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AUDE 5310 - Embryology > Lectures 1 and 2 > Flashcards

Lectures 1 and 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is gestation?

A

It is the period between conception (fertilization) and birth
Typically 9 months for humans

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2
Q

What is a fetus?

A

Latin word for offspring

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3
Q

What is pre-natal?

A

Before birth

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4
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

General term for embryonic connective tissue
Will develop into a lot of parts of the body

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5
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Formation of a mature oocyte/egg from a small germ cell precursor initiated during the embryonic period

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6
Q

What is a polar body?

A

One of two small cells produced in the ovum during meiosis and then degenerates
It cannot be fertilized
It is necessary for fertilization and then goes away

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7
Q

What is a ploidy?

A

Number

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8
Q

What is a diploid?

A

Double number
Double the number of chromosomes found in a mature germ cell (sperm or egg)
Human cells are diploid
46 chromosomes

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9
Q

What is a haploid?

A

Germ cells (sperm or egg)
Only 23 chromosomes

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10
Q

What are germ cells?

A

Egg and sperm

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11
Q

When does development of humans begin?

A

Fertilization

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12
Q

What does fertilization result in?

A

A zygote

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13
Q

What is a zygote?

A

A single celled organism that will continue to divide and develop

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14
Q

What does a zygote turn into 3-4 days after fertilization?

A

Morula

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15
Q

Where is the morula typically located in the body?

A

Entering the uterine cavity

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16
Q

What does a morula turn into?

A

Blastocyst

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17
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A

It is when cells arrange themselves into an inner and outer cell mass

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18
Q

Where are blastocysts located?

A

Implants into the uterus

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19
Q

Can there be pregnancy without implantation?

A

No

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20
Q

What are the carnegie stages of development?

A

A system used to describe the apparent maturity of embryos
Based on physical features
Not dependent on chronological age or size of embryo

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21
Q

What is postovulatory age?

A

Used by clinicians to describe the maturity of an embryo
Refers to the length of time since the last ovulation before pregnancy

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22
Q

What can postovulatory age predict?

A

Due date of baby

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23
Q

Why is it important to know the postovulatory age?

A

Important to know to meet all pregnancy milestones

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24
Q

What are the three stages of development?

A

Pre-embryonic period
Embryonic period
Fetal period

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25
Q

What is the pre-embryonic period?

A

After fertilization to about the end of the 2nd week of gestation
Germ cells (three germ layers) develop

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26
Q

What is the embryonic period?

A

About the 3rd to the 8th week of gestation
Major period of organ development

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27
Q

What is the fetal period?

A

About the 3rd month (9 weeks) post-fertilization to birth
Rapid growth and maturation

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28
Q

What develops during the pre-embryonic period?

A

The three germ cells

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29
Q

What are the germ cells?

A

They are comprised of three layers
Give rise to all fetal tissues and organs

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30
Q

Besides the germ cells, what else develops during the pre-embryonic stage?

A

Nervous and cardiovascular system
Start 3rd week of development

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31
Q

Why do the nervous system and cardiovascular system develops so early?

A

They are very important for sustaining life

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32
Q

What two layers does the inner cell mass divide into during the beginning of the second week?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast

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33
Q

When does gastrulation start?

A

The third week of development

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34
Q

What happens during gastrulation?

A

The rapid process by which the blastocyst becomes a gastrula
The three germ layers are acquired

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35
Q

What is the source of all three germ layers?

A

The epiblast

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36
Q

T/F: the hypoblast sort of becomes part of the endoderm

A

True

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37
Q

What marks the start of gastrulation around day 15 of development?

A

The primitive streak

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38
Q

What is the primitive streak?

A

An elongated groove originating from the anterior epiblast

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39
Q

What is the primitive node?

A

A node situated at the cranial tip of the primitive streak
Acts as an embryonic organizer

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40
Q

What is the primitive node consisted of?

A

Mesoderm cells that give rise to the notochord (primitive backbone)

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41
Q

What is the function of the primitive node?

A

It organizes cells during development
It tells cells where they need to be

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42
Q

What is the depression of the primitive node called?

A

Primitive pit

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43
Q

Gastrulation

A
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44
Q
A
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45
Q
A
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46
Q
A
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47
Q

What does ectoderm give rise to?

A

CNS
PNS
Schwann cells and meninges
Sensory epithelium of the ear, nose, and eye
Lens of the eye
Subcutaneous glands and pituitary gland
Bones and connective tissue of craniofacial structures
Epidermis (outermost skin layer)
Hair and nails
Enamel of teeth

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48
Q

What does mesoderm give rise to?

A

Supporting tissue (cartilage and bone)
Dermis
Straited and smooth muscle
Blood and lymph cells
Walls of the heart, blood, and lymph vessels
Kidneys, gonads, and corresponding ducts
Spleen

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49
Q

What does the endoderm give rise to?

A

The gastrointestinal system (main one)
The epithelial lining of respiratory tract
Epithelial lining of the lymphatic cavity and eustachian tube
The parenchymal cells of the thyroid and parathyroids, liver, and pancreas

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50
Q

What develops during the embryonic period?

A

All major organ systems begin and/or undergo major development

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51
Q

Why is the embryonic period of development critical?

A

Exposure to teratogens (drugs, infections, or toxins) can result in either death of the embryo or major congenital anomalies affecting multi-organ systems

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52
Q

Which organs are affected the most by teratogens?

A

It depends on when the exposure occurred and which system was at the most crucial stage of development at the time

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53
Q

Is radiation typically a big problem at the embryonic stage of development?

A

Yes

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54
Q

Do some teratogens only effect certain organs and structures?

A

Yes
Such as thalidomide only effecting limbs

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55
Q

What is organogenesis?

A

When the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm develop into the internal organs
Cells of each layer proliferate, migrate, reaggregate, and differentiate into various tissues that form organs

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56
Q

When does organogenesis happen?

A

During the embryonic period

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57
Q

When does development of the brain and spinal cord begin?

A

Week 3

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58
Q

What does the CNS develop from?

A

The neural tube

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59
Q

What does the PNS develop from?

A

Neural crest cells

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60
Q

Where are neural crest cells located?

A

Along the sides of the spinal cord

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61
Q

What are the divisions of the primitive brain?

A

Prosencephalon (forebrain), Mesencephalon (midbrain), and Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

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62
Q

How is the neural tube formed?

A

By the closure of ectodermal tissue

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63
Q

Where are neural crest cells located?

A

Dorsolateral to the developing spinal cord

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64
Q

Do neural crest cells separate into clusters?

A

Yes, these clusters develop into a variety of tissues

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65
Q

Incomplete development of the neural tube results in what?

A

Spina bifida

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66
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Some vertebrae overlaying the spinal cord are not fully formed and remain unfused and open
If the opening is large enough, a portion of the spinal cord will protrude through the opening in the bones
There may or may not be a fluid filled sac surrounding the spinal cord

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67
Q

Is spina bifida common?

A

It is one of the most common birth defects (1 in every 1000 births)

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68
Q

Can spina bifida be surgically closed/corrected?

A

Yes, but it does not restore normal function to the affected part of the spinal cord
Could result in paralysis

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69
Q

What is believed to be the cause of spina bifida?

A

Combination of environmental and genetic factors
After having one child with the condition, risk for a second increases by 4%
Incidence can decrease up to 70% when the mother starts taking folic acid supplements early in pregnancy

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70
Q

What is the most common location for spina bifida?

A

Lower back

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71
Q

Can you carry a gene, but never get the disease due to environmental factors?

A

Yes

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72
Q

What results when other parts of the brain remain unfused?

A

Encephalocele

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73
Q

What is the most common location for encephalocele?

A

Lower back and sacral areas

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74
Q

What is the most common encephalocele?

A

Myelomeningocele, leads to disability in most effected individuals

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75
Q

Are the terms spina bifida and myelomeningocele used interchangeably?

A

Yes, but they are actually different

76
Q

What is a chiari malformation?

A

Skull is smaller than normal or misshapen
Forces the cerebellum to be pushed down into the foramen magnum and upper spinal cord

77
Q

What could a chiari malformation lead to?

A

Causes pressure on the cerebellum and brainstem that may affect function controlled by these areas and block the flow of CSF (hydrocephalus)

78
Q

What is the most common chiari malformation?

A

Type 2

79
Q

What is chiari malformation II?

A

It is the most common one
It can co-exist with encephalocele or spina bifida
Cerebellum and brainstem extend further into the foramen magnum than normal and also into the upper spinal cord
Normal flow of fluid out the brain can be obstructed, causing hydrocephalus

80
Q

What is a dermatoid cyst?

A

A benign tumor
Can occur in combination with spina bifida in the medial sacral region
If a fistula stays connection with an existing dermoid cyst, it indicates the location of the non-closure of the primitive neural tube
The cyst represents the last place of separation between the superficial ectoderm and the neuroectoderm

81
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

A condition in which the portion of the neural tube that will become the cerebellum does not close
The baby will be born without a forebrain and a cerebellum
The remaining parts of the brain are often not covered by bone or skin

82
Q

Is anencephaly deadly?

A

Yes, most babies with this are either stillborn or die shortly after birth

83
Q

Can zika cause anencephaly?

A

Yes, it also effects the auditory system

84
Q

When does the cardiovascular system begin to develop?

A

Week 3 of gestation

85
Q

What happens to the cardiovascular system by week 4?

A

The primitive heart divides into two ventricles

86
Q

What happens to the cardiovascular system by week 7?

A

The septum communication between the two chambers is closed off

87
Q

Is the heart very large in a fetus?

A

Yes, it decreases in size after the atriums are formed and before birth

88
Q

When does the respiratory system begin to develop?

A

Begins at week 3

89
Q

When does the laryngotracheal tube form?

A

Week 4

90
Q

What is the laryngotracheal tube?

A

The precursor to the trachea and larynx

91
Q

T/F: the primitive pharynx is also present by week 4

A

True

92
Q

T/F: doctors of a pre-me baby will give the mother medication to help the lungs mature, so the baby can breathe on its own when born

A

True

93
Q

When does the primitive gut form?

A

Week 4

94
Q

Are there divisions of the primitive gut?

A

Yes, foregut, midgut, and hindgut

95
Q

When does the urinary system start to develop?

A

Kidneys - week 4
Producing urine - week 11

96
Q

Is the gender of the fetus determined at fertilization?

A

Yes

97
Q

Which parent chooses the gender?

A

The father

98
Q

When do gonads (testes and ovaries) begin to develop?

A

About week 7 of gestation

99
Q

When can gender of the baby be determined?

A

Between weeks 18-22
This is because external genitalia are formed at this time

100
Q

How large is an embryo at the end of the embryonic period?

A

About the size of a jellybean

101
Q

How large is the head of an embryo in comparison to its body at the end of the embryonic period?

A

It makes up about 50% of its length

102
Q

What physical features can be seen at the end of the embryonic period?

A

Facial features and ears are distinguishable
Ears are low-set
Future eyes are visible
Formation of upper and lower limbs are visible

103
Q

What is the fetal period characterized by?

A

Maturation of tissues and organs and rapid growth of the body

104
Q

Do teratogens cause any physical malformations in the fetal period?

A

No, it is not likely
Major organ systems have been established by this time

105
Q

Can teratogens play any role in development when exposed during the fetal period?

A

Yes, they still may interfere with growth and normal function
But they will appear physically normal

106
Q

Can teratogen exposure during the fetal period cause cell death in the CNS, and therefore postnatal behavior abnormalities?

A

Yes

107
Q

What are some developmental disorders that are believed to occur during the fetal period?

A

Central auditory processing disorders
Learning disabilities and language issues

108
Q

What are some characteristics of the fetal period?

A

Relative head size decreases
Completion of the development of the organ systems
Hair appears on the head and body
Fetus gains weight from the development of subcutaneous fat
Fetus is getting ready for extrauterine life

109
Q

During which weeks do the major features of the ears, face, and palate emerge during the embryonic period?

A

Weeks 4 through 8

110
Q

Does each ear section have a unique embryologic origin?

A

Yes, because they all have a different function

111
Q

What day post conception do the branchial arches form?

A

Day 22

112
Q

Initially, how many arches are there?

A

6
But arch 5 disappears and 4-6 fuse together

113
Q

Which arches are critical for the development of the face, outer, and middle ear?

A

1st and 2nd

114
Q

T/F: Mesoderm arches develop into the facial and auditory muscles?

A

True

115
Q

What are the arches separated by externally?

A

Clefts

116
Q

What are the arches separated by internally?

A

Pouches

117
Q

T/F: Each arch, cleft, and pouch gives rise to different structures

A

True

118
Q

Does each arch have it’s own artery, nerve, and cartilage?

A

Yes

119
Q

What is the EAM formed from?

A

The 1st and 2nd pharyngeal clefts

120
Q

What is the process of the EAM being formed?

A

Initially, it is lined with a meatal plug
EAM formation begins around week 6 with the invagination of the 1st pharyngeal cleft
EAM formation ends week 26 with recanalization (opening) of the meatal plug

121
Q

How long does it take the EAM to fully develop?

A

6 or 7 years

122
Q

What do the clefts or grooves from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th arches form?

A

Cervical sinuses
They later disappear
If they don’t, they form the lateral or branchial cysts or fistulas

123
Q

Are lateral or branchial cysts or fistulas dangerous?

A

Not unless they get larger or infected

124
Q

What is the outer layer of the TM formed by?

A

The ectodermal meatal plug of the EAM

125
Q

What is the middle layer of the TM formed by?

A

The middle layer is mesoderm derived from neural crest cells

126
Q

What is the inner layer of the TM formed by?

A

The inner layer is endoderm and the epithelial lining of the tympanic cavity

127
Q

When does the formation of the middle ear start and end?

A

Starts week 8 of gestation and ends about week 21

128
Q

What is the middle ear formed by?

A

The tubotympanic recess (extension of the first pharyngeal pouch)

129
Q

What is the tubotympanic recess derived from?

A

Endoderm

130
Q

What two sections does the first pharyngeal pouch (tubotympanic recess) break into?

A

Proximal extension (future eustachian tube)
Distal extension (future tympanic cavity)

131
Q

What is in the ME and clears out mucous and pathogens out through the eustachian tube?

A

Motile cilia

132
Q

What develops these cilia in the ME cavity?

A

Neural crest cells

133
Q

What happens if these cilia break down?

A

ME infections

134
Q

Do the ossicles develop independently of the tubotympanic recess with neural cell contribution?

A

Yes

135
Q

What are the ossicles derives from?

A

The first and second pharyngeal arches

136
Q

Are all of the ossicles derived from the same arch?

A

No, they all have unique origins

137
Q

What are the ossicles made up of and surrounded by during development?

A

Cartilage
Mesenchyme

138
Q

Do all bones start from cartilage?

A

Yes

139
Q

What happens to the ossicles during the 8th month of gestation?

A

The tympanic cavity envelops them

140
Q

What middle ear muscles and bones are derived from the first pharyngeal arch?

A

Tensor tympani
Malleus and incus (derived from the cartilage of the first arch)

141
Q

What middle ear muscles and bones are derived from the second pharyngeal arch?

A

Stapedius muscle
Stapes (derived from the cartilage of the second arch)

142
Q

What nerves are associated with the first and second arches?

A

First - trigeminal
Second - facial

143
Q

What does the pinna develop from?

A

6 mesenchymal projections (auricular hillocks)
Produced by the migration of the neural crest cells

144
Q

Where are the hillocks located?

A

Between the first and second pharyngeal arches
Three on each side of the ear canal

145
Q

When do the hillocks arrive on the branchial clefts?

A

Week 5

146
Q

When do the hillocks enlarge and fuse to form the pinna?

A

Week 7

147
Q

When is pinna formation complete?

A

Week 30

148
Q

Where are the branchial clefts in comparison to the arches?

A

Outside
Develops external structures like the pinna

149
Q

Is the pinna fully developed when born?

A

No, continues to grow with time

150
Q

Is formation of the pinna a complex process that can lead to abnormalities?

A

Yes
Might indicate problems with the EAM, ME, or inner ear
Because all develop from the brachial arches
If one thing is off, they might all be off

151
Q

What three pinna structures come out of the 1st pharyngeal cleft?

A

Tragus, helix, and cymba

152
Q

What three pinna structures come out of the 2nd pharyngeal cleft?

A

Antitragus, antihelix, and concha

153
Q

What are the major features of the syndromes that result from the malformation of the 1st and 2nd arches, pouches, and clefts?

A

Cleft lip with or without cleft palate
Micrognathia (small lower jaw)
EAM abnormalities with or without pinna abnormalities

154
Q

Will all three major features be present for the syndromes that result from the malformation of the 1st and 2nd arches, pouches, and clefts?

A

No, but at least one will be present

155
Q

What are some 1st and 2nd arch syndromes that affect the auditory system resulting in hearing loss and other auditory abnormalities?

A

Treacher Collins syndrome
Pierre Robins syndrome
Stickler syndrome

156
Q

What are some characteristics of Treacher Collins syndrome?

A

Small lower jaw
Poor development of the mouth (large)
Mandible underdeveloped
Peanut ear

157
Q

What are some characteristics of Pierre Robin syndrome?

A

Smaller lower jaw
Tongue placed further back in mouth and large
Cleft palate
Can result in difficulty breathing and eating
Otitis media and conductive hearing loss

158
Q

What type of hearing loss is most common with 2nd arch syndromes?

A

Conductive
2nd arch develops the outer ear and ossicles

159
Q

What are some characteristics of Stickler syndrome?

A

Distinctive facial features
Underdeveloped middle of the face
Small lower jaw
Myopia and retinal detachment
Conductive or mixed hearing loss
Joint problems in early age (arthritis)

160
Q

What does the hindbrain (rhombencephalon) subdivide into?

A

Pons and medulla oblongata
Both play a part in the development of the inner ear and sensory organs

161
Q

When does the first indication occur that the inner ear is forming?

A

Day 22

162
Q

What develops into the inner ear?

A

Otic placode (ectoderm)

163
Q

What does the otic placode form once it invaginates?

A

The otic pit
Located dorsal to the 2nd pharyngeal cleft

164
Q

When does complete invagination of the otic placode happen?

A

Day 26

165
Q

What is the period from the thickening to the invagination of the placode called?

A

Otic induction

166
Q

Why can so many genes cause hearing loss?

A

Because a number of genes are implicated in the process of otic induction, the disruption of which can cause inner ear abnormalities and hearing loss

167
Q

What do the neural crest cells that the otic placode is parallel to form?

A

TM
Ossicles
Otic capsule and sensory neurons

168
Q

What are the ventral and dorsal portions of the otic vesicle (week 4)

A

Ventral - saccule and cochlear duct (future scala media)
Dorsal - utricle and semicircular canals, endolymphatic duct

169
Q

When are the 2 3/4 turns of the cochlea complete?

A

Week 8

170
Q

How is the cochlea connected to the saccule?

A

Ductus reuniens

171
Q

How do the utricle and saccule communicate?

A

Utricolosaccular duct

172
Q

Where does the endolymphatic duct lead to?

A

The dura mater

173
Q

When does the mesenchyme around the inner ear labyrinth turn into a cartilaginous otic capsule?

A

Week 9

174
Q

Why is the otic capsule necessary?

A

Proper development of the inner ear and for housing perilymph
Will eventually become the petrous portion of the temporal bone (bony labyrinth

175
Q

What is the auditory nerve formed from?

A

Neural crest cells

176
Q

When does the cartilage around the cochlear duct for the scala vestibuli and scala tympani?

A

Week 10

177
Q

When does the cochlea exit the cell cycle?

A

Week 7 to 8

178
Q

What does it mean to exit the cell cycle?

A

You are done will cell development
For hair cells, because they exit the cell cycle so early, those hair cells can never be grown back

179
Q

What are the two ridges that are formed from the epithelial cells in the cochlear duct?

A

Inner ridge - will form the future spiral limbus, forms the tectorial membrane
Outer ridge - will give rise to the 3 rows of outer hair cells and the 1 row of inner hair cells

180
Q

When is the cochlea developed and functional?

A

At the end of the 5th month of gestation

181
Q

What do the semicircular canals appear as at the 6th week of gestation?

A

Flattened out-pockets of the utricular portion of the otic vesicle
The central portions of the out pockets eventually disappear and the canals are formed
The end of each canal dilates to form the crus ampullare

182
Q

T/F: The semicircular canals, utricle, and the saccule are all filled with endolymph

A

True

183
Q

T/F: The fluid between the outer bony covering and the semicircular canals is perilymph

A

True

184
Q

What kind of motion are the three semicircular canals sensitive to?

A

Angular motion

185
Q

What kind of motion are the utricle and the saccule (macculae) sensitive to?

A

Linear motion

186
Q

Where are otoliths?

A

In the utricle and saccule

AUDE 5310 - Embryology (16 decks)

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