Lecture Notes Quiz Flashcards

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1
Q

What are all materials in nature made up of?

A

Elements

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2
Q

Atoms consist of?

A

Protons, neutrons, and electrons

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3
Q

How are electrons distributed around the nucleus?

A

Shells (different energy levels)

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4
Q

What is the outermost electron shell of an atom called?

A

Valence shells

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5
Q

How will you distribute the electrons in an electron shell diagram?

A

1st shell: 2 electrons
2nd shell: 8 electrons
3rd shell: 8 electrons

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6
Q

What do all atoms want for their valence shells?

A

Full valence shells

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7
Q

How can atoms fill their valence shells?

A

Sharing, donating, and gaining electrons

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of chemical bonds?

A

Non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic bonds, and hydrogen bonds

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9
Q

What are chemical bonds influenced by?

A

Electronegativity (tendency to attract electrons) of atoms

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10
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

The tendency to attract electrons. The more electronegative an atom is, the more it attracts electrons.

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11
Q

When do non-polar covalent bonds occur? (THINK: electronegativity)

A

Electrons that are equally shared between two atoms are due to their electronegativities being equal

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12
Q

When do polar covalent bonds occur? (THINK: electronegativity)

A

Electrons that are unequally shared between two atoms are due to their differences in electronegativities

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13
Q

When do Ionic bonds occur? (THINK: electronegativity)

A

Electrons that are donated by an atom and gained by the other atom due to their large differences in electronegativities

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14
Q

When do Hydrogen bonds occur?

A

Partial positive hydrogen (H) of one molecule interacts with a partial negative atom of a different molecule

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15
Q

What are water’s properties?

A

Polar covalent bonds, partial positive hydrogen/partial negative oxygen, and forms hydrogen bonds with other molecules

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16
Q

What is a solvent?

A

A property that can dissolve solutes. Ex. Water

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17
Q

What does pH of solution measure?

A

Its [H+]

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18
Q

What is the ratio of hydrogen and [OH-] in an acidic solution? (THINK: Compare [H+] and [OH-]

A

[H+] > [OH-]

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19
Q

What is the ratio of hydrogen and [OH-] in a basic solution? (THINK: Compare [H+] and [OH-]

A

[H+] < [OH-]

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20
Q

What are the 4 major elements that make up the human body?

A

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

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21
Q

Molecules that contain carbon are called what?

A

Organic molecules

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22
Q

What are the 4 types of organic molecules?

A

Proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids

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23
Q

What is the function of proteins?

A

Provide structural support and act as catalyst to facilitate chemical reactions

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24
Q

What is the building blocks of proteins?

A

Polypeptides

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25
Q

What makes up polypeptides?

A

It is a polymer. It is formed by amino acid monomers that are linked together via peptide bonds

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26
Q

What is the function of nucleic acids?

A

They encode and transmit genetic information

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27
Q

How are nucleic acids formed?

A

Formed by nucleotide monomers linked together via phosphodiester bonds

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28
Q

What is the function of carbohydrates?

A

Provide structural support for many organisms and a source of energy

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29
Q

What are carbohydrates formed by?

A

Formed by monosaccharide monomers that are linked together via glycosidic bonds

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30
Q

What are the function of lipids?

A

Make up cell membranes, store energy, and are important in cell communication

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31
Q

What organic molecule is not a polymer?

A

Lipids

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32
Q

What are the 3 hydrophobic molecules of lipids?

A

Triglycerides (fats), steroids, and phospholipids

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33
Q

What are triglycerides (fats)?

A

Fatty acids that are long chains of carbon with a carboxyl group at the end

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34
Q

What are the 2 types of fatty acids?

A

Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids

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35
Q

Describe saturated fatty acids

A
  • single-bonded carbons
  • max # hydrogens
  • straight structure
  • solid at room temperature
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36
Q

Describe unsaturated fatty acids

A
  • double-bonded carbons
  • less than max # of hydrogens
  • bent structure
  • liquid at room temperature
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37
Q

What does amphipathic mean in terms of a phospholipid?

A

Both a hydrophilic (polar head) and hydrophobic (non-polar tails) part of phospholipid

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38
Q

What are Prokaryotes?

A
  • They are bacteria
  • Small (size)
  • No nucleus
  • No organelles surround the membrane
  • Has a cell membrane
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39
Q

What are Eukaryotes?

A
  • Complex and large (size)
  • Has a nucleus (chromosomes are inside)
  • Organelles surround the membrane
  • Has a cell membrane
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40
Q

What does the cell membrane do?

A
  • Separates the inside of the cell from the surrounding environment
  • Maintains homeostasis (constant environment) inside of the cell
  • Determines the cell’s shape and size
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41
Q

What does selectively permeable mean?

A

The cell membrane is “selective” in allowing only some things to move in or out of the cell

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42
Q

What is Passive Transport?

A

THINK “passively”
- Does NOT require energy
- Materials move WITH the concentration gradient (High to Low)

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43
Q

What is Active Transport?

A
  • Requires energy expenditure
  • Materials move AGAINST the concentration gradient (Low to High)
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44
Q

What are some types of Passive Transport?

A
  • Simple diffusion
  • Osmosis (diffusion of water)
  • Facilitated diffusion
    • uses proteins
    • channels
    • carriers
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45
Q

What is simple diffusion?

A

Passive movement across a permeable membrane

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46
Q

How is simple diffusion done?

A

Moves molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration (with/down the concentration gradient) to achieve equilibrium. It does not require energy.

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47
Q

What is Osmosis?

A

Diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane

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48
Q

How is osmosis done?

A

Water molecules are moved from an area of high concentration to low concentration

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49
Q

What is osmolarity/tonicity?

A

The amount of solutes in a solution

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50
Q

What is the ratio of solute :water lead to in an increased solute condition?

A

Decreased water

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51
Q

What is the ratio of solute:water in a decreased solution condition?

A

Increased water

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52
Q

What is a isotonic solution?

A

2 solutions that have EQUAL [solute] and EQUAL [water] concentration

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53
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

2 solutions of HIGH [solute] and LOW [water]

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54
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

2 solutions of LOW [solute] and HIGH [water]

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55
Q

What will water always do? [THINK: Osmosis]

A

Water will always diffuse from high to low concentrations [hypotonic to hypertonic solutions]

56
Q

How is facilitated diffusion done?

A

It passively transports (passive transport) material through a channel protein or carrier protein

57
Q

How is active transport done?

A

Substances are moved against their concentration gradient (low to high)
- Energy (often ATP) is expended

58
Q

What are some examples of active transport?

A
  • Proton (H+) pump: moves H+ against their concentration gradient
  • Na+/K+ (an antiporter): uses energy from ATP to move 3 Na+ ions OUT of the cell and 2 K+ ions INTO the cell against their concentration gradients
59
Q

What is primary active transport?

A

Produces an electrochemical gradient (ion gradient) to drive the movement of other molecules (secondary active transport)

60
Q

What are some examples of primary active transport?

A

Proton (H+) pump and Na+/K+ pump

61
Q

What organisms have a contractile vacuole? What is the function of a contractile vacuole?

A

Single-celled organisms. A contractile vacuole is an organelle absorbs excess water in the cell and expels it to prevent lysis

62
Q

What is the function of a vacuole? Is it located in animals or plant cells?

A

Function: absorbs water and contributes to turgor pressure
Location: plant cells

63
Q

What is exocytosis and endocytosis?

A

Processes that occur when vesicles fuse with the cell membrane

64
Q

What is the nuclear envelope?

A

A double membrane that surrounds the nucleus

65
Q

What is the function of nuclear envelope?

A

This organelle contains pores that allow molecules to move into and out of the nucleus

66
Q

What does the rough endoplasmic reticulum contain?

A

Ribsomes

67
Q

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Important in lipid and steroid synthesis

68
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A
  • Modifies proteins and lipids produced in the ER (ex. adds carbohydrates to them)
  • Sorts proteins and lipids as they move to their final destinations
  • Synthesizes the cell’s carbohydrates
69
Q

What is the function of the lysosome?

A

A specialized vesicle that’s derived from the Golgi apparatus. Degrades damaged or uneeded macromolecules. (internal pH [five] and external pH [7]

70
Q

What does the theory of endosymbiosis say?

A

Mitochondria and chloroplasts were once independent prokaryotes (bacteria) that were engulfed by another cell

71
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Harnesses energy from organic molecules such as sugars and convert it into ATP in plant and animals cells

72
Q

What is the function of chloroplasts?

A

Captures the energy of sunlight to fix atmospheric carbon and synthesizes simple sugars in plant cells and photosynthetic organisms

73
Q

What is DNA main functions?

A
  • Stores genetic information
  • Copies itself
74
Q

What are the purines?

A
  • Adenine
  • Guanine
75
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A
  • Thymine
  • Cytosine
76
Q

What is base stacking?

A

Nitrogenous bases are non-polar (hydrophobic) and

77
Q

What do complimentary base pairing ensure?

A

Complimentary base pairing ensures the fidelity (preciseness) of DNA replication

78
Q

Where does transcription and translation occur in prokaryotes?

A

In the cytoplasm

79
Q

What is DNA read from in transcription (THINK: primes)?

A

From 3’ to five’

80
Q

How is RNA produced in transcription (THINK: primes)?

A

From five’ to 3’

81
Q

What is and the function of a promoter?

A

The region on the DNA at the start of the gene. They indicate the start of a gene.

82
Q

What are prokaryotes initiation proteins for transcription?

A
  • Sigma factor
  • RNA polymerase
  • Bind to promotor sequence of the gene
83
Q

What are eukaryote initiation proteins in transcription?

A
  • General transcription factors (GTFs) bind to promoter
  • Transcriptional activator proteins (TAPs) bind to an “upstream” region on the DNA called an enhancer
  • Mediator complex proteins brings GTFs, TAPs, and RNA polymerase together on the promoter
84
Q

When does initiation end?

A

Initiation ends with the formation of transcription bubble

85
Q

What are the steps of transcription?

A
  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
86
Q

What enzyme is responsible for elongation

A

RNA polymerase

87
Q

What occurs during Elongation?

A

Addition of RNA nucleotides to the growing RNA strand

88
Q

What are the RNA transcripts that are in BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A
  • Messenger RNA (mRNA)
  • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  • Transfer RNA (tRNA)
89
Q

What does ribosomal RNA (rRNA) do?

A

Combines with proteins to make ribosomes

90
Q

What does transfer RNA (tRNA) do?

A

Carries amino acids during translation (protein synthesis)

91
Q

What are the RNA transcripts that are only in eukaryotes?

A
  • Small nuclear RNA
  • microRNA (miRNA) and small-interfering RNA (siRNA)
92
Q

What is the function of the small nuclear RNA?

A

Used to “process” mRNA

93
Q

What is the function of microRNA (miRNA) and small-interfering RNA (siRNA)?

A
  • Stops translation of mRNA intro protein
  • Control for when the cell has enough of that protein
94
Q

Where is RNA processed in?

A

RNA is processed in eukaryotes. RNA processing does NOT occur in prokaryotes.

95
Q

What is said about the RNA world hypothesis?

A

Many scientists believe the first nucleic acids were RNA molecules
- Variety of different types of RNA
- RNA is involved in many cellular processes, including all the steps of the central dogma
- Some ribosomal RNA have enzymatic properties

96
Q

What is the role of the R group of an amino acid?

A

It’s role affects the structure (shape) and function of amino acids

97
Q

What is denaturation?

A

Denaturation of proteins causes them to lose its function

98
Q

What can protect cells from denaturation?

A

Protein chaperones

99
Q

What is the role of tRNA?

A

Carry amino acids to the ribosome during translation

100
Q

What is metabolism? (TRY: describe in your own words)

A

The set of biochemical reactions that transforms biomolecules and transfers energy

101
Q

What are the requirements of a cell?

A
  • A membrane that separates the internal and external environment
  • A way to encode/transmit information
  • Energy to do work of the cell
102
Q

What is the 1st Law of Thermodynamics?

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transformed

103
Q

What is the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics?

A

Some energy is not available to do work because the amount of disorder (entropy) increases

104
Q

What is chemical energy in a form of?

A

Potential energy. It is held in the chemical bonds between pairs of atoms in a molecule.

105
Q

DESCRIBE Endergonic reactions.

A
  • Products > reactants
  • +(triangle)G
  • Requires energy input
  • Nonspontaneous
  • Anabolism (THINK: build)
106
Q

DESCRIBE Exergonic reactions.

A
  • Products < Reactants
  • (triangle) G
  • Energy is released
  • Spontaneous
  • Catabolism (THINK: break down)
107
Q

What are the characteristics of enzymes?

A
  • Reduce the activation energy (EA) of chemical reactions
  • Bind to specific substrates and catalyze their conversion to products
  • Their activity can be regulated
    REMEMBER: enzymes are catabolic
108
Q

Why do enzymes lower/reduce activation energy?

A

Enzymes lower/reduce activation energy to catalyze (speed up) the rate of chemical reaction

109
Q

What does an enzyme’s activity require?

A
  • Substrates
  • Cofactor
110
Q

What can affect enzyme activity from occurring or not working efficiently?

A
  • pH
  • Temperature
  • Competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors
  • Allosteric inhibitors and activators
111
Q

What is and the function of a competitive inhibitor?

A

An inhibitor that “competes” with the substrate to stay attached to the active site and reduces the rate of the reaction.
(NOTE: no other inhibitor can force/bump it out of the active site)

112
Q

What is and the function of a noncompetitive inhibitor?

A

An inhibitor that binds to a site other than the active site and can change the shape of an enzyme, which reduces the rate of reaction

113
Q

What are allosteric enzymes?

A

Enzymes that are regulated by internal molecules that bind at sites other than their active sites and can be regulated by inhibitors or activators

114
Q

How do allosteric inhibitors play a role in negative feedback loops?

A

These inhibitors (end products of a pathway) prevent/inhibit the first step of a reaction and aids in helping the cell conserve energy
(NOTE: this is why negative feedback looks go “up and down”, they are not constant)

115
Q

What is needed in Substrate-level phosphorylation to make ATP?

A

An enzyme and a substrate (THINK: get it? “SUBSTRATE-level”… okay…

116
Q

What is needed in Oxidative phosphorylation to make ATP?

A

The electron transport chain (ETC) and oxygen

117
Q

What are the steps/stages of cellular respiration?

A

Stage 1: glycolysis (cytoplasm)

Stage 2: pyruvate oxidation (mitochondria)

Stage 3: citric acid cycle (mitochondria)

Stage 4: oxidative phosphorylation (mitochondria)

118
Q

What does oxidation mean in terms of cellular respiration?

A

Loss of electrons (and hydrogens)

119
Q

What does reduction mean in terms of cellular respiration?

A

Gain of electrons (and hydrogens)

120
Q

What type of process is Glycolysis?

A

Anaerobic process (no oxygen required)

121
Q

How phases does Glycolysis have? What are those phases?

A

Phase 1: energy input (preparatory phase)

Stage 2: splitting glucose

Stage 3: energy payoff

122
Q

What are the net INPUTS of Glycolysis?

A
  • Glucose
  • ADP + Pi
  • NAD+
123
Q

What are the net OUTPUTS of Glycolysis?

A
  • Pyruvate
  • ATP
  • NADH (electron carrier)
124
Q

What processes occur in the mitochondrial matrix (THINK: cellular respiration)?

A
  • Pyruvate oxidation (stage 2)
  • Citric acid cycle (stage 3)
  • Oxidative phosphorylation (stage 4)
125
Q

Where in the mitochondria are the electron carrier proteins of ETC and ATP synthase located?

A

The inner membrane

126
Q

Where in the mitochondria has a high concentration of H+ ions

A

The intermembrane space

127
Q

What are the net INPUTS of Pyruvate Oxidation?

A
  • Pyruvate
  • NAD+
  • Coenzyme A
128
Q

What are the net OUTPUTS of Pyruvate Oxidation?

A
  • Acetyl-CoA
  • CO2
  • NADH (electron carrier)
129
Q

What are the net INPUTS of the Citric Acid Cycle?

A
  • Acetyl-CoA
  • NAD+
  • FAD
  • ADP + Pi
130
Q

What are the net OUTPUTS of the Citric Acid Cycle?

A
  • CoA (coenzyme A)
  • CO2
  • NADH (electron carrier)
  • FADH2 (electron carrier)
  • ATP
131
Q

What type of energy is the H+ ions in the intermembrane space? (THINK: forces and motion)

A

Potential energy: the high concentration of H+ ions in the intermembrane space is potential energy

132
Q

What is combined with H+ ions in the matrix of the mitchondrion to make H2O?

A

Oxygen and electrons combined with H+ makes H2O

133
Q

What are the net INPUTS of the Electron Transport Chain?

A
  • NADH (electron carrier)
  • FADH2 (electron carrier)
  • ADP + Pi
  • O2
134
Q

What are the net OUTPUTS of the Electron Transport Chain?

A
  • NAD+
  • FAD
  • ATP
  • H2O
135
Q

What is the terminal (last) acceptor of the electrons in the Electron Transport Chain?

A

H2O

136
Q

In the absence of oxygen in Cellular Respiration, what occurs?

A

Fermentation occurs and produces NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue.
INPUTS: pyruvate and NADH
OUTPuTS: NAD+ - reused in glycolysis

137
Q
A