Lecture Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Mutualism

A

A reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners

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2
Q

What’s an example of a mutalistic relationship?

A

Buchnera sphidicola and aphids

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3
Q

Buchnera aphidicola

A
  • Gram negative
  • 617 kb genome
  • Lives in the aphid
  • Inside aphid cells -> bacteriocytes (mycetocyte)
  • Transmitted vertically from mother to daughter
  • Obligate mutualists
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4
Q

What does the aphid do for Buchnera?

A

The two have evolved together for millions of year
- ~75% of the Buchnera genome has been lost
- Asphid provides Buchnera with amino acids that Buchnera cannot make

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5
Q

What does Buchnera do for the aphid?

A

“gnotobiotic” aphids (gnotobiotics = germ free)
- Grow normally provided a diet supplemented with amino acids
- Aphids cannot make Trp. Buchnera must synthesize & provide Trp for the aphid

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6
Q

For the Trp operon what does it mean if there are low tryprophan levels?

A

transcription of the entire trp operon occurs

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7
Q

What happens to the trp operon if there are high tryptophan levels?

A

Repression occurs
- tryptophan binds, corepressor-repressor form active complex
- corepressor-repressor bind to operator and block transcription

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8
Q

Attenuation

A

Attenuation (in genetics) is a proposed mechanism of control in some bacterial operons which results in premature termination of transcription and which is based on the fact that, in bacteria, transcription and translation proceed simultaneously

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9
Q

Attenuation

What happens if Region 2 of the RNA pairs with Region 3 of the RNA?

A
  • Nonterminating stem loop
  • Transcription continues

thisis when trp is low so regions 2 and 3 on RNA will form together and create a raodblock so the ribosome is stuck on the operon and trascribes a ton of trp

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10
Q

Attenuation

What happens if Region 3 of the RNA pairs with Region 4 of the RNA?

A
  • Terminating stem loop forms
  • Transcription terminates

when there is enough Trp, the 2-3 roadblock is removed and the 3-4 pairing is formed, allowing the ribosome to move forward past the operon and hit the termination.

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11
Q

Cooperation

A

A reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners

canbe interspecific - btw two of the same species

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12
Q

Commensalism

A

one symbiont (the commensal) benefits while the other (host) isn’t harmed or helped

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13
Q

Example of commensalism

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis
- commonly found growing on skin
- Consumes human waste (oils, water, salts, dead skin cells) while normally having no impact on human health

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14
Q

Predation

A

one organism preys on another

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15
Q

Example of predation

A

Bdellovibrio
* Gram negative bacteria that preys on other Gram negative bacteria
* Enters the prey’s periplasmic space and feeds on the cytoplasmic contents

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16
Q

Parasitism

A

the parasite benefits while the host is usually harmed. Does not want to kill the host.

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17
Q

Amensalism

A

The adverse effect that one organism has on another
- unidirectional

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18
Q

Example of amensalism

A

*Streptomuces spp. *(penicillin)
* Produces many different antibiotics
* therefore they are studied heavily in the hunt for novel therapeutics

lots of this occurs in our gut

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19
Q

Competition

A

Two organisms try to acquire the same recource (location or nutrient)
* One outcompetes the other for the site’s resources
* Both coexist at lower levels, becuase they share the limiting resource

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20
Q

How many organisms make up the human microbiota?

A
  • The human body contains ~10^13 human cells and ~ten times more microbial cells
  • the mouth has 10^10 so .01% total
  • the small and large intestine have 10^14 so 99% total
  • the skin has 10^12 so 1% total
  • the stomach has the least microbes becuase the stomach is highly acidic
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21
Q

Biofilm

A
  • Biofilm: slime-encased aggregation of bacteria
  • Composed of polysaccharide, protein, and extracellular DNA
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22
Q

*Staphylococcus aureus *biofilm formation

A
  • Attachment, Multiplication, Exodus, Maturation
  • Cells attach to a surface
  • The cells multiply to a confluent “lawn” of cells on the surface
  • An “exodus” phase occurs and some cells leave
  • Biofilm then matures into towers of cells
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23
Q

Human microbiota

A

Not only provides nutrients for the host
- the human microbiota also protects teh body from invasion of harmful bacteria

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24
Q

Pathogen

A

any disease producing microorganism

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25
Q

C. difficile

A
  • Gram (+), spore-forming anaerobe
  • colonizes and infects people who have been treated with antibiotics
  • Large problem in hospital and healthcare
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26
Q

Spore peptiodoglycan makeup

A

Composed of 2 layers
* A small inner layer of peptidoglycan that will make up the new cell wall upon germination
* A large layer of specialized peptidoglycan (cortex)
- Composed of NAG & NAM and nuramic-delta-lactam
- Not as highly crosslonked as call wall pepridoglycan

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27
Q

Stages of germination of spores

takes 30 min

A

Stage 1: Ca^2+ -DPA release Partial Core Rehydration. Some loss of resistance
(Grey)
Stage 2: Cortex Hydrolysis. Further Core Hydration. Loss of Dormancy.
(Black)
Outgrowth: Metabolism. Escape from spore coats
Nutrient limiation
(White)

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28
Q

C. difficile treatment options

A

Current Therapy
* Vancomycin
* Difficid (Fidaxomicin)
* Zinplava (bezlotoxumab)

Alternate Therapies
* Toxiod Vaccine (failed Phase III clinical trial)
* Probiotics (hit or miss)
* Recal Replacement (very cuccessful)

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29
Q

The spleen

A
  • Most highly organized lymphoid organ
  • FIlters blood
  • Macrophages and dendritic cells trap microbes and antigens
    • Present antigens to B and T cells
    • Most common way that lymphocytes become activated to carry out their immune functions
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30
Q

Lymph nodes

A
  • Most highly organized lymphoid tissue
  • Filter lymph
  • Microbes and antigens trapped and phagocytosed by macrophages and dendritic cells
  • B cells differentiate into memory and plasms cells within lymph nodes
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31
Q

Nonspecific immune response

also called nonspecific resistance, innate immunity and natural immunity

A
  • Acts as a first line of defense
  • Offers resistance to any microbe or foreign material
  • lacks immunological memory (does not evolve)
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31
Q

Specific Immune Response

aka acquired immunity, adaptive immunity, and specific immunity

A
  • resistance to a particular foreign agent (adaptive to specific antigen)
  • has “memory”: effectiveness increases on repeated exposure to agent

Specific and non specific immune response work together

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32
Q

Antimicrobial peptides

Cationic Peptides, what are the 3 classes? based on biological activity related to ability to damage bacterial plasma membranes

A

First class: linear, alpha-helical peptides that lack cysteine amino acid residues. (e.g., cathelicidin, produced by a variety of cells)

Second Class: defensins. Peptides that are open-ended, rich in arginine and cysteins, and disulfide linked. Found in neutrophils, intestial Paneth cells and intestinal and respiratory epithelial cells.

Third Class: larger peptides that are enriched for specific amino acids and exhibit regular structural repeats. (e.g., histatin, present in human salivia and has anti-fungal activity)

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33
Q

Cathelicidin (LL-37)

A

defense mechanism against bacterial, viral, or fungi infection of eukaryotic organisms

Broad spectru, activity
- Bacteria, Fungi, parasites

curved amphipathic helix-bend-helix

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34
Q

Bacteriocins

A
  • peptides produced by normal microbiota
  • lethal to related species
  • produced by Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells
  • e.g., colicins produced by E. coli
  • e.g., lantibiotics produced by Gram-positive bacteria
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35
Q

Mucous Membranes

A
  • Lysozyme- a muramidase
  • cleaves or hydrolizes the B-1,4 brong between NAG and NAM
  • Lactoferrin- sequesters iron (soaks up excess iron)
  • Iron is required for growth
  • can kill by another mechanisms - fenton rxn
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36
Q

complement

>30 serum proteins involved

A
  • facilitates phagocytosis through opsonization
  • bridges innate and adaptive immune system
  • disposes of waste- dead cells and inflammatory products
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37
Q

opsonin

A

increases the efficiency of phagocytosis

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38
Q

Cytokines

A
  • soluble proteins or glugoproteins that are released by one cell population that act as intercellular mediators or signaling molecules
  • four families: chemokines, hematopoietins, interleukins, tumor necrosis faction (TNF) family
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39
Q

Granulocytes

A
  • irregularly-shaped nuclei with two to five lobes
  • cytoplasm has granules with reactive substances
    • kill microbes, enhance inflammation
  • three types: basophils, eosinophils, enutrophils (polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN))
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40
Q

Macrophages

A
  • larger than monocytes, reside in specific tissues, highly phagocytic
  • have a variety of surface receptors including (pattern recognition receptors)
  • recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
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41
Q

Dendritic cells

A
  • heterogeneous group of cells with neuron-like appendages
  • present in small numbers in blood, skin, and mucous membranes of nose, lungs, and intestines
    • also express pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
    • Main Goal: Phagocytosis and antigen processing -> display foreign antigens on their surfaces (antigen presentation) (present to T & B- cells)
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42
Q

Neutrophils

A
  • have ability to explode and release contents
  • extracellular traps
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43
Q

Phagocytosis

A

process by which phagocytic cells (monocytes, tissue macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils) recognize ingest and kill extracellular micorbes

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44
Q

What are the two mechanisms for recognition of microbe by phagocyte?

A

-opsonin-independent (nonopsonic) recognition
-opsonin-dependent (opsonic) recognition

-phagocytosis can be greatly increased by opsonization

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45
Q

Opsonin-independant mechanism

pathogen recognition

A
  • common pathogen components are non-specifically recognized to activate phagocytes
  • singaling mechanism involved
  • involves nonspecific and specific receptors on phagocytic cells
  • four main forms
    • recognition by lectin-carbohydrate interactions
    • recognition by protein-protein interactions
    • recognition by hydrophobic interaction
    • detection of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) by pattern recognition receptors (PRRs, e.g., toll-like receptors)
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46
Q

Opsonin-dependent mechanism

pathogen recognition

A

opsonized pathogens are recognized by the minding of opsonins to the phagocyte

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47
Q

Antigen

A
  • self & nonself substances that elicit an immune response and react with the products of that response
  • Antibody generators
  • antigens are recognized as foreign
    • Autoimmune disease: “self” recognized as foreign, elements of “self” become antigens
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48
Q

Epitope

A

regions/sites of the antigen that bind to a specific antibody or T-cell receptor

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49
Q

two types of aquired immunity

A

natural immunity and arificial immunity

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50
Q

Natural immunity, definition and the two types

A

Natural Immunity: is aquired through the noraml life experiences of a human and is not induced through medical means

Activite Immunity: is the consequence of a person developing his or her own immune response to a microbe (infection)

Passive immunity: is the consequence of one person receiving preformed immunity made by another person (maternal antibody- breast milk)

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51
Q

Artifiical immunity definition and two types

A

Arificial immunity: is that produced purposefully through medical procedures (also called immunization)

Active immunity: is the consequence of a perosn developing his or her own immune response to a microbe (vaccination)

Passive immunity: is the consequence of one perosn receiving preformed immunity made by another person (immune globulin therapy)

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52
Q

Antigens induce immune responses

A

Presence of antigen results in B cell activation and the production of antibodies
* antibodies bind to specific antigens, inactivating or eliminating them
* other immune cells also become activated

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53
Q

T-Cell Biology

A
  • major players in cell-mediated immune response
  • originate from CD34+ stem cells in the bone marrow but mature in thymus
  • have major role in B cell activation
  • immunologically specific and function in a variety of regulatory and effector ways
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54
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

where is each class found?

A

Class I: found on all nucleated cells
Class II: Found on cells that process nonself materials. (Macrophages, dentritic cells etc)
Class III: Secreted products that have immune functions

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55
Q

What does MHC Class I do?

A

presents endogenously-derived antigens to cytotoxic T-cells

56
Q

MHC Class II
What is it produced by? What does it do?

A
  • Produced by: Macrophages, Dendritic cells, B cells, T cells
  • Required for T cell communication
  • Present exogenously-derived antigens
57
Q

Types of T cells

A
  • mature T cells are naive until they are activated by antigen presentation
  • once activated they proliferate into effector cells and memory cells
    • effector cells carry out specific function to protect host
    • three types: T helper, cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), an regulatory T cells
58
Q

T-Helper Cells (TH Cells)

A
  • Activated by antigens presented on MHC Class II
  • 5 Types
    • TH0 - undifferentiated precursor of 1, 2 & 17
    • TH1 - promote CTL activity, mediate inflammation
    • TH2 - stimulate antibody responses
    • TH17 - found mainly in the skin/ epithelium
      • respond to bacterial invaders
    • T reg - recognize self antigens
      • secrete IL-10to inhibit TH 1& 2 mediated inflammation
59
Q

Cytotoxic T Cells

Naive CD8+ T-cells

A
  • Expresses an antigen-specific T-cell receptor
  • Mature into CTL upon antigen recognition (MHC Class I)
    • kill the infected cell by the preforin pathway and Fas-FasL Pathway
60
Q

T Cell Activation

A

requires binding a specific antigen
* occurs through antigen presentation which bridges MHC class II of the APC to the TCR of the T cell
* initiates a signaling cascade which involves other membrane-bound proteins and intracellular messengers
* a second signal is required for lymphocyte proliferation, differentiation, and expression of specific cytokine genes also occur
- if no 2nd signal, T cell becomes anergic (doesn’t respond to the specific antigen - becomes tolerant)

61
Q

Superantigens
How do they differ to normal antigens?

A
  • Stimulate stronger immune response than normal antigens by “trickling” T cells into activation although they have not been triggered by a specific antigen
  • Stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically
62
Q

What do super antigens stimulate the release of?

A

stimulate release of massive quantities of cytokines form T cells. May result in circulatory shock and multiorgan failure. Examples such as staphlyococcal enterotoxin B that can cause good poisoning and toxic shock syndrome.

63
Q

B-Cells

A
  • antibody producing cells
  • must be activated by an antigen binding the B-cell recepor
    • Transmembrane antibodies
      • Are specific for 1 antigen
      • upon binding, signals to the B-cell nucleus
  • Normally require TH to differentiate into antibody secreting cells
64
Q

Antibodies

A
  • found in blood serum, tissue fluids, and mucosal surfaces of vertebrate animals
  • an antibody can recognize and bind antigen that caused its production
  • 5 classes: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE
65
Q

Class Switching

A
  • IgM is the first antibody to be made
    • IgG then replaces IgM through class switching
    • Any antibody class switch is mediated through this process
  • antibody genes are split into many gene segments
66
Q

Splice-site variability

A

DUring splicing, the junction between the V and D and J segments can be changed
- this changes the codons
- resulting in an amino acid change

67
Q

Somatic hypermutation of V regions

A
  • Somatic hypermutation - a region of DNA that can have a high rate of induced mutaion (estimates are 10^5v- 10^6 fold greater than rest of the DNA). These mutations are only in the cell undergoing the mutation and not in the germline
  • V regions are susceptible to a high rate of somatic hypermutation
68
Q

Clonal selection

A

Remember - B-cells only make 1 antibody each
- during a response, there are many different -cells generated. Each expressing a separate anitbody

69
Q

how does Staphylococcus aureus Portein A brind?

A
  • virulence determinant
    • secreted and deposited on the S. aureus cell surface
  • specifically binds antibodies
  • binds the Fc region
70
Q

Epidemiology

A

science that evalulates occurence, determinats, distribution, and control of health and disease in a defined human population

71
Q

John Snow

studied Cholera

father of epidemiology

A

investivated cholera deaths in London
* interviewed families of deceased
* noticed they all had similar sympotoms
* identified that all of the deceased drank from the same water pump. Sewage pit has leaked fecal bacteria into the well.

72
Q

Endemic disease

A

a disease that maintains a steady, low-level at a moderately regular interval

(in a specific population or populated place when that infection is constantly present, or maintained at a baseline level, without extra infections being brought into the group as a result of travel or similar means

73
Q

Incidence

A

number of new cases

74
Q

outbreak

A

the sudden, unexpected occurrance of a disease

75
Q

Attack Rate

A

proportional number of cases that develop in a population exposed to the agent

76
Q

Epidemic

A

an outbreak affecting many people at once

77
Q

Index case

A

the first case in an epidemic

78
Q

Pandemic

A

an increase in disease occurence over a large area (worldwide)

79
Q

public surveillance

A
  • public health
  • use methodical approaches to identify a health problem
80
Q

Typhoid Mary

A

was a carried but has no symptoms (asymptamatic) but infected peopel with her cooking

81
Q

Typhoid fever in Philadelphia

How did they get the number of cases down?

A

implementing filtration of water which helped drop cases but even mroe casses dropped when chlorination of water began.

82
Q

Morbidity

A

Morbidity = number of **new **cases of a disease during a specified time / number of individals in the population

83
Q

Prevalence

A

Prevalence = **Total **number of cases in a population / total population

84
Q

Mortality

A

Mortality = Number of deaths due to the disease / size of the total population with the same disease

85
Q

common source epidemic

A

results form single common contaminated source such as food or water.
- such as food poisoning outbreaks
- cholera

86
Q

propagated epidemic

A

results from the introduction of a single infected individual into a susceptible population which is propagated to others
- person to person
- host to host
- influenza

87
Q

what can cause the susceptible population size to decrease after the introduction of an infected individual?

A

it can cross below the threshold density (from the graph) because people are gaining adaptive immunity or can be from a vaccine

88
Q

Heard Immunity

A
  • resistance of a population to infection and to spread of an infectious organism because of the immunity of a large percentage of the population
  • level can be altered by introduction of new susceptible individuals into population
  • level can be altered by changes in pathogen
  • antigenic shift: major change in antigenic character of pathogen
  • antigenic drift: smaller antigenic changes

Immunity: population resistent to the infection

89
Q

What disease has the lowest heard immunity? Highest?

A

Lowest: Influenza 29%
Highest: Measles and Pertussis 94%

90
Q

human reservoir

A
  • infected humans most significant reservoirs, primarily of communicable diseases
  • symptomatic infections: obvious source of infectious agents
  • asymptomatic carriers: individual harbors pathogen with no ill effects
91
Q

Non-human animal reservoirs

A

Disease transmitted by non-human animal reservoirs are termed zoonotic
- disease often more server in humans than in normal animal

92
Q

stread of an org

Direct contact

A
  • requires physical contact
  • hands are the primary source of contact
93
Q

stread of an org

Indirect contact

A

organism can live on a surface and then transfer to an individual

94
Q

spread of an org

Droplet

A
  • respiratory particles
  • not only transmit the organism freely but some lie within the small drops of liquid that come out
95
Q

How are infections tracked?

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
- monitors and tracks infections : hospitals and PCP’s resport directly to the CDC what infections they are seeing

96
Q

What are the three types of vaccines?

A
  • Whole-cell vaccines
    • inactivated
    • attenuated
  • subunit vaccines
  • DNA Vaccines
97
Q

What disease were vaccines first made for?

A

Polio by Jonas Salk and Albert Sabin

98
Q

Salk’s Vaccine

A
  • first effective vaccine against polio
  • is an** inactivated** polio vaccine (IPV)
    • Formalin inactivated
99
Q

Sabin’s Vaccine

A
  • Live attenuated vaccine
  • oral polio vaccine
100
Q

Acellular or Subunit Vaccines

A

the use of specific, purified macromolecules derived from pathogenic microbes help avoid some of the risks associated with whole-cell vaccines

101
Q

What are forms of subunit vaccines?

A
  • capsular polysaccharides
  • recombinant surface antigens
  • inactivated exotoxins (toxoids)
102
Q

Recombinant-Vector Vaccines

A
  • pathogen genes that encode major antigens inserted into nonvirulent viruses or bacteria which serve as vectors and express the inserted gene
  • released gene products (antigens) can elicit cellular and humoral immunity
103
Q

DNA Vaccines

A
  • DNA directly introduced into host cell via air pressure or gene gun
  • when injected into muscle cells, DNA taken into nucleus and pathogen’s DNA fragment is expressed
    • host immune system responds to foreign proteins produced
  • many DNA vaccine trials are currently being run
104
Q

RNA Vaccines

A

RNA is coated and injected into a patient. The RNA is traslanted in the cytoplasm to generate the required protein. Protein is expressed.

105
Q

Moderna Vaccine

COVID-19

A

Lipid-coated mRNA that fuses with host cells. The Pfizer-BioNTech is a similar mRNA Vaccine.

106
Q

Johnson & Johnson Covid 19 vaccine

A

Genetically-modified Adenoviral vector to deliver the antigen

covid vaccine

107
Q

AstraZeneca covid vaccine

A

Encodes the spike protein antigen

108
Q

Spuntnik V covid vaccine

A

Genetically-motified Adenoviral vector to deliver the antigen

109
Q

Adjuvants

A
  • An agent that stimulates the immune system to aid in immunization
  • Commonly combined with the vaccine antigen
  • Alum
110
Q

bioterrorism

A

intentional or threatened use of viruses, bacteria, fungi, or toxins from living organisms to produce death or disease in humans, animals, and plants

111
Q

Alexander Flemings discovory?

A
  • Discovered a bacteriolytic substance - Lysozyme
  • Found a halo of inhibition of Staphylocccus around a mold contaminant
  • observed penicillin activity on contaminated plate
112
Q

selective toxicity

A

ability of drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging host as little as possible

113
Q

therapeutic dose

A

drug level required for clinical treatment

114
Q

toxic dose

A

drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient (produces side effects)

115
Q

therapeutic index

A

ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose

116
Q

side effects

A

undesirable effects of drugs on host cells

117
Q

narrow-spectrum drugs

A

attack only a few different pathogens

118
Q

broad-spectrum drugs

A

attack many differnt pathogens

119
Q

cidal agent

A

kills microbes

120
Q

static agent

A

inhibits growth of microbes

121
Q

Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A

the lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular organism

122
Q

Minimal lethal concentration

A

the lowest concentration of a drug that kills the pathogen

123
Q

Dilution susceptibility test

A
  • drug is diluted in regular intervals (normally 2x)
  • mueller-hinton broth is normally used
124
Q

Kirby-Bauer method

A

Fresh bacteria are inoculated on a Myeller-Hilton plate. dried for 5 min and disks with antibiotic are added

125
Q

E-test

A
  • convenient for use with anaerobic pathogens
  • similar to disk diffusion method, but uses strip rather than disk
  • E-test strips containa gradient of an antibiotic
  • intersection of elliptical zone of inhibition with strips indicates MIC
126
Q

Antibiotics

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Vancomycins

127
Q

WHere is penicillin derived?

A

Derivatives of 6-aminopenicillanic acid. have as Beta-lactam ring

128
Q

Clavulanic Acid

A
  • B-lactamase inhibitor (enzyme that degrades Beta-lactam antibiotics)
  • similar looking to Beta- lactamin to fool
  • marketed with amoxicllin as “augmentin”
129
Q

Caphalosporins

A
  • orignially isolated form a fungus, Cephalosporium
  • contain Beta-lactam ring
  • 4 broad generations
130
Q

Vancomycin

A
  • Glycopeptide antibiotic
    • produced by Streptomyces orientalis
  • Binds to D-ala - D-ala
    • Inhibits transpeptidation
  • last resort drug
131
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor

Aminoglycodides

A
  • Diverse class of antibiotics
    • All contain: cyclohexane ring & amino sugars
  • Most synthesized by different species of Streptomyces
  • Bind to the 30S ribisomal subunit
  • Bacterocidal (Kill)
132
Q

3 common resistance mechanisms of Aminoglycoside

A
  1. Acetylation of an amino groups of the 30S subunits
  2. ATP-dependeent adenylation of a hydroxyl group
  3. ATP-dependent phosphorylation of a hyrodxyl group
133
Q

protein synthesis inhibitor

Tetracyclines

A
  • family with a common 4 ring structure
  • similar to aminoglycosides (they bind the 30S subunit)
  • Resistance Mechansims
    • Efflux: pumps out the drugs from cytoplasm
    • Ribosomal modification
    • Drug modification, so if cant bind to the subunit
  • Bacterostatic
134
Q

protein syntehsi inhibitor

Macrolides

A
  • 12-22 carbon lacton rings linked by one or more sugars
  • Erythromycin binds to the 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit
135
Q

metabolic inhibitors

Sulfanilamide

A
  • analog of p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
  • mutates by point mutation
136
Q

metabolic inhibitor

Trimethoprim

A
  • analog of dihydrofolic acid
  • mutation is point? mutation
137
Q

nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors

Quinolones

A

spontaneous mutation

  • Nalidixic acid
  • Norfloxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin