Lecture/Lab Multichoice Questions Flashcards
What is a nasogastric tube?
A. Tube inserted through the nose into the beginning of the small intestine
B. Tube inserted through the nose into the stomach
C. Tube inserted through the nose into the second portion of the small intestine
D. Tube inserted through the mouth into the stomach
B. A nasogastric tube is inserted through the nose into the stomach.
What is total nutrient admixture?
A. Method of supplying nutrients to the body by the intravenous route
B. An oil in water emulsion of oils, egg phospholipids and glycerin
C. A device designed and used for long-term administration of medications and fluids into central veins
D. An admixture of lipid emulsions, proteins, carbohydrates, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals and water
D. An admixture of lipid emulsions, proteins, carbohydrates, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals and water
Parenteral nutrition is a method of supplying nutrients to the body by the intravenous route. Intravenous fat emulsion is an oil-in-water emulsion of oils, egg phospholipids and glycerin. A central venous access device is designed and used for long-term administration of medications and fluids into central veins. Total nutrient admixture is lipid emulsions, proteins, carbohydrates, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals and water
Is the following statement true or false?
The nasogastric tube is secured to the nose with tape to prevent injury to the nasopharyngeal passages
True/The nasogastric tube is secured to the nose with tape to prevent injury to the nasopharyngeal passages
Is the following statement true or false?
Cyclic feedings are administered into the stomach in large amounts and at designated intervals
False/Bolus feedings are administered into the stomach in large amounts and at designated intervals. Cyclic feedings are periodic feedings given over a short period of time
What position should the patient’s head be in when receiving a tube feeding to prevent aspiration? A. Flat B. 10–20 degree elevation C. 30–45 degree elevation D. 60–90 degree elevation
C. 30–45 degree elevation/The semi-Fowler position is necessary for an NG feeding with the patient’s head elevated at least 30 to 45 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration
What is an example of a laxative osmotic agent?
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
B. Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate (Coloxyl)
C. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
D. Polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (Colyte)
E. Polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (Colyte)/Polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (Colyte) are an osmotic agent. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) is a stimulant laxative. Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate (Coloxyl) is a faecal softener. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) is a saline agent
Is the following statement true or false?
The most common site for diverticulitis is the ileum
False/The most common site for diverticulitis is not the ileum. The most common site for diverticulitis is the sigmoid
Is the following statement true or false?
Abdominal pain and constipation are common clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease
False/Abdominal pain and diarrhoea are common clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease
Is the following statement true or false?
Regular bowel habits can be established for a patient with an ileostomy
False/Regular bowel habits can NOT be established for a patient with an ileostomy
Is the following statement true or false?
The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary body functions
True/The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary body functions
How many cranial nerves does the nurse have to assess?
A. Ten
B. Eleven
C. Twelve
D. Thirteen
C. Twelve/There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves that emerge from the lower surface of the brain and pass through the foramina in the skull
Is the following statement true or false?
Cerebral angiography is an x-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space taken after the injection of a contrast agent into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture
False
Myelography is an x-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space taken after the injection of a contrast agent into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture. Cerebral angiography is an x-ray study of the cerebral circulation with a contrast agent injected into a selected artery
What findings can be identified with the use of a x-ray of the spine?
A. Fracture, dislocation, infection, osteoarthritis or scoliosis
B. Infections, tumours and bone marrow abnormalities
C. Soft tissue lesions adjacent to the vertebral column
D. Spinal nerve root disorders
A. Fracture, dislocation, infection, osteoarthritis or scoliosis/X-ray of the spine may demonstrate a fracture, dislocation, infection, osteoarthritis or scoliosis. Bone scan and blood studies may disclose infections, tumours and bone marrow abnormalities. Computed tomography is useful in identifying soft tissue lesions adjacent to the vertebral column. An electromyogram is used to evaluate spinal nerve root disorders
Is the following statement true or false?
Proper standing posture occurs when the abdominal muscles contract, giving a feeling of upward pull and the gluteal muscles contract, giving a downward pull
True/Proper standing posture occurs when the abdominal muscles contract, giving a feeling of upward pull and the gluteal muscles contract, giving a downward pull
What is bursitis?
A. Inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint
B. New bone growth around a sequestrum
C. Disease of a nerve root
D. Inflammation of muscle tendons
A. Inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint/Bursitis is inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint. Involucrum is new bone growth around a sequestrum. Radiculopathy is disease of a nerve root. Tendinitis is inflammation of muscle tendons
What is plantar fasciitis?
A. Flexion deformity of the interphalangeal joint that may involve several toes
B. Deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally
C. A swelling of the third branch of the median plantar nerve
D. An inflammation of the foot supporting fascia
D. An inflammation of the foot supporting fascia/Hammer toe is flexion deformity of the interphalangeal joint that may involve several toes. Hallux valgus is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally. The swelling of the plantar nerve is a Morton’s neuroma,
How long does a patient taking bisphosphonates need to stay upright after administration?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 120 minutes
C. 30 minutes
Is the following statement true or false?
Melanocytes are receptors that transmit stimuli to the axon through a chemical synapse
False/Melanocytes are the special cells of the epidermis that are primarily involved in producing the pigment melanin. Merkel cells are receptors that transmit stimuli to the axon through a chemical synapse
Which can cause hyperpigmentation of the skin?
A. Eczema
B. Fungal infection
C. Sun injury
D. Vitiligo
C. Sun injury/Hyperpigmentation can be a result of sun injury. Hypopigmentation may be caused by a fungal infection, eczema or vitiligo
Is the following statement true or false?
Tzanck smear is a test used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions
True/Tzanck smear is a test used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions
What is the time frame for pain that can be classified as chronic?
A. 1 month
B. 2 to 3 months
C. 4 to 5 months
D. Longer than 6 months
D. Longer than 6 months/Rationale: Chronic pain is constant or intermittent pain that persists beyond the expected healing time and that can seldom be attributed to a specific cause or injury. Chronic pain may be defined as pain that lasts for 6 months or longer, although 6 months is an arbitrary period for differentiating between acute and chronic pain
The RN asks a patient to describe the quality of pain. Which of the following is a descriptive term for the quality of pain?
A. Burning
B. Chronic
C. Intermittent
D. Severe
A. Burning/Rationale: A descriptive term for the quality of pain is burning. Chronic and intermittent pain are examples of types of pain. Severe is a descriptive term for the intensity of pain
Is the following statement true or false?
Intraoperative phase: the period of time from the decision for surgery until the patient is transferred into the operating room
False
Rationale: The preoperative phase is the period of time from the decision for surgery until the patient is transferred into the operating room. The intraoperative phase is the period of time from when the patient is transferred to the operating room to the admission to post-anaesthesia care unit (PARU)
Which medication classification must be assessed during the preoperative period because it can cause an electrolyte imbalance during surgery?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Diuretics
C. Phenothiazines
D. Insulin
B. Diuretics/Rationale: Diuretics during anaesthesia may cause excessive respiratory depression resulting from an associated electrolyte imbalance. Corticosteroids can cause cardiovascular collapse if discontinued suddenly. Phenothiazines may increase the hypotensive action of anaesthetics. Interaction between anaesthetics and insulin must be considered when a patient with diabetes mellitus undergoes surgery
. Is the following statement true or false?
The primary goal in withholding food before surgery is to prevent aspiration
True
Rationale: The primary goal in withholding food before surgery is to prevent aspiration
Is the following statement is true or false?
The primary nursing goal in the immediate postoperative period is maintenance of pulmonary function and prevention of laryngospasm
False
Rationale: The primary nursing goal in the immediate postoperative period is maintenance of pulmonary function and prevention of hypoxemia and hypercapnia, not laryngospasm
Is the following statement is true or false?
The most important nursing intervention when vomiting occurs postoperatively is to turn the patient’s head to prevent aspiration of vomitus into the lungs
True
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention when vomiting occurs postoperatively is to turn the patient’s head to prevent aspiration of vomitus into the lungs
Is the following statement is true or false?
Which of the following occurs during the inflammatory stage of wound healing? A. Blood clot forms B. Granulation tissue forms C. Fibroblasts leave wound D. Tensile strength increases
A. Blood clot forms
Rationale: The blood clot forms during the inflammatory phase of wound healing. Granulation tissue forms during the proliferative phase. Fibroblasts leave the wound and tensile strength increases during the maturation phase of wound healing
Is the following statement true or false?
The primary oxygen administration method for a patient with COPD is a nasal cannula
False/The primary oxygen administration method for a patient with COPD is a Venturi mask, not a nasal cannula
Is the following statement true or false?
A patient with hypoxemia will have an increase in the PaO2 level
False/A patient with hypoxemia will have a decrease in the PaO2 level, not an increase in the PaO2 level
Is the following statement true or false?
The patient should be encouraged to use an incentive spirometer approximately 10 breaths per hour between treatments while awake
True/The patient should be encouraged to use an incentive spirometer approximately 10 breaths per hour between treatments while awake
Is the following statement true or false?
An antigen is a protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antibody
False/An antibody, not antigen, is a protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antigen, not antibody
What is a common second-generation non-sedating antihistamine used to treat allergies?
A. Cetirizine (Alzene)
B. Chlorpheniramine maleate (Chlorpheniramine)
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
A. Cetirizine (Alzene)/A common second-generation non-sedating antihistamine used to treat allergies is cetirizine (Zyrtec). First-generation antihistamines include chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton), diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax)
When could a ‘rebound’ anaphylactic reaction occur after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been given?
A. One hour
B. Two hours
C. Three hours
D. Four hours
D. Four hours/A ‘rebound’ anaphylactic reaction can occur four to ten hours after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been given
