Lecture exam flashcards
1
Q
The ability of a specific target cell to respond to a hormone is dependent on __________.
A
the specific extracellular or intracellular receptor that binds to the hormone
2
Q
What specific molecules are secreted by cells and function to alter or regulate target-cell metabolism?
A
Hormones
3
Q
Most amino acid-based hormones exert their effects on target cells through the activation of intracellular __________.
A
second messengers, like cyclic AMP
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT involved in stimulating the release of hormones from endocrine glands?
A
The action of one hormone opposing the effect of another hormone on the surface of a target cell.
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects target-cell activation following hormone-receptor interaction?
A
Synthesis of regulatory molecules within the target cell
6
Q
Steroid hormones alter target-cell activity by __________.
A
binding to hormone response elements on chromatin to initiate protein synthesis via gene expression
7
Q
Why do hormones cause an amplification effect on target cells, causing them to elicit multiple metabolic responses?
A
This occurs because activated protein kinases catalyze many reactions, which phosphorylate many molecules.
8
Q
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a water-soluble hormone. Which statement BEST describes how TSH causes target-cell activation?
A
TSH indirectly activates G-proteins, causing the synthesis of intracellular second messengers.
9
Q
Human blood includes all of the following components EXCEPT:
A
Interstitial fluid
10
Q
Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?
A
Maintaining pH balance of body fluids
11
Q
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
A
7.35 - 7.45
12
Q
Erythrocytes can be described by all of the following EXCEPT:
A
They can easily replicate themselves in the blood supply.
13
Q
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
A
Preventing blood loss from damaged vessels
14
Q
What are the fragments of megakaryocytes that function in hemostasis?
A
Thrombocytes
15
Q
A platelet plug forms when __________.
A
thrombocytes release chemicals causing them to aggregate at the site of damage on a blood vessel
16
Q
Which statement is FALSE about monocytes and neutrophils?
A
They are granulocytes produced via hemopoiesis.
17
Q
Which sequence correctly identifies the order of events necessary for blood coagulation?
A
Formation of prothrombinase –> Prothrombin converts to thrombin –> Fibrinogen converts to fibrin
18
Q
All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT:
A
Delivering respiratory gases to the body cells
19
Q
Which statement BEST describes lymph transport in the lymphatic system?
A
Chyle is a specific type of lymph that transports digested fats.
20
Q
Which statement is TRUE about lymphatic cells and lymphatic tissue?
A
Every immunocompetent T cell and B cell responds to a specific antigen, which is why self-tolerance is important in their maturation.
21
Q
Which lymphatic structure is NOT composed of reticular connective tissue?
A
Thymus
22
Q
Antibodies that respond to viruses and toxins are synthesized and released by __________.
A
plasma cells
23
Q
Which statement is TRUE regarding differences between lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries?
A
Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries due to their flap-like minivalves.
24
Q
How does age affect the size of the thymus?
A
The thymus increases in size after birth, then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.
25
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph directly into the venous blood of the left subclavian vein?
Thoracic duct
26
Which statement is FALSE regarding the spleen?
The spleen traps bacteria in crypts, which are invaginations in the splenic tissue.
27
The MOST abundant formed elements in the blood are, whereas are the LEAST abundant formed elements in the blood.
erythrocyte & basophils
28
Name one specific steroid hormone:
estrogen
29
Name one specific eicosanoid:
leukotrienes
30
The specific plasma protein involved in the final phase of blood coagulation is.
fibinogen
31
During B cell activation, antibodies are synthesized and secreted from , and destroy the antigens marked by antibodies.
plasma cells
32
One specific lymphatic structure located in the pharynx of the oral cavity is the.
palatine tonsil
33
Blood coagulation is one example of hemopoiesis
False
34
Lymph forms from interstitial fluid surrounding the lymphatic capillaries.
True
35
Type O- blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens on the surfaces of the erythrocytes
True
36
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone exhibit a synergistic effect at their target cells
False
37
Each erythrocyte can carry up to four molecules of oxygen.
False
38
What is the tough, superficial layer of the pericardium that helps prevent overstretching of the myocardium?
fibrous pericardium
39
The __________ function(s) to reduce friction between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium.
pericardial fluid
40
Which statement is TRUE about the myocardium of the heart wall?
The myocardium is innervated by autonomic neurons, which control heart contractions and heart rate.
41
Which event does NOT occur when the semilunar (SL) valves are open?
Ventricles are in diastole, and atria are in systole.
42
Veins of the coronary circulation can be described by all of the following EXCEPT:
These vessels carry oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart.
43
The myocardial thickness of the left ventricle is necessary in order to __________.
pump blood into the aorta with greater force and pressure
44
When is the tricuspid valve (right AV valve) closed?
during ventricular systole
45
Deoxygenated blood pumped from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk will enter the __________.
pulmonary circulation
46
Which statement BEST describes a unique characteristic of autorhythmic fibers?
These cells have gap junctions that allow them to act as a functional syncytium.
47
Which statement is TRUE regarding arteries?
Elastic arteries function under high blood pressure to stretch rapidly as blood leaves the heart.
48
Which statement BEST describes the tunica externa (tunica adventitia) of a vein?
The tunica externa is the thickest layer of the venous wall composed of collagen and elastic fibers.
49
What process involves the passive movement of oxygen molecules down a concentration gradient out of the blood?
Diffusion
50
All of the following factors affect blood flow EXCEPT:
a decrease in arterial pressure caused by atrial diastole
51
Which statement correctly identifies one structural difference between arteries and veins?
Arterial walls are composed of a thick layer of smooth muscle fibers, whereas venous walls are not.
52
Located in the kidneys, __________ are microscopic blood vessels with small pores through their endothelial walls.
fenestrated capillaries
53
Which statement BEST describes blood flow?
Blood flow through the entire systemic circulation is equivalent to cardiac output.
54
Which tunic of arterial walls has the greatest effect on blood flow and blood pressure?
Tunica media
55
Which statement is FALSE regarding capillary blood pressure?
Capillary blood pressure constantly fluctuates due to ventricular systole.
56
How is pulse pressure calculated?
Systolic pressure minus Diastolic pressure
57
Which statement is TRUE regarding the effect of vascular resistance?
Vascular resistance increases as blood viscosity increases.
58
Which statement BEST describes the process of filtration across capillary walls?
Filtration involves a positive pressure difference between the hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure.
59
The blood vessels that deliver blood directly into capillary beds are called __________.
arterioles
60
Which statement is TRUE regarding systemic blood pressure?
An increase in erythrocyte production may cause an increase blood pressure.
61
All of the following factors aid in the venous return of blood EXCEPT:
smooth surface of the endothelium
62
__________ circulation functions to drain deoxygenated blood from the digestive viscera into the liver.
Hepatic portal
63
What number indicates ventricular systole?
5
64
Which statement BEST describes the events occurring during wave labeled 3?
The ventricular myocardium repolarizes during the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle.
65
What specific cardiac muscle fibers are active during the wave labeled 2?
Right and left bundle branches in the interventricular septum
66
What is occurring during the interval labeled 4?
Atrial depolarization and atrial systole
67
Cardiac output is dependent upon two factors, which include:
stroke volume- volume of blood ejected by the ventricles during each heart contraction
Heart rate- total number of heart contractions per minute
68
An __________ is a graphic record of the electrical activity involved in heart contraction.
electrocardiogram
69
Name ONE specific elastic artery of the body.
aorta
70
Identify the specific pressure that moves/propels blood into tissues.
mean arterial pressure
71
Does blood pressure increase or decrease as blood moves away from the heart?
decrease
72
The AV valves and SL valves compose the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
True
73
Blood flow increases as vascular resistance increases.
False
74
Contractility refers how much the myocardium will stretch before it contracts.
False
75
Elevating cardiac output for at least 20 minutes is necessary to strengthen cardiac muscle tissue.
True
76
Trabeculae carneae are bundles of cardiac muscle fibers found on the internal surfaces of the atria.
False
77
Which process is NOT a function of the respiratory system
Transport of respiratory gases in blood plasma
78
The walls of the alveoli are composed of type I and type II cells. What is the function of the type II cells?
Type II cells function to produce and secrete surfactant.
79
During inhalation, air enters the lungs as lung volume increases. Why does air move into the lungs?
Inhalation causes intrapulmonary pressure to be less than atmospheric pressure.
80
Although exhalation is a passive process, it depends on two factors. What two factors govern exhalation?
Recoil action of elastic fibers in the lungs and surface tension caused by attraction of alveolar-fluid molecules
81
Intrapulmonary pressure is the __________.
pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
82
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by __________.
decreasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid by interfering with the attraction of water molecules
83
Which factor governs the exchange of gases during external respiration?
Partial pressure gradients of oxygen and carbon dioxide
84
How is oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged across the respiratory membrane and cell-membrane surfaces?
Diffusion
85
Which statement is TRUE about the pharynx?
The nasopharynx functions to receive air from the Eustachian tube to equalize air pressure in the middle ear.
86
Which structures provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange in the lungs?
Alveoli
87
What structures compose the respiratory membranes located in the lungs?
Simple squamous epithelium of alveoli and endothelium of capillary walls
88
What factors are responsible for creating the force that allows the lungs to remain open and close to the thoracic wall?
Surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative intrapleural pressure
89
Inhaled particulate matter, such as dust, is trapped via the __________, which prevents its entry into the lungs.
mucus secreted by the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
90
Which process is NOT a function of the kidneys and urinary system?
Eliminates carbon dioxide and solid, undigested waste products from the body
91
Identify the correct pathway of filtrate and urine flow through the urinary system.
Nephron --> Renal pelvis --> Ureter --> Urinary bladder
92
Water permeability and water reabsorption via the cells of the collecting duct are due to a(n) __________.
increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
93
Which statement is FALSE regarding the tissue layers surrounding the kidneys?
The renal capsule is composed of loose connective tissue.
94
Glomerular filtration is governed by __________, which pushes solutes and water across the filtration membrane.
net filtration pressure
95
The filtration membrane, located in the renal corpuscle, includes all of the structures EXCEPT:
Parietal layer of the Bowman's capsule
96
Water reabsorption by the cells of the loop of Henle occurs via __________.
osmosis
97
Which statement is TRUE regarding ion reabsorption by the cells of the collecting duct?
Aldosterone governs the reabsorption of sodium ions at the level of the collecting duct.
98
What would be the effect on filtration rate if the capsular hydrostatic pressure increased above normal?
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure would decrease, which would decrease the filtration rate.
99
Excretion of dilute urine requires __________.
impermeability of the collecting duct to water
100
Which process does NOT describe the importance of tubular secretion?
Reabsorbing metabolites of drugs
101
Which statement is TRUE regarding tubular reabsorption
Water reabsorption is passive in the proximal convoluted tubule.
102
Which hormone is important in the regulation of sodium-ion concentration in the extracellular fluid?
Aldosterone
103
What action is caused by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?
ANP decreases blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water reabsorption.
104
The most important factor influencing potassium-ion secretion is __________.
potassium-ion concentration in blood plasma
105
Which hormone is important in water reabsorption during dehydration?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
106
One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is __________.
a rise in blood plasma osmolality
107
H2CO3 HCO3- + H+
| What specific chemical buffer system is shown above?
Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
108
H2CO3 HCO3- + H+
If blood pH begins to increase above normal levels, how will this chemical buffer system respond to maintain homeostasis?
H2CO3 will dissociate, releasing H+ into the blood plasma.
109
H2CO3 HCO3- + H+
| H2CO3 is a chemical species that is described as a __________.
weak acid
110
H2CO3 HCO3- + H+
| Which chemical equation represents how this buffer system will respond to a decrease in blood pH?
H2CO3 (backwards arrow) HCO3- + H+
111
Name TWO specific cartilages that compose the larynx:
cuneiform cartilage & epiglottis
112
The pressure allows the alveoli to remain open and prevents the lungs from collapsing.
transpulmonary
113
A. The specific nephrons composed of an extensive loop of Henle that provide an increase in water reabsorption are nephrons.
juxtamedullary
114
B. Name one specific SOLUTE that is filtered via the glomerulus of the nephron:
glucose
115
A. Name one specific SOLUTE that is actively reabsorbed from the filtrate via the proximal convoluted tubule:
glucose
116
B. Name one specific SOLUTE that is passively reabsorbed from the filtrate via the distal convoluted tubule:
calcium ions
117
The most abundant cations in the extracellular fluid are _____ ions, whereas ______ ions are the cations in highest concentration in the intracellular fluid.
sodium & potassium
118
A. Name the specific hormone that is chemically similar to aldosterone and causes sodium-ion reabsorption:
estrogens
119
B. Calcium-ion homeostasis is maintained by a specific hormone known as
parathyroid hormone
120
Hydrogen-ion concentration of the blood decreases as carbon dioxide is removed from the blood.
True
121
The trachea and bronchi are structures of the respiratory zone in the respiratory system.
False
122
Smoking inhibits the action of cilia and may destroy the elastic fibers of the lungs.
True
123
Chloride ions help maintain the osmotic pressure of the intracellular fluid.
False
124
The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus.
True
125
Urination involves a spinal reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the walls of the bladder.
True
126
When organic molecules are consumed, what process will catabolize these substances via enzymatic reations
Chemical digestion
127
All of the statements about saliva are true, EXCEPT:
Protein catabolism begins in the mouth due to enzymes present in saliva.
128
Which enzyme is specific for triglyceride digestion?
lingual lipase
129
Which statement is FALSE regarding the small intestine?
The enzymes secreted by the small intestine function to convert chyme into feces.
130
What stage of deglutition involves relaxation of the UES to allow the food bolus to enter the esophagus?
pharyngeal stage
131
The ability of sperm cells to move through the ductus (vas) deferens is due to __________.
peristaltic contractions
132
Which hormone controls the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary?
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
133
The structure that immediately receives the ovulated oocyte and provides a site for fertilization is the __________.
uterine tube
134
How are human egg and sperm similar?
Egg and sperm have the same number of chromosomes.
135
Characteristics of the mature sperm include the __________.
presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm
136
Secretion of progesterone stimulates __________.
preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
137
What event occurs during the postovulatory phase of the female reproductive cycle?
Progesterone levels rise due to development of the corpus luteum.
138
Which statement BEST describes spermatogenesis?
It involves meiosis, which forms spermatids from spermatogonia.
139
Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?
luteinizing hormone (LH)
140
Which statement is TRUE about testosterone control?
GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
141
What cells function to support and protect developing sperm cells?
Sertoli cells
142
What tissue layer of the uterus functions to contract during childbirth to expel the fetus from the body?
myometrium
143
The term metabolism is BEST defined as __________.
biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
144
The primary function of cellular respiration is to __________.
break down food molecules and generate ATP
145
Which hormone causes glucose to enter tissue cells during the absorptive state of metabolism?
insulin
146
Leads to the development of a morula and then a blastocyst
Cleavage
147
Embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium
Implantation
148
Leads to the formation of the first cell of the new individual
Fertilization
149
Leads to the establishment of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm in the embryo
Gastrulation
150
Enhances sperm motility and increases membrane fragility to allow enzyme release from acrosomes
Capacitation
151
Proteases and acrosin are enzymes. How do they function in reproduction?
They act to break down the protective barriers around the egg, allowing the sperm to penetrate.
152
What specific substances can be exchanged between the mother and fetus via the placenta?
nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol
153
Which statement BEST describes meiosis?
Meiosis is the process of reducing chromosome number in a diploid cell to form sex cells.
154
The __________ are the allelic combinations that code for specific __________, which are the visible physical characteristics of the individual.
genotypes; phenotypes
155
What occurs during meiosis that results in genetically-different egg and sperm?
Genetic recombination
156
Human gametes have _____ chromosomes, which is described as a __________ number of chromosomes.
23; haploid
157
Amy expresses the genotype Bb, which codes for her hair color. Her genotype is considered a __________ trait.
heterozygous dominant
