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Skel Rad A > Lecture Midterm > Flashcards

Lecture Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What does CATBITES stand for?

A 
-Categories of bone disease
Congenital
Arthritis
Trauma
Blood
Infection
Tumor
Endocrine, Nutritional, Metabolic
Soft Tissue
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2
Q

What are some clinical data to consider during your preliminary analysis of a film?

A 
Age
Sex
Race
History
Symmetry of lesions
Systems Involved
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3
Q

An osteolytic lesion will appear more __ on the film

A

black

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of Osteolytic lesions?

A

Geographic
Moth-eaten
Permeative

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5
Q

A Geographic lesion has ___ borders and is the ___ aggressive. It is ___ growing and >__mm in diameter

A

sharp
least
slow
5

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6
Q

Geographic lesions have a __ zone of transition

A

narrow

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7
Q

T/F Geographic lesions are benign

A

T

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8
Q

Moth-eaten lesions have ___ borders and may be ___. These are from __-__mm in diameter

A

jagged
malignant
2-5

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9
Q

Permeaive (pinhole) lesions have a __ zone of transition and implies aggressive ___. These lesions are <__mm in diameter.

A

wide
malignancy
1

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10
Q

Motheaten lesions predispose patients to a high risk of pathological ___

A

fracture

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11
Q

Osteoblastic lesion AKA

A

Osteogenic

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12
Q

Osteoblastic lesions appear ___ on film

A

white

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13
Q

2 pathologies that may cause an osteoblastic lesion

A

Paget’s

Osteosarcoma

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14
Q

Mixed lesions are __ and __, and are fairly uncommon

A

blastic

lucent

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15
Q

What are 7 things to consider when analyzing a lesion?

A 
Skeletal Location
Metaphysis
Site of origin
Shape
Size
Length
Margination
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16
Q

A sharp or short zone of transition means that the lesion is ___

A

benign

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17
Q

Poorly-defined or long zone of transition means __ or __

A

infection

malignancy

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18
Q

Sclerotic margin is typical of ___

A

infection

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19
Q

A destroyed cortex indicates __ or ___ ___

A

infection

malignant tumor

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20
Q

e lesion with an expanded cortex may be __ or __

A

benign

malignant

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21
Q

5 categories of the matrix of a lesion

A 
Fat
Cartilage
Osseous
Hematogenous
Fibrous
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22
Q

What are the 3 types of Cartilage appearances in the matrix of a lesion?

A

Stippled
Flocculent (cloud-like)
Arc/Ring

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23
Q

The periosteum is the __ covering the bone and shares __ supply with the bone

A

membrane

blood

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24
Q

What 4 things may stimulate the psriosteal response?

A 
Inflammation
Break
tear 
stretching
.... of the periosteum
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25
Q

With slow-growing processes, there is an ___ pattern of the periosteal new bone along the __ of affected bone.

A

uninterrupted

cortex

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26
Q

AKA for slow growing processes

A

Solid Periosteal reaction

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27
Q

With rapidly-growing processes, the perisoteum cannot produce new bone as fast as the lesion is growing. What appearances of lesion are associated with rapid growing processes?

A

Lamellated

Spiculated

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28
Q

If a lesion grows unevenly, (stops and stops) the periosteum may lay down a thin shell of calcified new bone, leading to a ___ appearance that creates ___.

A

lamellated/ Onion Skin/ Laminated

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29
Q

If a lesion grows fast and evenly, Periosteum will not have enough time to lay down even a thin shell of bone. __ fibers become stretched out ___ to the bone and ossified fibers produced a ___ pattern periosteal reaction. This is the ___ aggressive of the 3 (solid, onion, sunburst)

A

Sharpey’s
perpendicular
Sunburst/ Spiculated
Most

30
Q

Codman’s triangle appears on a process growing too fast for the periosteum to respond with even thin shells of new bone. Only the __ of the __ periosteum will ossify. It forms a small ___ with the surface of the bone, but not a complete triangle.

A

edges
raised
triangle

31
Q

What are 3 causes of solid periosteal reaction?

A

Infecton
Benign neoplasm
Osteoid Osteoma

32
Q

What are some possible causes of aggressive periosteal reactions?

A

Osteomyelitis
Malignant Neoplasm
Lymphoma
Leukemia

33
Q

What is used to quantitatively evaluate bone density?

A

Dexa Scan

34
Q

How many bones are in the body?
How many are Appendicular?
Axial?

A

206
126
80

35
Q

4 Functions of bone

A

Support mechanical loads
Protect vital organs
Contributes to mineral homeostasis
Serves as a site for hematopoiesis

36
Q

First bone (and last) to ossify?

A

Clavicle

37
Q

From which germ layer is bone formed?

A

Mesodermal tissue (Mesenchymal cells)

38
Q

Long bone begins as __ cartilage in fetus

A

hyaline

39
Q

Primary center ossification

A

Diaphysis

40
Q

Secondary center of ossification

A

Epiphysis

41
Q

Intramembranous ossification is the __ stage of the ossification process. In this process, embryonic __ transforms into bone. This increases the __ of the bone

A

first
CT
diameter

42
Q

Endochondral ossification is the __ stage of ossification process. Primary endochondral ossification is when ___ tissue from ___ cells transforms into bones. This __ the bone.

A

2nd
cartilaginous
mesenchymal
lengthens

43
Q

Seocondary endochondral ossification occurs within the __ and __. Associated with which bones?

A 
Epiphysis
Apophyses
Tubular bones
Vertebrae
Ethmoids
Inf. Conchae
44
Q

Zone of proliferation is the most ___ zone

A

active

45
Q

ZOne of hypertrophy is where ___ fractures may occur

A

salter-harris

46
Q

Bone is __% mineral and __% collagen

A

70

30

47
Q

Compact bone makes up __% of total bone

A

80

48
Q

Flat Flat bones have an inner and outer layer of ___ tissue and there is __ between the 2 layers of cancellous bone

A

dense bony tissue

red marrow

49
Q

Bone marrow lies in spaces between the ___ of the __ bone

A

trabeculae

cancellous

50
Q

Calcium to phosphorus ratio

A

2:1

51
Q

What is the main calcium-phosphorus complex?

A

Crystalline Hydroxyapatite

Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2

52
Q

Phosphorus levels are __ related to calcium. Phosphorus allows __ of calcium at the bone crystal surface

A

inversely

Precipitation

53
Q

Gigantism is increased somatropin ___ physeal closure

A

before

54
Q

Acromegaly is increased somatropin ___ physeal closure

A

after

55
Q

Parathyroid Hormone is an important regulator of skeletal ___. What are it’s 2 main functions?

A

Metabolism

  • Stimulate and control rate of bone remodeling
  • Influence mechanisms governing control of the plasma level of calcium
56
Q

PTH direct effect is in the __ and it stimulates __ absorption from __ fluid

A

Kidney
Ca++
Glomerular

57
Q

PTH indirect effect is in the ___ and it promotes osteoclastic ___.

A

bone

resorption

58
Q

Vitamin D regulates intestinal __ absorption. Also maintains ___ growth and mineralization

A

mineral

skeletal

59
Q

What produces estrogen?

A

Ovarian Follicle

60
Q

Estrogen ___ bone production by inducing ___ anabolic activity

A

stimulates

protein

61
Q

Androgen is produced in ___ and ___

A

testicles

adrenal cortex

62
Q

Growth Hormone comes from ___ cells of ___ ___

A

acidophilic

anterior pituitary

63
Q

Growth hormone controls ___ proliferation and __ at the growth plate

A

chondrocyte

proliferation

64
Q

What is the most common glucocorticoid to affect bone?

A

hydrocortisone

65
Q

Glucocorticoids induce protein ___ and ___ excretion , therefore encourages ___

A

catabolism
phosphorus
osteoclasts

66
Q

A person with acromegalywill have an enlarged __ __ after growth plate closes

A

sella turcica

67
Q

Is dexa scan quantitative or qualitative?

A

Quantitative

68
Q

What is the most metabolically active part of the long bone?

A

Metaphysis

69
Q

What is the most active layer of the physeal plate?

A

Proliferative zone

70
Q

Do newborns have more red or yellow marrow?

A

red

Skel Rad A (1 decks)

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