Lecture exam flashcards

1
Q

The ability of a specific target cell to respond to a hormone is dependent on __________.

A

the specific extracellular or intracellular receptor that binds to the hormone

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2
Q

What specific molecules are secreted by cells and function to alter or regulate target-cell metabolism?

A

Hormones

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3
Q

Most amino acid-based hormones exert their effects on target cells through the activation of intracellular __________.

A

second messengers, like cyclic AMP

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT involved in stimulating the release of hormones from endocrine glands?

A

The action of one hormone opposing the effect of another hormone on the surface of a target cell.

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects target-cell activation following hormone-receptor interaction?

A

Synthesis of regulatory molecules within the target cell

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6
Q

Steroid hormones alter target-cell activity by __________.

A

binding to hormone response elements on chromatin to initiate protein synthesis via gene expression

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7
Q

Why do hormones cause an amplification effect on target cells, causing them to elicit multiple metabolic responses?

A

This occurs because activated protein kinases catalyze many reactions, which phosphorylate many molecules.

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8
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a water-soluble hormone. Which statement BEST describes how TSH causes target-cell activation?

A

TSH indirectly activates G-proteins, causing the synthesis of intracellular second messengers.

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9
Q

Human blood includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

A

Interstitial fluid

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10
Q

Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?

A

Maintaining pH balance of body fluids

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11
Q

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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12
Q

Erythrocytes can be described by all of the following EXCEPT:

A

They can easily replicate themselves in the blood supply.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

A

Preventing blood loss from damaged vessels

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14
Q

What are the fragments of megakaryocytes that function in hemostasis?

A

Thrombocytes

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15
Q

A platelet plug forms when __________.

A

thrombocytes release chemicals causing them to aggregate at the site of damage on a blood vessel

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16
Q

Which statement is FALSE about monocytes and neutrophils?

A

They are granulocytes produced via hemopoiesis.

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17
Q

Which sequence correctly identifies the order of events necessary for blood coagulation?

A

Formation of prothrombinase –> Prothrombin converts to thrombin –> Fibrinogen converts to fibrin

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18
Q

All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT:

A

Delivering respiratory gases to the body cells

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19
Q

Which statement BEST describes lymph transport in the lymphatic system?

A

Chyle is a specific type of lymph that transports digested fats.

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20
Q

Which statement is TRUE about lymphatic cells and lymphatic tissue?

A

Every immunocompetent T cell and B cell responds to a specific antigen, which is why self-tolerance is important in their maturation.

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21
Q

Which lymphatic structure is NOT composed of reticular connective tissue?

A

Thymus

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22
Q

Antibodies that respond to viruses and toxins are synthesized and released by __________.

A

plasma cells

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23
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding differences between lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries?

A

Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries due to their flap-like minivalves.

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24
Q

How does age affect the size of the thymus?

A

The thymus increases in size after birth, then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.

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25
Q

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph directly into the venous blood of the left subclavian vein?

A

Thoracic duct

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26
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the spleen?

A

The spleen traps bacteria in crypts, which are invaginations in the splenic tissue.

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27
Q

The MOST abundant formed elements in the blood are, whereas are the LEAST abundant formed elements in the blood.

A

erythrocyte & basophils

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28
Q

Name one specific steroid hormone:

A

estrogen

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29
Q

Name one specific eicosanoid:

A

leukotrienes

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30
Q

The specific plasma protein involved in the final phase of blood coagulation is.

A

fibinogen

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31
Q

During B cell activation, antibodies are synthesized and secreted from , and destroy the antigens marked by antibodies.

A

plasma cells

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32
Q

One specific lymphatic structure located in the pharynx of the oral cavity is the.

A

palatine tonsil

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33
Q

Blood coagulation is one example of hemopoiesis

A

False

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34
Q

Lymph forms from interstitial fluid surrounding the lymphatic capillaries.

A

True

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35
Q

Type O- blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens on the surfaces of the erythrocytes

A

True

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36
Q

Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone exhibit a synergistic effect at their target cells

A

False

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37
Q

Each erythrocyte can carry up to four molecules of oxygen.

A

False

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38
Q

What is the tough, superficial layer of the pericardium that helps prevent overstretching of the myocardium?

A

fibrous pericardium

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39
Q

The __________ function(s) to reduce friction between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium.

A

pericardial fluid

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40
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the myocardium of the heart wall?

A

The myocardium is innervated by autonomic neurons, which control heart contractions and heart rate.

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41
Q

Which event does NOT occur when the semilunar (SL) valves are open?

A

Ventricles are in diastole, and atria are in systole.

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42
Q

Veins of the coronary circulation can be described by all of the following EXCEPT:

A

These vessels carry oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart.

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43
Q

The myocardial thickness of the left ventricle is necessary in order to __________.

A

pump blood into the aorta with greater force and pressure

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44
Q

When is the tricuspid valve (right AV valve) closed?

A

during ventricular systole

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45
Q

Deoxygenated blood pumped from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk will enter the __________.

A

pulmonary circulation

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46
Q

Which statement BEST describes a unique characteristic of autorhythmic fibers?

A

These cells have gap junctions that allow them to act as a functional syncytium.

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47
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding arteries?

A

Elastic arteries function under high blood pressure to stretch rapidly as blood leaves the heart.

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48
Q

Which statement BEST describes the tunica externa (tunica adventitia) of a vein?

A

The tunica externa is the thickest layer of the venous wall composed of collagen and elastic fibers.

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49
Q

What process involves the passive movement of oxygen molecules down a concentration gradient out of the blood?

A

Diffusion

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50
Q

All of the following factors affect blood flow EXCEPT:

A

a decrease in arterial pressure caused by atrial diastole

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51
Q

Which statement correctly identifies one structural difference between arteries and veins?

A

Arterial walls are composed of a thick layer of smooth muscle fibers, whereas venous walls are not.

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52
Q

Located in the kidneys, __________ are microscopic blood vessels with small pores through their endothelial walls.

A

fenestrated capillaries

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53
Q

Which statement BEST describes blood flow?

A

Blood flow through the entire systemic circulation is equivalent to cardiac output.

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54
Q

Which tunic of arterial walls has the greatest effect on blood flow and blood pressure?

A

Tunica media

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55
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding capillary blood pressure?

A

Capillary blood pressure constantly fluctuates due to ventricular systole.

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56
Q

How is pulse pressure calculated?

A

Systolic pressure minus Diastolic pressure

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57
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the effect of vascular resistance?

A

Vascular resistance increases as blood viscosity increases.

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58
Q

Which statement BEST describes the process of filtration across capillary walls?

A

Filtration involves a positive pressure difference between the hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure.

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59
Q

The blood vessels that deliver blood directly into capillary beds are called __________.

A

arterioles

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60
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding systemic blood pressure?

A

An increase in erythrocyte production may cause an increase blood pressure.

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61
Q

All of the following factors aid in the venous return of blood EXCEPT:

A

smooth surface of the endothelium

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62
Q

__________ circulation functions to drain deoxygenated blood from the digestive viscera into the liver.

A

Hepatic portal

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63
Q

What number indicates ventricular systole?

A

5

64
Q

Which statement BEST describes the events occurring during wave labeled 3?

A

The ventricular myocardium repolarizes during the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle.

65
Q

What specific cardiac muscle fibers are active during the wave labeled 2?

A

Right and left bundle branches in the interventricular septum

66
Q

What is occurring during the interval labeled 4?

A

Atrial depolarization and atrial systole

67
Q

Cardiac output is dependent upon two factors, which include:

A

stroke volume- volume of blood ejected by the ventricles during each heart contraction
Heart rate- total number of heart contractions per minute

68
Q

An __________ is a graphic record of the electrical activity involved in heart contraction.

A

electrocardiogram

69
Q

Name ONE specific elastic artery of the body.

A

aorta

70
Q

Identify the specific pressure that moves/propels blood into tissues.

A

mean arterial pressure

71
Q

Does blood pressure increase or decrease as blood moves away from the heart?

A

decrease

72
Q

The AV valves and SL valves compose the fibrous skeleton of the heart.

A

True

73
Q

Blood flow increases as vascular resistance increases.

A

False

74
Q

Contractility refers how much the myocardium will stretch before it contracts.

A

False

75
Q

Elevating cardiac output for at least 20 minutes is necessary to strengthen cardiac muscle tissue.

A

True

76
Q

Trabeculae carneae are bundles of cardiac muscle fibers found on the internal surfaces of the atria.

A

False

77
Q

Which process is NOT a function of the respiratory system

A

Transport of respiratory gases in blood plasma

78
Q

The walls of the alveoli are composed of type I and type II cells. What is the function of the type II cells?

A

Type II cells function to produce and secrete surfactant.

79
Q

During inhalation, air enters the lungs as lung volume increases. Why does air move into the lungs?

A

Inhalation causes intrapulmonary pressure to be less than atmospheric pressure.

80
Q

Although exhalation is a passive process, it depends on two factors. What two factors govern exhalation?

A

Recoil action of elastic fibers in the lungs and surface tension caused by attraction of alveolar-fluid molecules

81
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure is the __________.

A

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

82
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by __________.

A

decreasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid by interfering with the attraction of water molecules

83
Q

Which factor governs the exchange of gases during external respiration?

A

Partial pressure gradients of oxygen and carbon dioxide

84
Q

How is oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged across the respiratory membrane and cell-membrane surfaces?

A

Diffusion

85
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the pharynx?

A

The nasopharynx functions to receive air from the Eustachian tube to equalize air pressure in the middle ear.

86
Q

Which structures provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange in the lungs?

A

Alveoli

87
Q

What structures compose the respiratory membranes located in the lungs?

A

Simple squamous epithelium of alveoli and endothelium of capillary walls

88
Q

What factors are responsible for creating the force that allows the lungs to remain open and close to the thoracic wall?

A

Surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative intrapleural pressure

89
Q

Inhaled particulate matter, such as dust, is trapped via the __________, which prevents its entry into the lungs.

A

mucus secreted by the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

90
Q

Which process is NOT a function of the kidneys and urinary system?

A

Eliminates carbon dioxide and solid, undigested waste products from the body

91
Q

Identify the correct pathway of filtrate and urine flow through the urinary system.

A

Nephron –> Renal pelvis –> Ureter –> Urinary bladder

92
Q

Water permeability and water reabsorption via the cells of the collecting duct are due to a(n) __________.

A

increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

93
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the tissue layers surrounding the kidneys?

A

The renal capsule is composed of loose connective tissue.

94
Q

Glomerular filtration is governed by __________, which pushes solutes and water across the filtration membrane.

A

net filtration pressure

95
Q

The filtration membrane, located in the renal corpuscle, includes all of the structures EXCEPT:

A

Parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule

96
Q

Water reabsorption by the cells of the loop of Henle occurs via __________.

A

osmosis

97
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding ion reabsorption by the cells of the collecting duct?

A

Aldosterone governs the reabsorption of sodium ions at the level of the collecting duct.

98
Q

What would be the effect on filtration rate if the capsular hydrostatic pressure increased above normal?

A

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure would decrease, which would decrease the filtration rate.

99
Q

Excretion of dilute urine requires __________.

A

impermeability of the collecting duct to water

100
Q

Which process does NOT describe the importance of tubular secretion?

A

Reabsorbing metabolites of drugs

101
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding tubular reabsorption

A

Water reabsorption is passive in the proximal convoluted tubule.

102
Q

Which hormone is important in the regulation of sodium-ion concentration in the extracellular fluid?

A

Aldosterone

103
Q

What action is caused by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?

A

ANP decreases blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water reabsorption.

104
Q

The most important factor influencing potassium-ion secretion is __________.

A

potassium-ion concentration in blood plasma

105
Q

Which hormone is important in water reabsorption during dehydration?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

106
Q

One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is __________.

A

a rise in blood plasma osmolality

107
Q

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

What specific chemical buffer system is shown above?

A

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

108
Q

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+
If blood pH begins to increase above normal levels, how will this chemical buffer system respond to maintain homeostasis?

A

H2CO3 will dissociate, releasing H+ into the blood plasma.

109
Q

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

H2CO3 is a chemical species that is described as a __________.

A

weak acid

110
Q

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

Which chemical equation represents how this buffer system will respond to a decrease in blood pH?

A

H2CO3 (backwards arrow) HCO3- + H+

111
Q

Name TWO specific cartilages that compose the larynx:

A

cuneiform cartilage & epiglottis

112
Q

The pressure allows the alveoli to remain open and prevents the lungs from collapsing.

A

transpulmonary

113
Q

A. The specific nephrons composed of an extensive loop of Henle that provide an increase in water reabsorption are nephrons.

A

juxtamedullary

114
Q

B. Name one specific SOLUTE that is filtered via the glomerulus of the nephron:

A

glucose

115
Q

A. Name one specific SOLUTE that is actively reabsorbed from the filtrate via the proximal convoluted tubule:

A

glucose

116
Q

B. Name one specific SOLUTE that is passively reabsorbed from the filtrate via the distal convoluted tubule:

A

calcium ions

117
Q

The most abundant cations in the extracellular fluid are _____ ions, whereas ______ ions are the cations in highest concentration in the intracellular fluid.

A

sodium & potassium

118
Q

A. Name the specific hormone that is chemically similar to aldosterone and causes sodium-ion reabsorption:

A

estrogens

119
Q

B. Calcium-ion homeostasis is maintained by a specific hormone known as

A

parathyroid hormone

120
Q

Hydrogen-ion concentration of the blood decreases as carbon dioxide is removed from the blood.

A

True

121
Q

The trachea and bronchi are structures of the respiratory zone in the respiratory system.

A

False

122
Q

Smoking inhibits the action of cilia and may destroy the elastic fibers of the lungs.

A

True

123
Q

Chloride ions help maintain the osmotic pressure of the intracellular fluid.

A

False

124
Q

The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus.

A

True

125
Q

Urination involves a spinal reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the walls of the bladder.

A

True

126
Q

When organic molecules are consumed, what process will catabolize these substances via enzymatic reations

A

Chemical digestion

127
Q

All of the statements about saliva are true, EXCEPT:

A

Protein catabolism begins in the mouth due to enzymes present in saliva.

128
Q

Which enzyme is specific for triglyceride digestion?

A

lingual lipase

129
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the small intestine?

A

The enzymes secreted by the small intestine function to convert chyme into feces.

130
Q

What stage of deglutition involves relaxation of the UES to allow the food bolus to enter the esophagus?

A

pharyngeal stage

131
Q

The ability of sperm cells to move through the ductus (vas) deferens is due to __________.

A

peristaltic contractions

132
Q

Which hormone controls the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

133
Q

The structure that immediately receives the ovulated oocyte and provides a site for fertilization is the __________.

A

uterine tube

134
Q

How are human egg and sperm similar?

A

Egg and sperm have the same number of chromosomes.

135
Q

Characteristics of the mature sperm include the __________.

A

presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm

136
Q

Secretion of progesterone stimulates __________.

A

preparation of the mammary glands for lactation

137
Q

What event occurs during the postovulatory phase of the female reproductive cycle?

A

Progesterone levels rise due to development of the corpus luteum.

138
Q

Which statement BEST describes spermatogenesis?

A

It involves meiosis, which forms spermatids from spermatogonia.

139
Q

Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?

A

luteinizing hormone (LH)

140
Q

Which statement is TRUE about testosterone control?

A

GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

141
Q

What cells function to support and protect developing sperm cells?

A

Sertoli cells

142
Q

What tissue layer of the uterus functions to contract during childbirth to expel the fetus from the body?

A

myometrium

143
Q

The term metabolism is BEST defined as __________.

A

biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

144
Q

The primary function of cellular respiration is to __________.

A

break down food molecules and generate ATP

145
Q

Which hormone causes glucose to enter tissue cells during the absorptive state of metabolism?

A

insulin

146
Q

Leads to the development of a morula and then a blastocyst

A

Cleavage

147
Q

Embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium

A

Implantation

148
Q

Leads to the formation of the first cell of the new individual

A

Fertilization

149
Q

Leads to the establishment of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm in the embryo

A

Gastrulation

150
Q

Enhances sperm motility and increases membrane fragility to allow enzyme release from acrosomes

A

Capacitation

151
Q

Proteases and acrosin are enzymes. How do they function in reproduction?

A

They act to break down the protective barriers around the egg, allowing the sperm to penetrate.

152
Q

What specific substances can be exchanged between the mother and fetus via the placenta?

A

nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

153
Q

Which statement BEST describes meiosis?

A

Meiosis is the process of reducing chromosome number in a diploid cell to form sex cells.

154
Q

The __________ are the allelic combinations that code for specific __________, which are the visible physical characteristics of the individual.

A

genotypes; phenotypes

155
Q

What occurs during meiosis that results in genetically-different egg and sperm?

A

Genetic recombination

156
Q

Human gametes have _____ chromosomes, which is described as a __________ number of chromosomes.

A

23; haploid

157
Q

Amy expresses the genotype Bb, which codes for her hair color. Her genotype is considered a __________ trait.

A

heterozygous dominant