Lecture exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Components of the integumentary system

A

The integument consists of two distinct layers: a layer of stratified squamous epithelium called the epidermis, and a deeper layer of both areolar and dense irregular connective tissue called the dermis. Deep to the integument is a layer of areolar and adipose connective tissue called the subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis. The subcutaneous layer is not part of the integumentary system; however, it is described in this chapter because it is closely involved with both the structure and function of the skin.

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2
Q

Describe the structure, composition, arrangement, and functions of the five layers (strata) of the epidermis

A

The epidermis is organized into specific layers called strata. From deepest to most superficial, they are the stratum basale (deepest layer, with actively dividing keratinocytes), stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum (many layers of dead keratinocytes).
∙ Keratinization is the process by which keratinocytes fill up with the protein keratin, and as a result the cell dies. Keratinization begins in the stratum granulosum.
∙ Thick skin (palms of hands, soles of feet) has five epidermal strata, whereas thin skin (on the rest of the body) has four.
∙ Skin color is a result of hemoglobin in the blood vessels of the dermis, melanin pigment, and carotene pigment.

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3
Q

Stratum Basale

A

The deepest epidermal layer is the stratum basale, also known as the stratum germinativum, or basal layer. This single layer of cuboidal to low columnar cells is tightly attached by hemidesmosomes to an underlying basement membrane that separates the epidermis from the connective tissue of the dermis. Three types of cells occupy the stratum basale: keratinocytes, melanocytes, tactile cells

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4
Q

Keratinocytes

A

The most abundant cell type in the epidermis and are found throughout all epidermal strata. The stratum basale is dominated by large keratinocyte stem cells, which divide to generate new keratinocytes that replace dead keratinocytes shed from the surface. Keratin is one of a family of fibrous structural proteins that are both tough and insoluble. Fibrous keratin molecules can twist and intertwine around each other to form helical intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton. The keratin proteins found in keratinocytes are called cytokeratins. Their structure in these keratinocytes gives skin its strength and makes the epidermis water resistant.

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5
Q

Melanocytes

A

long, branching processes and are scattered among the keratinocytes of the stratum basale. They produce and store the pigment melanin in response to ultraviolet light exposure. Their cytoplasmic processes transfer melanin pigment within granules called melanosomes to the keratinocytes within the basal layer and sometimes in more superficial layers. This pigment (which includes the colors black, brown, tan, and yellow-brown) accumulates around the nucleus of the keratinocyte and shields the nuclear DNA from ultraviolet radiation. The darker tones of the skin result from melanin produced by the melanocytes. Thus, “tanning” is the result of the melanocytes producing melanin to block UV light from causing mutations in the DNA of your keratinocytes (in the epidermis)
and fibroblasts (in the dermis).

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6
Q

Tactile cells

A

Tactile cells, also called Merkel cells, are few in number
and found scattered among the cells within the stratum basale. Tactile cells are sensitive to touch and, when compressed, they release chemicals that stimulate sensory nerve endings, providing information about objects touching the skin.

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7
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A

Several layers of polygonal keratinocytes form the stratum spinosum, or spiny layer. Each time a keratinocyte stem cell in the stratum basale divides, a daughter cell is pushed toward the external surface from the stratum basale, while the other cell remains as a stem cell in the stratum basale. Once this new cell enters the stratum spinosum, it begins to differentiate into a nondividing, highly specialized keratinocyte. The keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum attach to their neighbors by many membrane junctions called desmosomes.
In addition to the keratinocytes, the stratum spinosum also contains the fourth epidermal cell type, called epidermal dendritic cells. Epidermal dendritic cells are immune cells that help fight infection in the epidermis. These immune cells are often present in the stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum, but they are not identifiable in standard histologic preparations. Their phagocytic activity initiates an immune response to protect the body against pathogens that have penetrated the superficial epidermal layers as well as epidermal cancer cells

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8
Q

Stratum Granulosum

A

The stratum granulosum, or granular layer, consists of three to five layers of keratinocytes superficial to the stratum spinosum. Within this stratum begins a process called keratinization, where the keratinocytes fill up with the protein keratin, and in so doing, cause both the cell’s nucleus and organelles to disintegrate and the keratinocyte dies. Keratinization is not complete until the keratinocytes reach the more superficial epidermal layers. A fully keratinized cell is dead, but it is structurally strong because of the keratin it contains.

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9
Q

Stratum Lucidum

A

The stratum lucidum, or clear layer, is a thin, translucent region of about two to three keratinocyte layers that is superficial to the stratum granulosum. This stratum is found only in the thick skin within the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Keratinocytes occupying this layer are flattened, pale cells with indistinct boundaries. They are filled with the translucent protein called eleidin, which is an intermediate product in the process of keratin maturation. This layer helps protect the skin from ultraviolet light.

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10
Q

Stratum Corneum

A

The stratum corneum, or hornlike layer, is the most superficial layer of the epidermis. It is the stratum you see when you look at your skin. The stratum corneum consists of about 20 to 30 layers of dead, scaly, interlocking, keratinized cells. The dead keratinocytes are anucleate (lacking a nucleus) and are tightly packed together.

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11
Q

Thick Skin Versus Thin Skin

A

Skin is classified as either thick or thin based on the number of epidermal strata and the relative thickness of the epidermis, rather than the thickness of the entire integument. Thick skin is found on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. All five epidermal strata occur in the thick skin. The epidermis of thick skin ranges between 0.4 mm and 0.6 mm thick. It houses sweat glands but has no hair follicles or sebaceous (oil) glands. Thin skin covers most of the body. It lacks a stratum lucidum, so it has only four specific layers in the epidermis. Thin skin contains the following structures: hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands. The epidermis of thin skin ranges from 0.075 mm to 0.150 mm thick.

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12
Q

Skin color

A

Normal skin color results from a combination of the colors of hemoglobin, melanin, and carotene. Hemoglobin is an oxygen-binding protein present in red blood cells. It exhibits a bright red color upon binding oxygen, thus giving blood vessels in the dermis a reddish tint that is seen most easily in lightly pigmented individuals. If the blood vessels in the superficial layers vasodilate (i.e., the blood vessel diameter increases), such as during physical exertion, then the red tones are much more visible.
Melanin is a pigment produced and stored in melanocytes (described earlier in this section), and it occurs in a variety of black, brown, tan, and yellow-brown shades. Recall that melanin is transferred in melanosomes from melanocytes to keratinocytes in the stratum basale. Because keratinocytes are displaced toward the stratum corneum, melanocyte activity affects the color of the entire epidermis.

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13
Q

Skin markings

A

A nevus, commonly called a mole, is a harmless, localized overgrowth of melanocytes. On rare occasions, a nevus may become malignant, typically as a consequence of excessive UV light exposure. Thus, nevi should be monitored for changes that may suggest malignancy. Freckles are yellowish or brown spots that represent localized areas of increased melanocyte activity, not an increase in melanocyte numbers. A freckle’s degree of pigmentation varies and is dependent upon both sun exposure and heredity.
A hemangioma is an anomaly that results in skin discoloration due to blood vessels that proliferate to form a benign tumor. Capillary hemangiomas, or strawberry-colored birthmarks, appear in the skin as bright red to deep purple nodules that are usually present at birth and disappear in childhood. However, their development may occur in adults. Cavernous hemangiomas, also known as port-wine stains, involve larger dermal blood vessels and may last a lifetime.

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14
Q

Friction ridges

A

Friction ridges are another type of skin marking. These ridge patterns follow the contours of the skin, varying from small, conical pegs (in thin skin) to the complex arches and whorls. Friction ridges are found on the fingers (fingerprints), palms, soles, and toes. These ridges are formed from large folds and valleys of both dermis and epidermis. When sweat glands and oil glands release their secretions, noticeable fingerprints may be left on touched surfaces. Examples are arch/loop/whorl/combination

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15
Q

Describe the structure, organization, and functions of the layers of the dermis

A

The dermisis deep to the epidermis. This layer of the integument is composed of connective tissue proper and contains primarily collagen fibers, although both elastic and reticular fibers also are found within the dermis. Additionally, researchers recently have dis- covered motile cells in the dermis called dendritic cells. These cells are similar to the epidermal dendritic cells in that they serve an immune function, except they are located in the dermis. Other structures within the dermis are blood vessels, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, nail roots, sensory nerve endings, and smooth muscle tissue associated with hair follicles. Two major regions of the dermis can be distinguished: a superficial papillary layer and a deeper reticular layer

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16
Q

Papillary Layer of the Dermis

A

The papillary layer is the superficial region of the dermis that is deep to the epidermis. It is composed of areolar connective tissue, and it derives its name from the projections of the dermis called dermal papillae. The dermal papillae interdigitate with deep projections of the epidermis called epidermal ridges. Together, the epidermal ridges and dermal papillae increase the area of contact between the two layers and interlock them. Each dermal papilla contains the capillaries that supply nutrients to the cells of the epidermis. Additionally, dermal papillae contain sensory nerve endings that serve as tactile receptors; these receptors continuously monitor touch on the surface of the epidermis.

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17
Q

Reticular Layer of the Dermis

A

The reticular layer forms the deeper, major portion of the dermis that extends from the papillary layer to the underlying subcutaneous layer. The reticular layer consists primarily of dense irregular connective tissue through which large bundles of collagen fibers extend in all directions. These fibers are interwoven into a meshwork that sur- rounds structures in the dermis, such as the hair follicles, sebaceous glands and sweat glands, nerves, and blood vessels.

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18
Q

Describe the structure and function of the subcutaneous layer

A

Deep to the integument is the subcutaneous layer, also called the hypodermis, or superficial fascia. It is not considered a part of the integument. This layer consists of both areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue.. In some locations of the body, adipose connective tissue predominates; thus, the subcutaneous layer is called subcutaneous fat. The connective tissue fibers of the reticular layer of the dermis are extensively interwoven with those of the subcutaneous layer to stabilize the position of the skin and bind it to the underlying structures. The subcutaneous layer pads and protects the body, acts as
an energy reservoir, and provides thermal insulation. Drugs often are injected into the subcutaneous layer because its extensive vascular network promotes rapid absorption of the drugs.

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19
Q

List and explain the varied functions of the integument

A

EPIDERMIS:
PROTECTION
PREVENTION OF WATER LOSS AND WATER GAIN
METABOLIC REGULATION
SECRETION AND ABSORPTION
IMMUNE FUNCTION

DERMIS:
TEMPERATURE REGULATION
SECRETION AND ABSORPTION
SENSORY RECEPTION

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20
Q

Explain how the skin helps retain warmth or cool the body

A

TEMPERATURE REGULATION IN DERMIS
Dilating blood vessels in the dermis release heat; constricting vessels conserve heat. Sweat glands release fluid onto the skin surface, and the body cools off by evaporation of sweat.

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21
Q

Describe the formation and function of nails

A

Nails are scalelike modifications of the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis that form on the dorsal edges of the fingers and toes. They protect the distal tips of the digits during jumping, kicking, or catch- ing. Fingernails also assist us in grasping objects.
Each nail has a distal whitish free edge, a pinkish nail body, and a nail root, which is the proximal part embedded in the skin. Together, these parts form the nail plate. The nail body covers a layer of epidermis called the nail bed, which contains only the deeper, living cell layers of the epidermis.
Most of the nail body appears pink because of the blood flowing in the underlying capillaries; the free edge of the nail appears white because there are no underlying capillaries. At the nail root and the proximal end of the nail body, the nail bed thickens to form the nail matrix, which is the actively growing part of the nail. The lunula is the whitish, semilunar area of the proximal end of the nail body. It has a whitish appearance because a thickened stratum basale obscures the underlying blood vessels.
Along the lateral and proximal borders of the nail, folds of skin called nail folds overlap the nail. The eponychium, also known as the cuticle, is a narrow band of epidermis extending from the margin of the nail wall onto the nail body. The hyponychium is the area of thickened epithelium underlying the free edge of the nail.

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22
Q

Describe the function of hair

A

Protection. The hair on the head protects the scalp from sunburn and injury. Hair within the nostrils entraps particles and prevents their entry deeper into the respiratory system, whereas hairs within the external ear canal protect the ear from insects and foreign particles. Eyelashes protect the eyes.
Heat retention. Hair on the head prevents the loss of conducted heat from the scalp to the surrounding air. Individuals who have lost their scalp hair release much more heat through the scalp than those who have a full head of hair.
Sensory reception. Hair follicles have associated tactile receptors (root hair plexuses) that detect light touch.
Visual identification. Hair characteristics are important in determining age and sex, and in identifying individuals

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23
Q

Compare and contrast the function and location of different types of exocrine glands of the skin.

A

sweat glands: merocrine sweat glands/apocrine sweat gland
sebaceous glands
other glands:
ceruminous glands (ear wax)
mammary glands

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24
Q

Distinguish between regeneration and fibrosis

A

Damaged tissues are normally repaired in one of two ways. The replacement of damaged or dead cells with the same cell type is called regeneration. This restores organ function.
When regeneration is not possible because part of the organ is too severely damaged or its cells lack the capacity to divide, the body fills in the gap with scar (fibrous) tissue. This process of scar tissue deposition in connective tissue during healing is referred to as fibrosis, and it binds the damaged parts together. The replacement scar tissue is produced by fibroblasts and is composed primarily of collagen fibers. Some structural restoration occurs; however, functional activities are not restored.

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25
Q

Describe the process of wound healing

A
  1. Cut blood vessels initiate bleeding into the wound. The blood brings clotting proteins, numerous leukocytes, and antibodies
  2. A blood clot forms, temporarily patching the edges of the wound together and acting as a barrier to prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. Internal to the clot, macrophages and neutrophils clean the wound of cellular debris.
  3. The cut blood vessels regenerate and grow in the wound. A soft mass deep in the wound becomes granulation tissue, which is a vascular connective tissue that initially forms in a healing wound. Macrophages within the wound begin to remove the clotted blood. Fibroblasts produce new collagen fibers in the region.
  4. Epithelial regeneration of the epidermis occurs due to division of epithelial cells at the edge of the wound. These new epithelial cells migrate over the wound, moving internally to the now superficial remains of the clot (the scab). The connective tissue is replaced by fibrosis.
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26
Q

BASAL CELL CARCINOMA

A

∙ Most common type of skin cancer
∙ Least dangerous type, as it seldom metastasizes (i.e., spreads to other locations within the body)
∙ Originates in stratum basale
∙ First appears as small, shiny elevation that enlarges and develops central depression with pearly edge
∙ Usually occurs on face
∙ Treated by surgical removal of lesion

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27
Q

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

A

∙ Arises from keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
∙ Lesions usually appear on scalp, ears, lower lip, or dorsum of hand.
∙ Early lesions are raised, reddened, scaly; later lesions form concave ulcers with elevated edges.
∙ Treated by early detection and surgical removal of lesion
∙ May metastasize to other parts of the body

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28
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA

A

∙ Most deadly type of skin cancer due to aggressive growth and metastasis
∙ Arises from melanocytes, usually in a preexisting mole
∙ Individuals at increased risk include those who have had severe sunburns, especially as children.
∙ Characterized by change in mole diameter, color, shape of border, and symmetry
∙ Survival rate improved by early detection and surgical removal of lesion
∙ Advanced cases (metastasis of disease) are difficult to cure and are treated with chemotherapy, interferon therapy, and radiation therapy.
A = Asymmetry: One-half of a mole or birthmark does not match the other.
B = Border: Edges are notched, irregular, blurred, or ragged.
C = Color: Color is not uniform; differing shades (usually brown or black and sometimes patches of white, blue, or red) may be seen.
D = Diameter: Affected area is larger than 6 mm (about 1/4 inch) or is growing larger.
E = Evolving: Change in the size, shape, or color of a mole or a change in symptoms, such as how a mole feels (how itchy or tender it feels) or what happens on the surface of a mole (especially bleeding)

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29
Q

List the components of the skeletal system

A

Our skeletal system includes the bones of the skeleton as well as cartilage, ligaments, and other connective tissues that stabilize or connect the bones.

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30
Q

Compare and contrast compact and spongy bone

A

Bones of the skeleton are the primary organs of the skeletal system. They form the rigid framework of the body and perform other functions, described shortly. Two types of bone connective tissue are present in most of the bones of the body: compact bone and spongy bone. Compact bone (also called dense or cortical bone) is a relatively rigid connective bone tissue that appears white, smooth, and solid. It makes up approximately 80% of the total bone mass. Spongy bone (also called cancellous or trabecular bone) is located internal to compact bone, appears porous, and makes up approximately 20% of the total bone mass.

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31
Q

Describe the types and locations of cartilage within the skeletal system

A

Cartilage is a semirigid connective tissue that is more flexible than bone. Mature cartilage is avascular (lacks a blood supply).
∙ Hyaline cartilage attaches ribs to the sternum (costal cartilage), covers the ends of some bones (articular cartilage), and is the cartilage within growth plates (epiphyseal plates). Hyaline cartilage also provides a model during development for the formation of the fetal skeleton.
∙ Fibrocartilage is a weight-bearing cartilage that withstands compression. It forms the intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis (cartilage between bones of the pelvis), and the cartilage pads of the knee joints (menisci).

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32
Q

Explain the general functions of bone

A

Bones perform several basic functions: support and protection, levers for movement, hemopoiesis, and storage of mineral and energy reserves.

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33
Q

Describe the structural components of a long bone.

A

Long bones are greater in length than width. These bones have an elongated, cylindrical shaft (diaphysis). This is the most common bone shape. Long bones are found in the upper limbs (namely, the arm, forearm, palm, and fingers) and lower limbs (thigh, leg, sole of the foot, and toes). Long bones vary in size. The small bones in the fingers and toes are long bones, as are the larger tibia and fibula of the lower limb.

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34
Q

Compare the gross anatomy of other bones to that of a long bone

A

One of the principal gross features of a long bone is its shaft, which is called the diaphysis. The elongated, usually cylindrical diaphysis provides for the leverage and major weight support of a long bone. Extending internally from the compact bone along the length of the diaphysis are spicules (thin, needlelike structures) of spongy bone. The hollow, cylindrical space within the diaphysis is called the medullary (marrow) cavity. In children, this cavity contains red bone marrow, which later is replaced by yellow bone marrow in adults.
An expanded, knobby region called the epiphysis is at each end of a long bone. A proximal epiphysis is the end of the bone closest to the body trunk, and a distal epiphysis is the end farthest from the trunk. An epiphysis is composed of an outer, thin layer of compact bone and an inner, more extensive region of spongy bone. Spongy bone within the epiphysis resists stress that is applied from many directions. Covering the joint surface of an epiphysis is a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called the articular cartilage. This cartilage helps reduce friction and absorb shock in movable joints.
The metaphysis is the region in a mature bone sandwiched between the diaphysis and the epiphysis. This region contains the epiphyseal plate (or growth plate) in a growing bone. It is a thin layer of hyaline cartilage that provides for the continued lengthwise growth of the bone. The remnant of the epiphyseal plate in adults is a thin, defined area of compact bone called the epiphyseal line.

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35
Q

Coverings and Linings of Bone

A

A tough sheath called periosteum covers the outer surface of the bone except for the areas covered by articular cartilage. The periosteum consists of two layers. The outer, fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue protects the bone from surrounding structures, anchors blood vessels and nerves to the surface of the bone, and serves as an attachment site for ligaments and tendons. The inner, cellular layer includes osteoprogenitor cells, osteo- blasts, and osteoclasts. The periosteum is anchored to the bone by numerous collagen fibers called perforating fibers, or Sharpey’s fibers, which run perpendicular to the diaphysis.
The endosteum is an incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity. The endosteum, like the periosteum, contains osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts.

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36
Q

Compare and contrast the structure and location of the two types of bone marrow

A

Bone marrow is the soft connective tissue of bone that includes both red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow. Red bone marrow (also called myeloid tissue) is hemopoietic (i.e., blood cell–forming) and contains reticular connective tissue, developing blood cells, and adipocytes The locations of red bone marrow differ between children and adults. In children, red bone marrow is located in the spongy bone of most of the bones of the body as well as the medullary cavity of long bones. Much of the red bone marrow changes as children mature into adults. Primarily within the medullary cavities of long bones and inner core of most epiphyses there is a progressive decrease in developing blood cells and an increase in adipocytes. This fatty-appearing substance is called yellow bone marrow. As a result, adults have red bone marrow only in selected portions of the axial skeleton, such as the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, the ribs, the sternum, and the ossa coxae (hip bones). Adults also have red bone mar-
row in the proximal epiphyses of each humerus and femur.

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37
Q

Gross Anatomy of Other Bone Classes

A

Short, flat, and irregular bones differ in their gross anatomic structure from long bones. The external surface generally is composed of compact bone, the interior is composed entirely of spongy bone, and there is no medullary cavity. Observe the layer of spongy bone in between the roughly parallel segments of compact bone.

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38
Q

Name the four types of bone cells and their functions

A
  1. osteoprogenitor cells: stem cells derived from mesenchyme. divide by mitosis. another stem cell is produced along with a “committed cell” that matures into an osteoblast
  2. osteoblasts: formed from osteoprogenitor cells. main function is to synthesize and secrete initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called OSTEOID. these osteoids later calcify as a result of salt crystal deposition. this traps osteoblasts in the matrix they created and become osteocytes.
  3. osteocytes: mature bone cells deriving from osteoblasts. function is to maintain bone matrix and detect mechanical stress on bone.
  4. osteoclasts: large, multinuclear, phagocytic cells. function is to break down bone during a process called bone resorption.
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39
Q

Composition of the Bone Matrix

A

The matrix of bone connective tissue has both organic and inorganic components. The organic component is osteoid, which is produced by osteoblasts. Osteoid is composed of both collagen and a semisolid ground substance of proteoglycans and glycoproteins that suspends and supports the collagen fibers. These organic components give bone tensile strength by resisting stretching and twisting, and contribute to its overall flexibility.
The inorganic portion of the bone matrix is made up of salt crystals that are primarily calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2. Calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, interact to form crystals of hydroxyapatite, which is Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2. These crystals deposit around the long axis of collagen fibers in the extracellular matrix. The crystals harden the matrix and account for the rigidity or relative inflexibility of bone that provides its compressional strength. A loss of protein, or the presence of abnormal protein, results in brittle bones; insufficient calcium results in soft bones.

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40
Q

Bone formation

A

Bone formation begins when osteoblasts secrete osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, subsequently occurs to the osteoid when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. Calcification is initiated when the concentration of calcium ions and phosphate ions reaches critical levels and precipitate out of solution, thus forming the hydroxyapatite crystals that deposit in and around the collagen fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphate for calcification.

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41
Q

Bone resorption

A

Bone resorption is a process whereby bone matrix is destroyed by substances released from osteoclasts into the extracellular space adjacent to the bone. Proteolytic enzymes released from lysosomes within the osteoclasts chemically digest the organic components (collagen fibers and proteoglycans) of the matrix, while hydrochloric acid (HCl) dissolves the mineral parts (calcium and phosphate) of the bone matrix. The liberated calcium and phosphate ions enter the blood. Bone resorption may occur when blood calcium levels are low.

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42
Q

Compare and contrast the microscopic structure of compact bone and spongy bone

A

Compact bone is composed of small, cylindrical structures called osteons, or Haversian systems. An osteon is the basic functional and structural unit of mature compact bone. Osteons are oriented parallel to the diaphysis of the long bone.

Unlike compact bone, spongy bone contains no osteons Instead, its structure is an open lattice of narrow rods and plates of bone, called trabeculae. Bone marrow fills in between the trabeculae. Between adjacent lamellae are osteocytes resting in lacunae, with numerous canaliculi radiating from the lacunae. Nutrients reach the osteocytes by diffusion through cytoplasmic processes of the osteocytes, which extend within the canaliculi that open onto the surfaces of the trabeculae.
Note that the trabeculae often form a meshwork of crisscrossing bars and plates of small bone pieces. This structure provides great resistance to stresses applied in many directions by distributing the stress throughout the entire framework.

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43
Q

List the bones that are produced by intramembranous ossification

A

Intramembranous ossification literally means “bone growth within a membrane.” It is so named because the thin layer of mesenchyme in these areas is sometimes referred to as a membrane. Intramembranous ossification also is called dermal ossification because the mesenchyme that is the source of these bones is in the area of the future dermis. Mesenchyme is an embryonic connective tissue that has mesenchymal cells and abundant ground substance.
Intramembranous ossification produces the flat bones of the skull (e.g., frontal bone), some of the facial bones (e.g., zygomatic bone, maxilla), the mandible (lower jaw), and the central part of the clavicle (collarbone).

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44
Q

List the four main steps in intramembranous ossification

A
  1. Ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme beginning at the eighth week of
    development. Some cells in the thickened, condensed mesenchyme divide, and the committed cells that are formed then differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells. Some osteoprogenitor cells become osteoblasts and begin to secrete osteoid. Multiple ossification centers develop within the thickened mesenchyme as the number of osteoblasts increases.
  2. Osteoid undergoes calcification. Osteoid formation is quickly followed by calcification, as calcium salts are deposited onto the osteoid and then they crystallize (solidify). When calcification entraps osteoblasts within lacunae in the matrix, the entrapped cells become osteocytes.
  3. Woven bone and its surrounding periosteum form.
  4. Lamellar bone replaces woven bone, as compact and spongy bone form.
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45
Q

List the bones produced by endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification begins with hyaline cartilage and produces most bones of skeleton including upper, lower limbs, pelvis, vertebrae, ends of clavicle.

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46
Q

List the steps in endochondral ossification of a long bone

A
  1. A hyaline cartilage model of bone forms.
  2. Bone first replaces hyaline cartilage in the diaphysis.
  3. Next, bone replaces hyaline cartilage in the epiphyses.
  4. Eventually, bone replaces hyaline cartilage everywhere, except the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilage.
  5. By a person’s late 20s, all epiphyseal plates typically have ossified, and lengthwise bone growth is complete.
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47
Q

Differentiate interstitial and appositional growth of bone

A

Bone growth occurs in length through interstitial growth within the epiphyseal plate and in width through appositional growth at the periosteum.

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48
Q

List the five zones of the epiphyseal plate & describe how growth in length occurs there

A
  1. Zone of resting cartilage. This zone is farthest from the medullary cavity of the diaphysis and nearest the epiphysis. It is composed of small chondrocytes distributed throughout the cartilage matrix. It resembles mature and healthy hyaline cartilage. This region secures the epiphysis to the epiphyseal plate.
  2. Zone of proliferating cartilage. Chondrocytes in this zone undergo rapid mitotic cell division, enlarge slightly, and become aligned like a stack of coins into longitudinal columns of flattened lacunae. These columns are parallel to the diaphysis.
  3. Zone of hypertrophic cartilage. Chondrocytes cease dividing and begin to hypertrophy (enlarge in size) in this zone. The walls of the lacunae become thin because the chondrocytes resorb matrix as they hypertrophy.
  4. Zone of calcified cartilage. This zone usually is composed of two or three layers of chondrocytes. Minerals are deposited in the matrix between the columns of lacunae; this calcification destroys the chondrocytes and makes the matrix appear opaque.
  5. Zone of ossification. The walls break down between lacunae in the columns, forming longitudinal channels. These spaces are invaded by capillaries and osteoprogenitor cells from the medullary cavity. New matrix of bone is deposited on the remaining calcified cartilage matrix.
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49
Q

Describe the steps of appositional growth

A

In this process, osteoblasts in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum produce and deposit bone matrix within layers parallel to the surface, called external circumferential lamellae. These lamellae are analogous to tree rings: As they increase in number, the structure increases in diameter. Thus, the bone becomes wider as new bone is laid down at its periphery. As this new bone is being laid down, osteoclasts along the medullary cavity resorb bone matrix, creating an expanding medullary cavity. The combined effects of bone growth at the periphery and bone resorption within the medullary cavity transform an infant bone into a larger version called an adult bone. Appositional growth continues throughout an individual’s lifetime.

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50
Q

Describe bone remodeling & explain how this remodeling is affected by mechanical stress on bone

A

The continual deposition of new bone tissue by osteoblasts and resorption of bone by osteoclasts are called bone remodeling. Mechanical stress occurs in the form of weight-bearing movement and exercise, and it is required for normal bone remodeling. Stress is detected by osteocytes and communicated to osteoblasts. Osteoblasts increase the synthesis of osteoid, and this is followed by deposition of mineral salts. Bone strength increases over a period of time in response to mechanical stress. Mechanical stresses that significantly affect bone result from skeletal muscle contraction and gravitational forces.

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51
Q

List the hormones that influence bone growth and bone remodeling & describe their effects

A

Growth hormone: Stimulates liver to produce the hormone IGF, which causes cartilage proliferation at epiphyseal plate and resulting bone elongation
Thyroid hormone: Stimulates bone growth by stimulating metabolic rate of osteoblasts
Calcitonin: Promotes calcium deposition in bone and inhibits osteoclast activity
Calcitriol: Stimulates absorption of calcium ions from the small intestine into the blood
Parathyroid hormone: Increases blood calcium levels by encouraging bone resorption by osteoclasts
Sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone): Stimulate osteoblasts; promote epiphyseal plate growth and closure
Glucocorticoids: Increase bone loss and, in children, impair bone growth when there are chronically high levels of glucocorticoids
Serotonin: Inhibits osteoprogenitor cells from differentiating into osteoblasts when there are chronically high levels of serotonin

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52
Q

Explain the activation of vitamin D to calcitriol

A
  1. Ultraviolet light converts the precursor molecule in keratinocytes of the skin (7-dehydrocholesterol, a modified cholesterol molecule) to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol), which is released into the blood. (Vitamin D3 also is absorbed from the small intestine into the blood from the diet.)
  2. Vitamin D3 circulates throughout the blood. As it passes through the blood vessels of the liver, it is converted by liver enzymes to calcidiol by the addition of a hydroxyl group (—OH). Both steps 1 and 2 occur continuously with limited regulation.
  3. Calcidiol circulates in the blood: As it passes through blood vessels of the kidney, it is converted to calcitriol by kidney enzymes (when another —OH group is added). Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D3. The presence of parathyroid hormone increases the rate of this final enzymatic step in the kidney. Thus, greater amounts of calcitriol are formed when parathyroid hormone is present.
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53
Q

Explain how parathyroid hormone and calcitriol function to regulate blood calcium levels

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted and released by the parathyroid glands in response to reduced blood calcium levels. The final enzymatic step converting calcidiol to calcitriol in the kidney occurs more readily in the presence of PTH.
PTH and calcitriol interact with selected major organs as follows:
∙ Bone. PTH and calcitriol act synergistically (their combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effects) to increase the release of calcium from the bone into the blood, by increasing osteoclast activity.
∙ Kidneys. PTH and calcitriol act synergistically to stimulate the kidneys to excrete less calcium in the urine (and thus retain more calcium in the blood). This occurs by increasing calcium reabsorption in the tubules in the kidneys

54
Q

Discuss the homeostatic system involving the hormone calcitonin and its effect on blood calcium levels

A

Stimulus: Low blood calcium levels
Receptor: Parathyroid glands detect low blood calcium levels
Control Center: Parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone.
Effector:
Bone: PTH and calcitriol act synergistically to increase activity of osteoclasts.
Kidney: PTH and calcitriol act synergistically to decrease calcium excreted in urine.
Small Intestine: Calcitriol increases absorption of calcium from small intestine
Blood calcium levels rise and return to a normal homeostatic range.

55
Q

Describe how age influences bone structure

A

Aging affects bone connective tissue in two ways. First, the tensile strength of bone decreases due to a reduced rate of protein synthesis by osteoblasts. Consequently, the relative amount of inorganic minerals in the bone matrix increases (due to decreased matrix protein), and the bones of the skeleton become brittle and susceptible to fracture. Second, bone loses calcium and other minerals (demineralization). The bones of the skeleton become thinner and weaker, resulting in insufficient ossification, a condition called osteopenia. Aging causes all people to become slightly osteopenic. This reduction in bone mass may begin as early as 35–40 years of age, when osteoblast activity declines, while osteoclast activity continues at previous levels. Different parts of the skeleton are affected unequally. Vertebrae, jaw bones, and epiphyses lose large amounts of mass, resulting in reduced height, loss of teeth, and fragile limbs.
osteoporosis: a condition characterized by reduction in bone mass sufficient to compromise normal function

56
Q

Explain the four steps by which fractures heal

A
  1. A fracture hematoma forms. A bone fracture tears blood vessels inside the bone and within the periosteum, causing bleeding. This bleeding results in a fracture hematoma that forms from the clotted blood.
  2. A fibrocartilaginous (soft) callus forms. Regenerated blood capillaries infiltrate the fracture hematoma. First, the fracture hematoma is reorganized into an actively growing connective tissue called a procallus. Fibroblasts within the procallus produce collagen fibers that help connect the broken ends of the bones. Chondroblasts in the newly growing connective tissue form a dense regular connective tissue associated with the cartilage. Eventually, the procallus becomes a fibrocartilaginous (soft) callus. The fibrocartilaginous callus stage lasts at least 3 weeks.
  3. A hard (bony) callus forms. Within a week after the injury, osteoprogenitor cells in areas adjacent to the fibrocartilaginous callus become osteoblasts and produce trabeculae of primary bone. The fibrocartilaginous callus is then replaced by this bone, which forms a hard (bony) callus. The trabeculae of the hard callus continue to grow and thicken for several months.
  4. The bone is remodeled. Remodeling is the final phase
    of fracture repair. The hard callus persists for at least 3 to
    4 months as osteoclasts remove excess bony material from both exterior and interior surfaces. Compact bone replaces primary bone.
57
Q

Explain the five general functions of skeletal muscle

A

Body movement. Contraction of your skeletal muscles generates large body movements, such as those of walking, and the smaller, more precise body movements such as picking up an object. It is also responsible for the highly developed movements involved in communicating that occur when speaking, writing, and changing facial expressions; the movements associated with breathing; and those involved in the voluntary phase of swallowing.
∙ Maintenance of posture. Contraction of specific skeletal muscles stabilizes your trunk, pelvis, legs, neck, and head to keep you erect. These postural muscles contract continuously when you are awake to keep you from collapsing.
∙ Protection and support. Skeletal muscle is arranged in layers within the walls of the abdominal cavity and the floor of the pelvic cavity. These layers of muscle protect the internal organs and support their normal position within the abdominopelvic cavity.
∙ Regulating elimination of materials. Circular muscle bands, called sphincters contract and relax to regulate passage of material. These skeletal muscle sphincters at the orifices of the gastrointestinal and urinary tracts allow you to voluntarily control the expulsion of feces and urine, respectively
∙ Heat production. Energy is required for muscle tissue contraction, and heat is always produced by this energy use. Thus, muscles are like small furnaces that continuously generate heat and function to help maintain your normal body temperature. You shiver when you are cold because involuntary skeletal muscle contraction gives off heat. Likewise, you sweat during exercise to release the additional heat produced by your working muscles

58
Q

Describe the five characteristics of skeletal muscle.

A

Excitability is the ability of a cell to respond to a stimulus (e.g., chemical, stretch). The stimulus causes a local change in the resting membrane potential by triggering the movement of ions across the plasma membrane of the excitable cell. A skeletal muscle cell responds when its receptors bind neurotransmitter (acetylcholine), which is released from a motor neuron.

Conductivity involves an electrical signal that is propagated along the plasma membrane as voltage-gated channels open sequentially during an action potential. These electrical signals functionally connect the plasma membrane of the muscle cell (where stimulation occurs) to the interior of the muscle cell.

Contractility is exhibited when contractile proteins within skeletal muscle cells slide past one another. Contractility is what enables muscle cells to cause body movement and to perform the other functions of muscles.

Extensibility is the lengthening of a muscle cell. This lengthening is possible because the contractile proteins slide past one another to decrease their degree of overlap. Muscle’s extensibility is exhibited when we stretch our muscles, such as before exercising.

Elasticity is the ability of a muscle cell to return to its original length following either shortening or lengthening of the muscle. Elasticity of muscle cells is dependent
upon the release of tension in the springlike connectin protein associated with contractile proteins

59
Q

Identify and describe the three connective tissue layers associated with a skeletal muscle

A

The epimysium is a layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole skeletal muscle. This fibrous tissue ensheathes the entire skeletal muscle to protect and support it like a tough leather sleeve.

The perimysium is a layer of dense irregular connective around each fascicle. These tough, fibrous connective tissue sleeves also provide protection and support, but to each bundle of muscle fibers.

The endomysium is composed of areolar connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber. These more delicate coverings function to electrically insulate the muscle fibers.

60
Q

Describe the structure and function of a tendon and an aponeurosis

A

A tendon is a thick, cordlike structure composed of dense regular connective tissue, whereas an aponeurosis is a thin, flattened sheet of dense regular connective tissue. Both tendons and aponeuroses attach a muscle either to a skeletal component (bone or ligament) or to fascia. Imagine the typical scenario as skeletal muscle fibers contract, pulling on the connective tissue sheaths, with the force transferred to a tendon that moves a bone.

61
Q

Differentiate between superficial fascia and deep fascia

A

Deep fascia, also called visceral or muscular fascia, is an additional, expansive sheet of dense irregular connective tissue that is external to the epimysium. Deep fascia separates individual muscles; binds together muscles with similar functions; contains nerves, blood vessels, and lymph vessels; and fills spaces between muscles. The deep fascia is internal or deep to a layer called the superficial fascia (or subcutaneous layer). The superficial fascia is composed of areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue that separates muscle from skin

62
Q

Describe the sarcolemma, T-tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, and a triad of a skeletal muscle fiber.

A

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma. Deep invaginations of the sarcolemma, called T-tubules or transverse tubules, extend into the skeletal muscle fiber as a network of narrow, membranous tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of the muscle. Located within the membrane of both the sarcolemma (along its length) and the T-tubules are voltage-gated channels.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an internal membrane complex that is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells. Segments of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) fit around the myofibril like a sleeve of membrane netting. At either end of individual sections of the sarcoplasmic reticulum are blind sacs called terminal cisternae, which are much like the hem of a sleeve. Terminal cisternae serve as the reservoirs for calcium ions (Ca2+) and are immediately adjacent to each T-tubule. Together, two terminal cisternae and a centrally located T-tubule form a structure called a triad. Within the triad, the T-tubule membrane contains voltage-sensitive Ca2+ channels (dihydropyridine receptors), which are responsive to electrical signals

63
Q

Myofilaments and myofibrils

A

Myofilaments are contractile proteins that are bundled within myofibrils. A myofilament is not as long as a myofibril; rather, it takes many successive units of myofilaments to extend the entire length of the myofibril. Myofibril bundles contain two types of myofilaments: thick filaments and thin filaments
Approximately 80% of the volume of a skeletal muscle fiber is composed of long, cylindrical structures termed myofibrils. A skeletal muscle fiber contains hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. Each myofibril extends the entire length of the skeletal muscle fiber. Note that each myofibril is composed of bundles of contractile pro- teins called myofilaments and is enclosed in portions of the sarcoplas- mic reticulum

64
Q

Thick and thin filaments

A

Thick Filaments Thick filaments (or thick myofilaments) are assembled from bundles of 200 to 500 myosin protein molecules. Each myosin protein consists of two strands; each strand has a globular head and an elongated tail. The myosin head contains a binding site for actin of the thin filaments. The head also has a catalytic ATPase site where adenosine triphosphate (ATP) attaches and is split into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate (Pi). (It is because the head of myosin functions as an ATPase enzyme that myosin is often referred to more specifically as myosin ATPase.) The tails of two strands of a myosin molecule are intertwined. Each myosin molecule composing a thick filament is oriented so that its tails point toward the center of the thick filaments and its heads point toward the ends of the thick filaments.
Thin Filaments or thin myofilaments are approximately half of the diameter of thick filaments. Thin filaments are primarily composed of two strands of actin protein twisted around each other to form a helical shape. In each strand of actin, many (about 300 to 400) small, spherical molecules (G, or globular, actin) are connected to form a fibrous strand (F, or filamentous, actin). F-actin resembles two beaded necklaces that are twisted and intertwined together, with G-actin as the individual beads. Each G-actin molecule has a significant feature called a myosin binding site. The myosin head attaches to the myosin binding site of actin during muscle contraction

65
Q

Troponin-tropomyosin
complex & myosin binding sites

A

Each G-actin molecule has a signifi- cant feature called a myosin binding site. The myosin head attaches to the myosin binding site of actin during muscle contraction.
Tropomyosin and troponin are regulatory proteins associated with thin filaments. Together they form the troponin-tropomyosin complex. Tropomyosin is a short, thin, twisted filament that is a “stringlike” protein. Consecutive tropomyosin molecules cover small regions of the actin strands, including the myosin binding sites in a non-contracting muscle. Troponin is a globular, or “ball-like,” protein attached to tropomyosin. Troponin contains the binding site for Ca2+

66
Q

Connectin and Dystrophin

A

Connectin also called titin, is a “cablelike” protein that extends from the Z discs to the M line through the core of each thick filament . It stabilizes the position of the thick filament and maintains thick filament alignment within a sarcomere. Additionally, portions of the connectin molecules are coiled and “springlike” so that during sarcomere shortening they are compressed to produce passive tension. This passive tension is then released to return the sarcomere to its normal resting length. Thus, connectin
contributes to skeletal muscle fiber elasticity.
Dystrophin is part of a protein complex that anchors myofibrils that are adjacent to the sarcolemma to proteins within the sarcolemma. These proteins of the sarcolemma also extend to the connective tissue of the endomysium that encloses the muscle fiber. Thus, dystrophin links internal myofilament proteins of a muscle fiber to external proteins. The genetic disorder of muscular dystrophy is caused by abnormal structure, or amounts, of dystrophin protein

67
Q

Sarcomere regions

A

Myofilaments within myofibrils are arranged in repeating, microscopic, cylindrical units called sarcomeres. The number of sarcomeres varies with the length of the myofibril within the skeletal muscle fiber. Each sarcomere is composed of overlapping thick filaments and thin filaments. Z discs are composed of specialized proteins that are positioned perpendicular to the myofilaments and serve as anchors for the thin filaments. Although the Z disc appears as a flat disc when the myofibril is viewed from its end, only the edge of the disc is visible in a side view, and it sometimes looks like a zigzagged line.
The thick filaments and thin filaments overlap within a sarcomere, forming the following regions:
I bands extend from both directions of a Z disc and are bisected by the Z disc. These end regions contain only thin filaments. At maximal muscle shortening, the thin filaments are pulled parallel along the thick filaments, causing the I bands to disappear.
The A band is the central region of a sarcomere that contains the entire thick filament. Thin filaments partially overlap the thick filament on each end of an A band. The A band appears dark when viewed with a microscope. The A band does not change in length during muscle contraction.
∙ The H zone (also called the H band) is the most central portion of the A band in a resting sarcomere. This region does not have thin filament overlap; only thick filaments are present. During maximal muscle shortening, this zone disappears when the thin filaments are pulled past thick filaments.
∙ The M line is a thin transverse protein meshwork structure in the center of the H zone. It serves as an attachment site for the thick filaments and keeps the thick filaments aligned during contraction and relaxation events.

68
Q

List and describe the structures associated with energy production within skeletal muscle fibers

A

Skeletal muscle fibers have abundant mitochondria for aerobic cellular respiration. The fibers also contain glycogen stores for use as an immediate fuel molecule. Myoglobin is a molecule unique to muscle tissue. Myoglobin is a reddish, globular protein that is somewhat similar to hemoglobin. It binds oxygen when the muscle is at rest and releases it for use during muscular contraction. This additional source of oxygen provides the means to enhance aerobic cellular respiration and the production of ATP. Skeletal muscle fibers also contain another type of molecule called creatine phosphate. Creatine phosphate provides muscle fibers with a very rapid means of supplying ATP.

69
Q

Define a motor unit and describe the relationship between its size and the degrees of control

A

A single motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fibers it controls is called a motor unit. The number of skeletal muscle fibers a single motor neuron innervates—and thus the size of the motor unit—varies and can range from small motor units that have less than five muscle fibers to large motor units that have several thousand muscle fibers. The size of the motor unit determines the degree of control. There is an inverse relationship between the size of a motor unit and the degree of control.

70
Q

Identify and describe the three components of a neuromuscular junction

A

The synaptic knob of a motor neuron is an expanded tip of an axon. Where the axon nears the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber, the synaptic knob enlarges and flattens to cover a relatively large surface area of the sarcolemma. The synaptic knob cytosol houses numerous synaptic vesicles (small membrane sacs) filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

The motor end plate is a specialized region of the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber. It has numerous folds and indentations (junction folds) to increase the membrane surface area covered by the synaptic knob. The motor end plate has vast numbers of ACh receptors. These plasma membrane protein channels are chemically gated ion channels. Binding of ACh opens these channels, allowing Na+ entry into the muscle fiber and K+ to exit. ACh receptors are like doors; ACh is the only “key” to open these receptor doors.

The synaptic cleft is an extremely narrow, fluid-filled space separating the synaptic knob and the motor end plate. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) resides within the synaptic cleft and quickly breaks down ACh molecules following their release into the synaptic cleft.

71
Q

Describe the resting membrane potential of a skeletal muscle fiber

A

One essential feature of skeletal muscle fibers is the electrical charge difference across the sarcolemma; the cytosol right inside the plasma membrane is relatively negative in comparison to the interstitial fluid outside of the cell. This electrical charge difference when the cell is at rest is called the resting membrane potential (RMP). Skeletal muscle fibers have an RMP of about –90 millivolts (mV). An RMP is established and maintained by both leak channels and Na+/K+ pumps. The primary function of the Na+/K+ pumps is to maintain the concentration gradients for Na+ (with more Na+ outside the cell) and K+ (with more K+ inside the cell).
The acetylcholine receptors (chemically gated ion channels) within the motor end plate and the voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels in the sarcolemma and T-tubules are closed, Ca2+ ions are stored within the terminal cisternae of the sar- coplasmic reticulum, and the contractile proteins (myofilaments) within the sarcomeres are in their relaxed position.

72
Q

Explain the events that lead to release of the neurotransmitter ACh from a motor neuron

A
  1. Ca2+ entry at synaptic knob
    A nerve signal is propagated down a motor axon and triggers the entry of Ca2+ into the synaptic knob.
    Ca2+ binds to proteins in synaptic vesicle membrane.
  2. Release of ACh from synaptic knob
    Calcium binding triggers synaptic vesicles to merge with the synaptic knob plasma membrane and ACh is exocytosed into the synaptic cleft.
  3. Binding of ACh to ACh receptor at motor end plate
    ACh diffuses across the fluid-filled synaptic cleft at the motor end plate to bind with ACh receptors.
73
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction

A

Skeletal muscle physiology involves three major events: excitation, excitation-contraction coupling, and crossbridge cycling.

74
Q

Describe the steps in excitation-contraction coupling

A

End plate potential (EPP) at motor end plate of muscle fiber:
ACh binds to ACh receptors in motor end plate.
Chemically gated ion channels stimulated to open.
Na rapidly diffuses in and K* slowly diffuses out of muscle fiber. If sufficient Na* diffuses in to change RMP (-90 ml) to -65 mV; the threshold is reached, which is called an end plate potential (EPP).

Action potential propagated along sarcolemma and T-tubule:
EPP initiates an action potential (depolarization and repolarization).
Depolarization: Voltage-gated Na* channels open; Na* moves in; sufficient Na* moves in to cause inside to become +30 mV (this reversal from negative (-65 V to +30 ml) is called depolarization.
Depolarization is complete as the voltage-gated Na* channels close.
Repolarization: Voltage-gated K* channels open after Na* channels; K* moves out; sufficient K* moves out to reestablish the RMP (-90 ml); this reversal from positive (+30 m) to the negative RMP (-90) mV is repolarization.

Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum:
Action potential reaches a triad.
Voltage-sensitive Ca2 channels of T-tubules are stimulated, which triggers Ca2+ release channels of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) to open.
Ca2+ diffuses out of the SR through Ca2* release channels into the cvtosol of the muscle fiber.

75
Q

Describe the events in cross-bridge cycling

A

Multiple repetitions of attach, pull, release, and reset lead to fully contracted sarcomere.
1. Ca2+ binding
Ca2+ binds to troponin in muscle thin filaments, causing a conformational change in troponin. Troponin changes shape and the entire troponin-tropomyosin complex is moved—thus, tropomyosin no longer covers the myosin binding site on actin.

  1. Crossbridge formation (“attach”)
    Myosin heads, which are in the “cocked” position, bind to the exposed myosin binding site on actin, forming a crossbridge between myosin and actin.
  2. Power Stroke (pull)
    The myosin head swivels toward the center of the sarcomere, pulling along the attached thin filament. This motion is called a power stroke. ADP and Pi are released during this process.
  3. Release of myosin head
    ATP binds to the ATP binding site on the myosin head, which causes the release of the myosin head from the binding site on actin.
  4. Reset myosin head (“reset”)
    ATP is split into ADP and Pi by myosin ATPase. This provides the energy to reset the myosin head.
76
Q

Summarize the changes that occur within a sarcomere during contraction

A

The following changes to the sarcomere occur in the contracted muscle: The H zone disappears, the I band narrows in width and may disappear, and the Z discs in each sarcomere move closer together. However, the thin and thick filaments do not shorten. A description of the repetitive movement of thin filaments sliding past thick filaments is called the sliding filament theory.

77
Q
A
78
Q

Describe what happens to each of the following to allow for skeletal muscle relaxation: ACh, action potential, Ca2+ concentration in sarcoplasm, and troponin-tropomyosin complex.

A

Nerve signals stop
-ACh is no longer released and any left-over is hydrolyzed by AChE
-Action Potentials and EPP cease
-Ca2+ returned to terminal cisternae via Ca2+ pumps, remaining is stored in sarcoplasmic reticulum
-Troponin returns to original shape with Ca2+ is removed, tropomyosin moves over myosin binding sites to prevent crossbridge formation

79
Q

Explain the relationship of skeletal muscle elasticity and muscle relaxation

A

Through the natural elasticity of the muscle fiber, the muscle returns to its original relaxed position, a process facilitated by the release of passive tension that developed in connectin proteins that were compressed during contraction.

80
Q

Explain how the means of supplying ATP is related to intensity and duration of exercise

A

Available ATP and phosphate transfer to ADP: Oxygen not required/Limited ATP available/ATP produced from creatine P; also limited amounts

Glycolysis: Oxygen not required/More rapid production of ATP (than aerobically)/Lesser amounts of ATP are produced (than aerobically)/Fuel: Glucose (typically) from glycogen breakdown and blood

Aerobic cellular respiration: Oxygen required (aerobic)/Slower production of ATP (than glycolysis)/Greater amount of ATP are produced (than in glycolysis)/Fuel: Pyruvate (product of glycolysis), fatty acids, amino acids (with NH2 removed)

The intensity and duration of an activity are important factors in energy utilization. For short sprints, the available ATP and the ATP made available through phosphate transfer are primarily used, whereas for longer runs, glycolysis is used initially
but will be replaced by aerobic cellular respiration.

81
Q

Define oxygen debt and explain why it occurs

A

When an individual participates in exercise during which the demand for oxygen exceeds the avail- ability of oxygen, an oxygen debt is incurred. Oxygen debt is the amount of additional oxygen that is consumed following exercise to restore pre-exercise conditions. This additional oxygen is required primarily by
∙ Skeletal muscle fibers to replace oxygen on myoglobin molecules, replenish ATP and creatine phosphate, and replace glycogen stores
Liver cells to convert lactate back to glucose through gluconeogenesis

82
Q

Explain the two primary criteria used to classify skeletal muscle fiber types

A

Skeletal muscle fibers that compose a muscle are differentiated into three categories based on two criteria: (1) the type of contraction generated and (2) the primary means used for supplying ATP.

Speed has traditionally been described based on whether the skeletal muscle fiber expresses the relatively slow or fast genetic variant of myosin ATPase, the enzyme that splits ATP. Those with a fast variant are called fast-twitch fibers, and those with the slow variant are called slow-twitch fibers.
2. The primary means used for supplying ATP: oxidative fibers & glycolytic fibers. The higher levels of ATP generated provide energy for oxidative fibers to continue contracting for extend- ed periods of time without tiring, or fatiguing—thus, these fibers are also called fatigue-resistant. Glycolytic fibers generally tire easily after a short time of sustained muscular activity—thus, these fibers are also called fatigable.

83
Q

Compare and contrast the three skeletal muscle fiber types

A

Slow oxidative fibers: contain slow myosin ATPase, slow contractions less power, dark red (large amounts of myoglobin and mitochondria).

Fast oxidative fibers: fast and powerful contractions, appear light red due to aerobic respiration as supply for ATP.

Fast glycolytic fibers: Largest in diameter, powerful and fast but only in short burst, ATP supply from glycolysis, appear white.

84
Q

Describe the distribution of skeletal muscle fiber types in a muscle and how this distribution relates to the muscle’s function

A

Slow Oxidative (SO) Fibers (Type I Fibers): Trunk and lower limb muscles/Endurance (e.g., maintaining posture, marathon running

Fast Oxidative (FO) Fibers (Type IIa Fibers): Lower limb muscles/Medium duration, moderate movement (e.g., walking, biking)

Fast Glycolytic (FG) Fibers (Type IIb Fibers): Short duration, intense movement (e.g., sprinting, lifting weights)/Upper limb muscles

85
Q

Describe what occurs in a skeletal muscle during a single twitch and relate each event to a graph of a twitch

A

A myogram of a single brief stimulation of a skeletal muscle results in a single contraction event called a muscle twitch, which is recorded using a myograph. The latent period is the elapsed time between stimulation of the muscle fiber and the generation of contractile force. The contraction period is the time during which there is an increase in muscle tension. The relaxation period is the time when there is a decrease in muscle tension.

Skeletal muscle responds to one stimulus: muscle twitch
Skeletal muscle responds to change in stimulus strength: motor unit recruitment
Skeletal muscle responds to change in stimulus frequency

86
Q

Explain the events that occur in motor unit recruitment as the intensity of stimulation is increased

A

Increasing the intensity of stimulation
(a) increases muscle tension, (b) causes a progressive increase in the number of motor units contracting, and (c) activates progressively larger motor units. This phenomenon is referred to as either recruitment or multiple motor unit summation.

87
Q

Distinguish between wave summation, incomplete tetany, and tetany that occur with an
increase in frequency of stimulation

A

Wave summation, incomplete tetany, and tetany are seen when the muscle is stimulated at varying frequencies that allow different degrees of relaxation.
Stimulation can occur so rapidly (e.g., 20 to 50 stimuli per second) that complete relaxation of the skeletal muscle does not occur before the next stimulation event. The rapidly restimulated muscle displays a summation of contractile forces as the effect of each new wave is added to the previous wave. This effect is often called either wave summation because contraction waves are added together, or “summed,” or temporal summation because it depends upon increasing frequency (tempo, or timing) of stimulation.
Further increases in stimulation frequency allow less time for relaxation between contraction cycles, and now incomplete tetany (the tension tracing continues to increase and the distance between waves decreases) is noted. Stimulation frequency is further increased (e.g., 40 to 50 stimuli per second) until ultimately the contractions of the skeletal muscle fiber “fuse” and form a continuous contraction that lacks any relaxation. This continuous contraction is called tetany (the tension tracing is a smooth line).

88
Q

Describe muscle tone and explain its significance.

A

Muscle tone is the resting tension in a muscle generated by involuntary nervous stimulation of the muscle. The resting muscle tone establishes constant tension on the muscle’s tendon, thus stabilizing the position of the bones and joints.

89
Q

Distinguish between isometric and isotonic contractions

A

Isometric contraction
-Although tension is increased, it is insufficient to overcome resistance
-muscle length stays the same

Isotonic contraction
-muscle tension overcomes resistance resulting in movement
-length changes
+concentric contraction- muscles shortens as it contracts
+eccentric contraction- muscle lengthens as it contracts

90
Q

Explain the length-tension relationship in skeletal muscle contraction

A

The tension a muscle produces depends on its length at the time of stimulation
If the skeletal muscle fiber is already contracted at the time of stimulation, it does not have the ability to shorten much more, and it exhibits a weak contraction. (b) A skeletal muscle fiber at its normal resting length is generally capable of exhibiting the strongest contraction because of optimal overlap of myofilaments. (c) If the skeletal muscle fiber is very stretched when stimulated, relatively little contraction may occur because myofilaments have minimal overlap.

Production of the most forceful contraction is facilitated if the skeletal muscle (a) is composed primarily of fast, glycolytic skeletal muscle fibers, (b) contains large motor units, (c) is stimulated more frequently, and (d) is stimulated when it is at its resting length.

91
Q
A
92
Q

Define muscle fatigue and explain some of its causes

A

Muscle fatigue is the reduced ability or the inability of the skeletal muscle to produce muscle tension. The primary cause of muscle fatigue during excessive or sustained exercise is a decrease in glycogen stores.
Other causes: excitation at the neuromuscular junction, excitation- contraction coupling, and crossbridge cycling

92
Q

Compare and contrast the changes in skeletal muscle that occur as a result of the two primary types of exercise programs or from the lack of exercise

A

Endurance exercise
-leads to better ATP production
-more mitochindria

Resistance exercise
-hypertrophy
-increases in size due to increases in synthesis of contractile proteins
-increases glycogen reserves and mitochondria

Lack of exercise
-Atrophy: decrease in size to to lack of use
-initially reversible, but becomes permanent if extreme

93
Q

Summarize the effects of aging on skeletal muscle

A

Loss of muscle mass
-slow loss starts during mid 30s because of decrease activity
-decreased size, power, and endurance of muscle
-loss in fiber number and diameter
-decreased oxygen storage capacity
-decreased circulatory supply to muscles with exercise
2) Reduces capacity to recover from injury
-decreased number of satellite cells (muscle stem cells)
-Fibrosis: muscle mass often replaced by dense regular connective tissue which decreases flexibility

94
Q

List and describe the similarities and differences between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle.

A

Skeletal muscle: generally attaches to the skeleton, voluntary movement of body, multinucleate

Cardiac muscle: heart only, involuntary movement, two centrally located nuclei, Many mitochondria—use aerobic respiration
Intercalated discs are unique to cardiac muscle; they are composed of desmosomes and gap junctions

-both striated and contain sarcomeres

94
Q

List organs of various body systems where smooth muscle is located

A

Blood vessels, bronchioles, intestine, ureters, kidney, bladder, uterus

94
Q

Compare the microscopic anatomy of smooth muscle to skeletal muscle

A

Smooth Muscle Fibers
(a) attached to bones or (some facial muscles) to skin
(b) Single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with obvious striations
(c) Epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

Skeletal Muscle Fibers
(a) Unitary muscle in walls of hollow visceral organs (other than the heart) multi unit muscle in intrinsic eye muscles, airways, large arteries
(b) Single, fusiform, uninucleate, no striations
(c) Endomysium

95
Q

Briefly explain the different means of controlling smooth muscle

A

Smooth muscle also contracts in response to being stretched. This physiologic response is called the myogenic response. The myogenic response occurs, for example, in smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels, the stomach, and the urinary bladder. Its response, however, is not continuous if the stretch is prolonged.
Instead, the smooth muscle exhibits what is called the stress-relaxation response. This occurs when smooth muscle is “stressed” by being stretched. It responds by contracting, but after a given period of time, it relaxes. For example, swallowed materials entering the stomach cause its wall to stretch, and the smooth muscle in the wall initially contracts. After a period of time it relaxes, allowing additional food to more easily enter the stomach.

Smooth muscle is also stimulated to contract by various hormones, a decrease in pH, low oxygen concentration, increased carbon dioxide levels, certain drugs, and pacemaker cells.

96
Q

Describe the three general functions of the nervous system

A

Collect information

Processes and evaluate
information

Initiate response to
information

97
Q

Describe the structural components included in the CNS and those in the PNS

A

Central nervous system (CNS)
Brain/Spinal cord

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
Nerves/Ganglia

98
Q

Explain the functional organization of the nervous system

A

Sensory nervous system: detects stimuli and transmits information from receptors to the CNS.
Somatic sensory: Sensory input that is consciously perceived from receptors (e.g., eyes, ears, and skin)
Visceral sensory: Sensory input that is not consciously perceived from receptors of blood vessels and internal organs (e.g., heart)

Motor nervous system: initiates and transmits information from the CNS to effectors.
Somatic motor: Motor output
that is consciously or voluntarily controlled; effector is skeletal
muscle
Autonomic motor: Motor output that is not consciously or is involuntarily controlled; effectors are cardiac
muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

99
Q

Describe the structure of a nerve and explain how nerves are classified structurally and functionally

A

A nerve is ensheathed with a dense irregular connective tissue layer called the epineurium. Each fascicle (bundle of axons) is also wrapped with a dense irregular connective tissue layer called the perineurium. An axon is surrounded by an aerolar connective tissue layer called the endoneurium. In myelinated axons, neurolemmocytes are between the axon and endoneurium. An electron micrograph showing the partial structure of a nerve, including connective tissue coverings within a nerve. (c) A ganglion is a collection of cell bodies along the length of a nerve.

Cranial nerves extend from the brain and spinal nerves extend from the spinal cord
Functional classification of nerves is based upon the functional type of neuron (sensory neuron or motor neuron) a nerve contains. Sensory nerves contain only sensory neurons that relay information to the CNS, and motor nerves contain primarily motor neurons that relay information from the CNS. In contrast, mixed nerves contain both sensory and motor neurons.

100
Q

Compare and contrast nerves and ganglia

A

Whereas a nerve is a bundle of axons within the peripheral nervous system, a ganglion is a cluster of neuron cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system

101
Q

List and explain the five distinguishing characters common to all neurons

A

excitability: the stimulus causes a local change in the resting membrane potential in the excitable cell.

conductivity: involves an electrical change that is quickly propagated along the plasma membrane as voltage gated channels open sequentially during an action potential.

secretion: neurons release neurotransmitters in response to conductive activity.

extreme longevity: neurons formed as a baby are still functional in the elderly

Amitotic: during fetal development, mitotic activity is lost in most neurons except the olfactory epithelium of the nose and parts of the brain.

102
Q

Describe the anatomic features common to most neurons: dendrites, cell body, and axon

A

cell body: enclosed by a plasma membrane and contains cytoplasm surrounding a nucleus

dendrites: relatively short, small, tapering, unmyelinated processes that branch off the cell body.

axon: typically a longer process that stems from the cell body to make contact with other neurons, muscle cells, or gland cells.

103
Q

Name the four structural categories of neurons.

A

Multipolar neuron: Multiple processes extend directly from the cell body; typically many dendrites and one axon; most common type of neuron
All motor neurons; most interneurons

Bipolar neuron: Two processes extend directly from the cell body; one dendrite and one axon; relatively limited in where they are located
Some special sense neurons (e.g., retina of eye, olfactory epithelium in nose)

Unipolar neuron: Single short process extends directly from the cell and looks like a T as a result of the fusion of two processes into one long axon
Most sensory neurons

Anaxonic neuron: Processes are only dendrites; no axon present
Interneurons

104
Q

Name and describe the three functional categories of neurons and where each is primarily located

A

sensory neurons (afferent): neurons of sensory nervous system. responsible for conducting sensory input from both somatic and visceral receptors to the CNS.

motor neurons (efferent): neurons of motor nervous system. conducts motor output from the CNS to both somatic effectors and visceral effectors (all multipolar).

interneurons: entirely within the CNS. receive stimulation from many other neurons and carry out the integrative function of the nervous system. (receive, process, store info, and decide). facilitate communication between sensory and motor neurons.

105
Q

Define a synapse

A

A synapse is the specific location where a neuron is functionally connected to either another neuron or an effector (muscle or gland). There are two types of synapses in the human body: chemical synapses and electrical synapses. Most synapses within the nervous system are chemical synapses.

106
Q

List the distinguishing features of glial cells

A

Glial cells are sometimes referred to as neuroglia. They are found within both the CNS and the PNS. Glial cells are both smaller than neurons and capable of producing new glial cells through cell division. Glial cells do not transmit electrical signals, but they do assist neurons with their functions. The glial cells cooperate to physically protect and help nourish neurons as well as provide an organized, supporting scaffolding for all the nervous tissue. During development, glial cells form the framework that guides young, migrating neurons to their final destinations.

107
Q

Describe the function of the 4 types of glial cells within the CNS and the 2 types of glial cells within the PNS

A

Four types of glial cells are located within the CNS: astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia, and oligodendrocytes.

Oligodendrocyte Functions
1. Myelinates and insulates CNS axons
2. Allows faster action potential propagation along axons in the CNS

Astrocyte Functions
1. Helps form the blood-brain barrier 2. Regulates interstitial fluid
composition
3. Provides structural support and
organization to the central
nervous system (CNS)
4. Assists with neuronal development 5. Replicates to occupy space of
dying neurons

Ependymal Cell Functions
1. Lines ventricles of brain and central canal of spinal cord
2. Assists in production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Microglial Cell Functions
1. Phagocytic cell that moves through the CNS
2. Protects the CNS by engulfing infectious agents and other potentially harmful substances

Two primary types of glial cells are located within the PNS, including satellite cells and neurolemmocytes.

Satellite Cell Functions
1. Electrically insulates PNS cell bodies
2. Regulates nutrient and waste exchange for cell bodies in ganglia

Neurolemmocyte Functions
1. Myelinates and insulates PNS axons
2. Allows for faster action potential propagation along an axon

108
Q

Define myelination and describe the composition of a myelin sheath

A

the process by which part of an axon is wrapped with myelin.

myelin is the insulating covering around the axon that consist of repeating concentric layers of plasma membrane of glial cells.

The main purpose of a myelin sheath is to increase the speed at which impulses propagate along the myelinated fiber.

109
Q

Distinguish between the myelination process carried out by neurolemmocytes and by oligodendrocytes.

A

A neurolemmocyte in the PNS can myelinate only a 1-millimeter portion of a single axon. Thus, if an axon is longer than 1 millimeter (and most PNS axons are), it takes many neurolemmocytes to myelinate the entire axon. The axons in many of the nerves in the body have hundreds or thousands of neurolemmocytes along their entire length. The gaps between the neurolemmocytes are called neurofibril nodes, or nodes of Ranvier.
An oligodendrocyte in the CNS, in comparison, can myelinate a 1-millimeter portion of multiple axons and not just one. The cytoplasmic extensions of the oligodendrocyte wrap repeatedly around a portion of each axon where plasma membrane layers of the oligodendrocyte form the myelin sheath.

110
Q

List factors that influence regeneration of PNS axons & explain why axon regeneration in the CNS is
limited.

A
  1. the amount of damage
  2. the distance between the site of the damaged axon and the structure it innervates.
  3. oligodendrocytes do not release a nerved growth factor
  4. the large number of axons crowded within the CNS tends to complicate regrowth activites
  5. Both astrocytes and connective tissue coverings may form some scar tissue that obstructs axon regrowth.
111
Q

Distinguish between a pump and a channel

A

pump: maintains specific concentration gradients by moving substances up a concentration gradient, a process that requires cellular energy.

channel: provide the means for a substance to move down its concentration gradient. (Na+, K+, Cl-)

112
Q

List major types of channels in neurons & describe the three specific states of a voltage-gated Na+
channel.

A

chemically-gated or ligand-gated channels, voltage-gated channels, and mechanically-gated channels

Three States of Voltage-Gated Na+ Channels
1. Resting state. Although the inactivation gate is open, the activation gate is closed, and entry of Na+ is prevented.
2. Activation state. Both the inactivation gate (which remains open) and the activation gate are open (activation gate opens in response to a voltage change); Na+ moves into the cell through the open channel.
3. Inactivation state. Although the activation gate is open, the inactivation gate is temporarily closed (for several milliseconds) following activation of the Na+ channel— during this time, it cannot be stimulated to reopen, and entry of Na+ is prevented.

113
Q

Describe the four functional segments in a neuron, including the distribution of channels and pumps in each.

A

The receptive segment includes both dendrites and the cell body, which are the regions of the neuron that receive stimuli to excite the neuron. Chemically gated channels (cation channels, K+ channels, and Cl– channels) are located in this segment; no significant numbers of voltage-gated channels are present. (Note that cation channels allow the passage of both Na+ into the neuron and K+ out of the neuron. However, more Na+ moves into the neuron than K+ moves out.)

The initial segment is commonly considered to be the region of the axon hillock. This segment contains both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels.

The conductive segment is equivalent to the length of the axon. Like the initial segment, it contains both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels.

The transmissive segment includes the synaptic knobs and contains both voltage- gated Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ pumps.

114
Q

Describe the conditions of a neuron at rest

A

Ion concentration gradients exist for K+, Na+, and Cl– across the plasma membrane along the entire neuron. At the plasma membrane, there is relatively more K+ in the cytosol than in the interstitial fluid (IF) surrounding the neuron, whereas there is more Na+ and Cl– in the IF than in the cytosol. These gradients are established by Na+/K+ pumps that move three Na+ out of the neuron for every two K+ moved in. (Chloride ion follows the movement of Na+.)
∙ A Ca2+ concentration gradient exists at the synaptic knob. Calcium pumps within this segment continuously pump Ca2+ from within the synaptic knob to the surrounding IF. Thus, there is more Ca2+ in the IF outside the synaptic knob than within the cytosol in the synaptic knob.
∙ Gated channels are closed. These channels include the chemically gated channels in the receptive segment, the voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels in both the initial segment and the conductive segment, and voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the transmissive segment.
∙ There is an electrical charge difference (an electrical gradient) across the plasma membrane; the cytosol adjacent to the plasma membrane is relatively negative in comparison to the IF outside of the cell. This electrical charge difference is called a membrane potential. When the neuron is at rest, the membrane potential is more specifically called the resting membrane potential (RMP). The RMP of a neuron is typically –70 millivolts (mV), but can range between –40 mV and –90 mV.

115
Q

Define resting membrane potential and state its typical value for neurons

A

RMP - Degree of the difference of eletrical charge between points. Typical value for neuron is -70mV
RMP Established via - permeability to ions. Mainly Na+ and K+ leaky channels and maintained by the Na+/K+Pumps. – K+: most important factor, if ONLY K+ leaky channels RMP= -90mV. – Na+: movement of sodium changes RMP to -70mV. moves into the cell due to chemical and electrical gradient. – Negatively charged proteins (A-): adds to the electrical gradient.
Maintaining RMP - Na+/K+Pumps: help maintain 3 Na+out, 2 K+ in. [2/3 total energy expenditure of the Neuron]

116
Q

summarize the events at each neuron segments

A

Receptive segment
Binding of neurotransmitter released from presynaptic neurons; production of graded potentials

Initial segment
Summation of graded potentials; initiation of action potential

Conductive segment
Propagation of action potential

Transmissive segment
Action potential causes release of neurotransmitter

117
Q

Define a graded potential and explain how graded potentials are established in the receptive segment

A

Graded potentials occur in the receptive segment of a neuron (dendrites and cell bodies) and are due to the opening of chemically gated channels. The chemically gated channels open temporarily to allow passage of a relatively small amount of a specific type of ion across the plasma membrane. This results in the membrane potential becoming either more positive (depolarization) or more negative (hyperpolarization) than the resting membrane potential.

118
Q

Compare & contrast an excitatory postsynaptic potential(EPSP) & an inhibitory postsynaptic potential(IPSP)

A

An excitatory postsynaptic potential creates a local depolarization in the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron that brings it closer to threshold. An inhibitor postsynaptic potential does the opposite; it hyper-polarizes the membrane and brings it farther away from threshold.

119
Q

Describe and graph an action potential

A
  1. The unstimulated axon has a resting membrane potential of –70 mV.
  2. Graded potentials reach the initial segment and are added together (–70 mV –55 mV).
  3. Depolarization occurs when the threshold (–55 mV) is reached; voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ enters rapidly, reversing the polarity from negative to positive (–55 mV +30 mV).
  4. Repolarization occurs due to closure of voltage-gated Na+ channels (inactivation state) and opening of voltage-gated K+ channels. K+ moves out of the cell and polarity is reversed from positive to negative (+30 mV –70 mV).
  5. Hyperpolarization occurs when voltage-gated K+ channels stay open longer than the time needed to reach the resting membrane potential; during this time the membrane potential is less than the resting membrane potential (–70 mV –80 mV).
  6. Voltage-gated K+ channels are closed, and the plasma membrane has returned to resting conditions by activity of Na+/K+ pumps (–80 mV –70 mV).
120
Q

Explain propagation of an action potential in both unmyelinated and myelinated axons

A

Specifically how an action potential is propagated along the axon is dependent upon whether the axon is unmyelinated or myelinated. Continuous conduction occurs in unmyelinated axons and involves the sequential opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels located within the axon plasma membrane along the entire length of the axon. When previously discussing the process of action potential conduction, we described it as it would occur in an unmyelinated axon.
Saltatory conduction occurs in myelinated axons. Here, action potentials do not occur in regions of the axon that are myelinated—rather, they are propagated only at neurofibril nodes. This is due to anatomic differences in the two types of regions of a myelinated axon. Myelinated regions of an axon contain limited numbers of voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels, and myelin is a great insulator that prevents ion movement across the plasma membrane even if additional channels are present.

121
Q

Define refractory period and explain the difference between the absolute refractory period and relative
refractory period associated with transmitting an action potential.

A

refractory period: brief time after an action potential has been initiated during which an axon is either incapable of generating another action potential OR a greater than normal amount of stimulation is required to generate another action potential.

Absolute refractory period: time (about 1 millisecond) after an action potential onset when no amount of stimulus, no matter how strong, can initiate a second action potential.

Relative refractory period: occurs immediately after the absolute refractory period

122
Q

Describe events that occur when the propagated action potential reaches the transmissive segment

A
  1. Nerve signal reaches synaptic knob.
  2. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ enters the synaptic knob and binds with proteins associated with synaptic vesicles.
  3. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the synaptic knob plasma membrane and neurotransmitter is exocytosed.
  4. Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft and attaches to receptors on a muscle, as shown (or to receptors of a neuron or gland)
123
Q

Explain the general role of Ca2+ in neurotransmitter release

A

Ca2+ triggers synaptic vesicle exocytosis by binding, thereby releasing the neurotransmitters contained in the vesicles and initiating synaptic transmission

124
Q

Describe the two primary factors that influence the velocity of action potential propagation

A

Diameter of the axon. Nerve signal velocity is generally faster in axons with a larger diameter. This is because there is less resistance to the movement of ions within the larger axon, allowing these axons to reach threshold more rapidly than smaller axons.
∙ Myelination of the axon. Myelination of the axon is the more important factor influencing nerve signal velocity. Nerve signal velocity occurs more rapidly in myelinated axons than in unmyelinated axons

125
Q

Describe how action potentials vary in frequency with the strength of the stimulus

A

Action potentials are always propagated along an axon (as nerve signals) at the same amplitude (change in voltage). However, action potential frequency can vary and is dependent upon the stimulus strength. As the stimulus strength increases, the frequency of action potentials increases (up to the point of maximum frequency)

126
Q

Identify the four classes of neurotransmitters based upon chemical structure

A

∙ Amino acids. These include glutamate, aspartate, serine, glycine, and gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA, a modified amino acid).
∙ Neuropeptides (or peptides). These are chains of amino acids that range in length from 2 to 40 amino acids. Examples of neuropeptides include the natural opiates (e.g., enkephalins, beta-endorphins), and substance P.

Acetylcholine (ACh)

Biogenic amines (also called monoamines). They are derived from certain amino acids by the removal of a carboxyl group (—COOH) and the addition of another functional group (e.g., an hydroxyl group) by enzymatic pathways within the cytosol.

127
Q

Describe how neurotransmitters are classified based upon function

A

Neurotransmitter classification based upon function reflects the specific effect that a neurotransmitter has on the membrane potential of a target cell. Neurotransmitters are considered excitatory if they induce an EPSP, whereas they are inhibitory if they induce an IPSP. (Note that some neurotransmitters may be either excitatory or inhibitory depending upon the specific response they cause in their target organs.)
Another neurotransmitter classification based upon function reflects whether the target cell response is either direct (i.e., the neu- rotransmitter directly binds to the receptor of the target cell to cause opening of an ion channel) or indirect (i.e., the neurotransmitter binds to a receptor that activates the second messenger pathway). The second messenger ultimately can trigger much more diverse effects, including the opening of ion channels, the activation of an existing enzymatic pathway, or transcription of genes for the synthesis of new proteins.

128
Q

Describe how acetylcholine functions as a neurotransmitter

A
  1. ACh is synthesized from acetate and choline stored in the synaptic vesicles in the synaptic knob.

2. ACh is released from the synaptic knob via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft

  1. Some ACh is immediately broken down into acetate and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which resides in the synaptic cleft, and the choline is taken up into the synaptic knob from which it came where it can resynthesized into ACh.
  2. Some ACh binds to receptors on the target cell and then dissociates. Upon dissociation, AChE breaks down the ACh as described in step 3.
129
Q

Discuss the different mechanisms for removing neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft

A

Degradation: when the neurotransmitter is chemically inactivated in the synaptic cleft.

Reuptake: when the neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by a neurotransmitter transport protein in the membrane of the presynaptic neuron. (i.e. The neurotransmitter molecules are “recycled” and “repackaged” into vesicles.)