equally spaced, important with how proteins interact w/ DNA)

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36
Q

how many hydrogen bond when A pairs with T?

C-G?

A

2

3

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37
Q

how is eukaryotic DNA organised?

A
DNA duplex (coiled in double helix)
wrapped around histone proteins (nucleosome)
chromatin fibre
coiled chromatin fibre
coiled coil
metaphase chromatid (folded)
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38
Q

conservative model for DNA replication

A

parent strand transfers info to intermediate and this gets copied
parent helix is conserved and daughter is completely new

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39
Q

dispersive model for DNA replication

A

parent helix broken into fragments, dispersed, copied, assembled into 2 new helices
new and old DNA completely dispersed

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40
Q

caesium chloride equilibrium density gradient centrifugation

A

separates molecules on basis of densities
get gradient of CsCl
macromolecules will be where match CsCl density

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41
Q

Meselson and Stahl testing of models of DNA replication

A

used centrifugation to separate on densities: E.coli grown in light (N-14) and heavy (N-15) so when incorporated will label DNA
mixed together, separate, created dark bands with UV light

E.coli grown in heavy, then added light, so t=0 all would be heavy, as grow and divide would incorporate light

semi-conservative:heavy, intermediate, light and more intermediate, slowly goes to light and loses intermediate because more of new strands, loss of heavy and light (old and new)

this is what experiment showed
predicted bands for other models didn’t occur

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42
Q

what function does DNA polymerase I (Pol I) have other than 5’ to 3’ polymerising

A

5’ to 3’ exonuclease (break down)
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
so editing mistakes and proof-reading function

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43
Q

nucleotide incorporation into DNA

A

release of pyrophosphate (2 phosphates) from nucleotide and hydrolysis to phosphate
so 1 phosphate remains on nucleotide which binds to other nucleotide

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44
Q

DNA polymerase action during incorporation of nucleotides

A

conformational change in DNA polymerase, closes round DNA when correct nucleotide binds

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45
Q

testing DNA strand polarity

A

radio labelled phosphate on nucleotides about to be incorporated

phosphate is 5’ of new nucleotide that’s inserted, when DNAse breaks ester bonds so strand into pieces, labelled phosphate is now attached 3’ of nearest neighbour
so see how often bases near each other (phosphate go from 1 known radiolabelled base to next base)

proportions of bases can only match if strands are anti-parallel (GpA same amount as TpC so has be be opposite directions if correct bases are to match)

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46
Q

editing by DNA polymerase

A

incorrect nucleotide sticks out with unpaired 3’OH so DNA polymerase 3’ to 5’ exonuclease removes mismatch

enzyme has 2 active sites, 1 for polymerisation, 1 for editing

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47
Q

why is DNA replication asymmetrical?

A

because on lagging strand DNA replicated away from the fork because always 5’ to 3’ which means that as fork opens, needs to prime again so not continuous

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48
Q

what are the fragments on the lagging strand called?

A

Okazaki

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49
Q

why is there no 3’ to 5’ synthesis of DNA?

A

in 5’ to 3’, the E used to incorporate the next nucleotide is from when the high energy bond is broken when pyrophosphate is removed

if 3’ to 5’, when editing is required and the wrong nucleotide is removed, it will leave 5’ end with only 1 phosphate (because pyrophosphate was removed when nucleotide was added)
so there is no high E bond available for next time a nucleotide needs to be added

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50
Q

what evidence shows that the primer for Okazaki fragments is RNA not DNA?

A

DNAse cannot completely destroy Okazaki fragments, it left little pieces of RNA, therefore they are the primers

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51
Q

DNA primase

A

type of RNA polymerase that is rifampicin-sensitive
catalyses the synthesis of a short RNA segment called a primer to inititate DNA synthesis on the lagging strand

makes a primer but doesn’t need a primer itself

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52
Q

lagging strand synthesis

A

DNA primase makes RNA primers
DNA Pol III extends primer to make Okazaki fragments
old primers erased by 5’ - 3’ exonuclease Pol I activity
replaced with new DNA
gap sealed by DNA ligase

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53
Q

Okazaki fragment joining

A

DNA ligase releases pyrophosphate from ATP and attaches resulting AMP to 5’ phosphate of downstream fragment
AMP released and phosphodiester bond forms between upstream 3’ OH and downstream 5’ phosphate

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54
Q

Processivity

A

enzyme’s ability to catalyse consecutive reactions without releasing its substrate

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55
Q

Leading strand synthesis

A

DNA helicase unwinds helix, with ATP
DNA primase makes RNA primer
primed duplex captured by Pol III
clamp holder transfers 2 halves of β clamp to Pol III
(new clamp halves maintain clamp holder in state of readiness)
clamping converts Pol III to high processivity so can replicate long stretches of DNA
helicase continues to unwind and Pol replicates leading strand

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56
Q

lagging strand synthesis in terms of DNA Pol

A

DNA primers makes primers
primed duplex captured by Pol III, clamped
lagging strand into loop so that 5’ end the right way away from the fork (same way as leading strand)
until old Okazaki fragments pulled back to Pol III so triggers unclamping so goes back to low processivity (has to had low to release fragments easily)

DNA Pol I and DNA ligase repair gaps
process restarts by clamping new lagging strand prier

DNA Pol I doesn’t require high processivity because works short period

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57
Q

DNA polymerase structure

A

clamp loader with spare clamp halves
arms with Pol III core, β clamp on it
DNA primase and helicase on end of clamp loader

separately has DNA Pol I and DNA ligase, and single-stranded DNA binding protein

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58
Q

single-stranded binding protein (SSB)

A

prevents inappropriate bsae pairing in ssDNA during replication
binds to ssDNA so keeps straight and stops forming strange structures

similar to when stem-loop structures can form if DNA is denatured and fails to re-anneal properly

constantly knocked off by DNA Pol III and replaced as helix unwinds

59
Q

positive supercoiling

A

from overwinding DNA so can occur upstream of replication fork
makes strands difficult to separate

60
Q

negative supercoiling

A

from unwinding/underwinding

easier to replicate so topoisomerases used to regulate degree and type of supercoiling - convert positive to negative

61
Q

type II topoisomerases

A

convert overwound positively supercoiled DNA into underwound negatively supercoiled DNA

binds positive supercoil, makes nick in both strands, passes loop through break and religates it to negative supercoil

62
Q

type I topoisomerase

A

relax negatively supercoiled DNA

bind to supercoil, nick in 1 strand, unwinds DNA and re-ligates it, releases tension

63
Q

Bacterial DNA polymerisation

A

bi-directional

2 Pol III complexes enter DNA, replication in both directions at same time, 2 forks meet
2 chromosomes linked (catenated)
Topo IV separates catenated chromosomes by double stranded break and religation

64
Q

telomeres

A

ends of chromosomes

65
Q

problem with telomeres in eukaryotes

A

lagging strand template primed at telomere, DNA polymerase falls off
primers erased
gaps filled and repaired
gap at end cannot be filled by DNA polymerase because no primer
so cells get shorter after every cell division

66
Q

telomerase

A

reverse transcriptase
provides primer that extends telomeres
contains bound RNA template

provides RNA template and uses that to synthesis DNA copy of template at 3’ end of parental lagging strand template

67
Q

dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP)

A

no 3’ hydroxyl so both H not OH (2 deoxy)
so replication cannot contine when added
chain terminators

68
Q

Sanger’s dideoxy sequencing method

A

add ssDNA, primer, DNA polymerase, deoxynucleoties, small proportion of radioactively-labelled ddATP/ddGTP etc.
produce diff sized strands that terminate in same base
separate with electrophoresis
read from bottom up

69
Q

automated dideoxy sequencing

A

fluorescent ddNTPs in 1 tube

electrophoretic system, read with laser

70
Q

What is PCR?

what material are needed?

A

amplify DNA sequence

template dsDNA 
2 SPECIFIC oligodeoxynucleotide primers
dNTPs
buffer and MgCl2
Taq polymerase
71
Q

how does PCR work?

A

heat to denature target DNA to ssDNA
hybridisation of primer to each strand (cool to allow to anneal)
extension of primers by Taq polymerase (72C)
products act as substrates for next cycle

72
Q

PCR has both ______ and _______

and what do these mean?

A

specificity - provided by primers (complementary to opposite strands, with 3’ pointing towards each other)

sensitivity - 1 target molecule amplified a lot in short time because product of 1 cycle becomes template for next

73
Q

mutations by PCR

A

introduced into amplified DNA by engineering mismatches in primer close to or at 5’ end
so next generations have mutation because use mutated as template

74
Q

PCR in forensics

A

RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism)

requires large amounts of DNA so PCR allows small samples to be processed

75
Q

VNTRs

A

variable number tandem repeats
act like allele
inherit different variant of each VNTR locus from mother and father
so can be used for identification

76
Q

What is a possible reason for why uracil is not found in DNA?

A

cytosine can spontaneously deaminate to uracil
so a C-G pairing could be replaced with a U-A leading to a mutation
so U is removed by uracil-DNA glycosylase and repaired by DNA polymerase

77
Q

3 classes of RNA

A

mRNA encodes proteins
rRNA makes up ribosomes and role in protein synthesis
tRNA are adaptors between mRNA and amino acids, role in protein synthesis

78
Q

features of prokaryotic transcription

A

operon: groups of related genes transcribed from same promoter, controlled by operator

polycistronic RNA: multiple genes transcribed as 1 transcript

no nucleus so transcription same place as translation

79
Q

prokaryotic transcription unit

A

5’ promoter binds RNA polymerase
transcribed sequence or RNA coding sequence
3’ terminator signals transcription stop

80
Q

bacterial RNA polymerase

A

α β β’ ω subunits in 2:1:1:1 ratio
σ subunit converts enzyme to holoenzyme (active enzyme with coenzyme) - needs this to start and make RNA, directs polymerase to promoter

81
Q

how to find out the promoter sequence

A

bind RNA polymerase holoenzyme to DNA in vitro
add nuclease so DNA degraded except for stretch bound to polymerase which is protected so this is the promoter
find sequence by electrophoresis

82
Q

the ______ of the promoter sequence provides _________

A

asymmetry

directionality

83
Q

3 stages of prokaryotic transcription

A

initiation: RNA Pol holoenzyme binds promoter, opens DNA helix and starts to transcribe
elongation: the σ disengages from holoenzyme and core enzyme continues to make RNA
termination: RNA polymerase core enzyme dissociates from DNA and transcription stops

84
Q

initiation

A

core RNA polymerase binds DNA
σ subunit binds to core polymerase and directs to promoter
opens helix close to promoter (no ATP used unlike DNA helicase)
transcription start site exposed, RNA copy, doesn’t require primer

85
Q

elongation proofreading

A

if misincorporates ribonucleotide, hesitates, then back-tracks, removes, continues

86
Q

termination

A

Rho-independent: terminator sequence in RNA is recognised (palindromic GC rich followed by T rich)
stem loop structure with U tail after it, RNA Pol pauses and stem loop forms, RNA dissociates because only weak 4 A:U holding

Rho-dependent: requires rho protein to break RNa:DNA duplex in transcription bubble
protein (hexameric helicase) binds to C-rich G-poor sequences, uses helicase activity to chase RNA Pol, disrupts hybrid helix releasing RNA

87
Q

what does RNA Pol do that allows the duplex to be opened more easily?

A

bends DNA so opens helix

88
Q

Rifampicin

A

inhibits prokaryotic transcription because inhibits RNA polymerase because binds to exit channel so affects initiation
doesn’t affect if already in elongation because channel blocked so rifampicin doesn’t work

89
Q

RNA Pol II

A

c-terminal extension on L’ subunit

90
Q

RNA Pol II promoters

A

TATA box upstream or DPE downstream
Inr : initiator element (2 pyrimidine, C,A, 6 pyrimidine), where transcription starts
enhancer
may be CAAT box or GC box (on either strand)

TATA, CAAT, GC recognised by other proteins not Pol

91
Q

TFIID

A

transcription factor
large
comprises 1 TAF (TBP associated factors) and TBP (TATA-box binding protein)

92
Q

TFIIH

A

bi-functional
helicase that open helix so exposes initiator element
kinase that phosphorylates (phosphate added) C’-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Pol II L’ subunit so triggers elongation

93
Q

α-amanitin

A

binds to active site of RNA Pol II so reduce RNA production

constrains flexibility of RNA Pol II

94
Q

enhancers

A

increase transcription levels of genes

95
Q

DNA looping model

A

DNA bending proteins create loop of DNA so distant enhancer interacts with components of transcription initiation complex and basal transcription complex (enhancer binds to activator binds to mediator interacts with CTD of L’ of RNA Pol II)
DNA relaxes so easy to transcribe

96
Q

histone acetylation

A

acetylation or methylation affects packing of chromatin and makes loose structure that boosts transcription

97
Q

Processing of eukaryotic mRNA

A

5’ cap
3’ poly-A tail
introns removed by splicing

98
Q

addition of a 5’ cap

A

5’ triphosphate modified (3 phosphates at 5’ can be degraded by nucleases)
1 phosphate removed and disphosphate left (2 phosphates) attacks phosphate of GTP to form 5’-5’ triphosphate linkage

mimics 3’ OH end

99
Q

addition of a poly-A tail

A

3’ end (AAUAAA) cleaved by specific endonuclease

adenylate residues from ATP added by polyA polymerase

100
Q

how do capping and tailing enzymes find the transcript?

A

phosphorylation of CTD of RNA Pol II recruits proteins for processing (capping/tail)

101
Q

RNA editing by deamination

A

CAA deaminated to UAA (stop signal) so smaller protein and allows more than 1 protein from 1 gene

102
Q

prokaryotic mRNA are often _______ which means….

while eukaryotic..

A

polycistronic

they contain amino acid coding info for more than 1 gene

mRNAs are monocistronic so they encode just 1 protein

103
Q

in higher eukaryotes, more DNA is devoted to…… than to……

A

introns

exons

104
Q

_______________________ don’t have introns

A

histone proteins

105
Q

R-loop analysis

A

RNA-DNA hybridisation can be monitored by electron microscopy allowing qualitative and quantitative analysis of gene organisation, position, extension of homology regions and characterisation of transcription
can map specific DNA region

106
Q

Prokaryotic R-loop

A

mRNA and corresponding DNA mixed
heated to separate DNA strands, cooled to allow hybridisation (mRNA binds to DNA in loop)
single displaced loop of ssDNA inidicates that gene is continuous and joined

107
Q

Eukaryotic R-loop

A

2 loops of ssDNA and loop of dsDNA seen if gene contains intron
more introns = more loops

108
Q

4 classes of intron

A

group I : self-splicing found in organelles and nuclear rRNA genes of some unicellular eukaryotes

group II : self-splicing in organelles in fungi, protists and plants

spliceosome-dependent introns : require spliceosome which removes introns, in nuclear mRNA

nuclear tRNA

109
Q

ciliates

A

unicellular eukaryotes

110
Q

conserved features of introns

A
5' splice site (with AG upstream)
3' splice site (with GU downstream)
branch site - has specific adenine residue (in class II and spliceosomal introns)
111
Q

self-splicing of group I introns

A

2 sequential transesterification reactions
exchnage organic R of ester with organic R of alcohol to produce different alcohol and ester

3’ OH of co-factor breaks phosphodiester bond at 5’ splice site
5’ exon end is now a G 3’ OH which breaks phosphodiester bond at 3’ splice site so exons join and introns removed

112
Q

intron folding for splicing

A

tertiary structure so 5’ and 3’ splice sites close to allow transesterification
inside tertiary structure is G binding pocket which binds G nucleotide/nucleoside (co-factor) and presents 3’ OH at the right place

113
Q

splicing of group II introns

A

no co-factor but internal nucleophile (2’ OH of branch site adenine) attacks phosphate at 5’ splice site to form lariat structure and freeing upstream exon
free exon attacks 3’ splice site so fuse and remove introns

114
Q

ORF

A

open reading frame: bit that is translated, protein coded gene

115
Q

ORFs in introns

A

some group II introns encode a splicing protein (maturase) in intronic ORF because require it for splicing
maturase stabilises structure of intron

116
Q

intron-early hypothesis

A

since all 3 domains of life have introns, must be ancient

and play valuable role

117
Q

intron-late hypothesis

A

some group I introns encode a homing endonuclease HEG which catalyses intron mobility
so may move intron from 1 organism to another
introns may be parasitic nucleic acids that encode protein that allows spread

118
Q

spliceosome dependent intron splicing

A

U1 and U2 snRNP dimer binds to 5’ and branch site respectively so bring together
nucleation point for U4 U5 U6 trimer
U4 binding to U6 inactivates U6
dissociation of U4 activates U6 which displaces U1
active spliceosome (U2, U5, U6)
then same splicing as group II intron splicing

119
Q

snRNP

A

small nuclear ribonucleic particle

comprises a snRNA and at least 7 protein subunits

120
Q

what is the value of a complicated spliceosome?

A

bring 5’ splice site and branch site closer so more efficient transesterification

spliceosome recruited by phosphorylated C-terminal domain of L’ subunit of RNA Pol II so splicing coordinated with transcription

121
Q

nuclear tRNA introns splicing

A

requires ATP and splicing endonuclease and ligase

122
Q

alternative splicing

A

generates protein diversity

different introns removed so make more proteins than have genes

123
Q

exon shuffling

A

recombination with breaks and rejoining of DNA
sometimes alignment of chromosomes goes wrong so non related genes line up and exons from unrelated genes end up in 1 protein

124
Q

diamond hypothesis

A

amino acid fit into diamond pockets formed within grooves of DNA where 4 sides of each pocket defined by 4 bases
20 pockets and 20 amino acids so overlapping degenerate triplet code

125
Q

why is the code non-overlapping?

A

if was overlapping, would limit what amino acids can follow certain ones, so would be some impossible combinations
but found that any amino acid can follow any so code is non-overlapping

126
Q

RF

A

recombination frequency: frequency with which crossover and rare recombination will take place
depends on how far apart genes are
further apart means more likely to recombine

127
Q

cistron

A

gene that encodes a polypeptide

128
Q

non-essential part of gene

A

tolerate mutations

129
Q

evidence for triplet code

A

+3 or -3 restored reading frame and wild type of bacteriophage

130
Q

evidence for degenerate code

A

more proline than expected so must be more than 1 triplet code for 1 amino acid

131
Q

tRNA

A

half of molecule is base paired
3 conserved loop - D loop, T loop, anticodon loop
clover leaf pattern
variably sized extra loop between anticodon and T loop
specific amino acid attached at 3’ CCA motif

folds into L structure that exposes anticodon

132
Q

the wobble hypothesis

A

3rd base less role in determining amino acid than 1st 2 bases

1st 2 bases form strong Watson-Crick base pairs with last 2 bases f anticodon
1st base of anticodon which pairs with 3rd base of codon ca wobble and determines number of codons that can be recognised by tRNA
U pairs with A or G so 2 codons
G pairs with C or U so 2 codons
I (inosine modified nucleotide) pairs with A U or C so 3 codons

133
Q

uncharged tRNA

charged tRNA

A

doesn’t have amino acid attached, written as tRNA^aa

has AA attached written as aa-tRNA^aa

134
Q

charging tRNA

A

aminoacyl tRNA synthetases attach AA to 3’ of corresponding tRNA
tRNA synthetase for each AA so very specific
synthetase can also edit and replace incorrect AA

requires energy
amino acid activated by energy derived from ATP hydrolysis, high energy bond created
so codon in mRNA selects tRNA charged with activated high energy amino acid corresponding to that codon

135
Q

structure of prokaryotic ribosome

A
large subunit (50S) : catalyses formation of peptide bonds to link amino acids
small subunit (30S) : provides framework where tRNAs can be matched to codons

assembled 70S ribosome has 3 sites:
E: tRNA exit site
P: peptidyl site
A: aminoacyl-tRNA site

136
Q

how does a ribosome find a prokaryotic mRNA?

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequence (SD) dominated by purines

137
Q

initiation of prokaryotic translation

A

IF-3 prevents assembly of ribosome until both mRNA and initiating tRNA are available
S subunit binds SD sequence
IF-1 prevents entry into A site
IF-2 guides initiating aminoacyl tRNA to the P site
L subunit recruited to 30S initiation complex
IF-1 and IF-2 released

138
Q

prokaryotic translational elongation

A

EF (elongation factor) guides next tRNA to A site
peptide bond forms
EF-G (translocase) enters A site so ribosome moves 1 codon towards 3’ end so tRNA in E (exit) site and other tRNA enters P site
incoming tRNA displaces EF-G and other tRNA in E site leaves

139
Q

prokaryotic translational termination

A

RF (release factor) binds STOP codon
peptidyl-tRNA bond is cleaved, releasing the protein
mRNA-ribosome complex disassembles

140
Q

head polymerisation

A

high energy bond of incoming monomer is used for next polymerisation

141
Q

structure of eukaryotic ribosome

A

60S subunit
40S subunit

80S ribosome with 2 sites
P: peptidyl site
A: aminoacyl-tRNA site

142
Q

eukaryotic initiation of translation

A

cap binding protein bound to 5’ cap
poly A binding protein bind poly A tail
bridge between cap and poly A binding proteins so form circularised mRNA

5’ untranslated region form stem-loop structures which is scanned by mRNA (instead of SD)

multiple initiation factors assemble with the 40S subunit
allow binding of tRNA and 5’ cap of mRNA binds to S subunit
initiation complex scans mRNA using helicase activity of eIF4A to unwind stem loop structure
takes first AUG after Kozak as the start

60S subunit recruited, tRNA at P site

143
Q

eukaryotic translational elongation

A

tRNA enters A site and peptide bond forms
translocase enters A site and ribosome translocates by 1 codon in 5’ to 3’ directions
etc.

144
Q

eukaryotic translational termination

A

single release factor that recognises STOP codon

peptidyl-tRNA bond is cleaved, releasing the protein and ribosome disassociates