Lecture Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the general characteristics and functions of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Closely packed cells
  2. Specialized junctions between cells (desmosomes/tight juctions)
  3. Apical-basal polarity (distinct surfaces)
  4. Mitotic (high regeneration capacity)
  5. Avascular (lacks blood vessels) but innervated (supplied by nerve fibers)
  6. Supported by underlying connective tissue (basement membrane)
    Main job is coverage/protection
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2
Q

Tight Junctions

A

Impermeable junctions that dorm continuous seals around the cells prevent molecules from passing through the intercellular space.

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3
Q

Desmosomes

A

Anchoring Junctions that bind adjacent cells together and act like molecular “velcro” and also help form an internal tension-reducing network of fibers.

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4
Q

How is epithelial tissue classified?

A

Number of Cell Layers (Simple vs. Stratified)
and Cell Type (Squamous, cubiodal, and columnar)

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5
Q

What are the different types of epithelial tissue?

A

Squamous, Cuboidal, and Columnar Epithelial

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6
Q

Transitional Epithelium

A

Description: Resembles both stratified squamous and stratified cuboidal; basal cells cuboidal or columnar; surface cells dome shape or squamouslike, depending on degree or origin.
Function: Stretches readily and permits distension of urinary organ by contained urine.
Location: Lines the ureters, urinary bladder, and part of the urethra.

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7
Q

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

A

Description: Thick membrane composed of several layers; basal cells are cuboidal or columnar and metabolically active.
Functions: Protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion.
Location: non keratinized type forms the lining of the esophagus, mouth and vagina. Keratinized forms the epidermis of the skin, a dry membrane.

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8
Q

Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium

A

Description: Single layer of cells of differing heights, some not reaching the free surface; nuclei seen at different levels; may contain mucus-secreting goblet cells and bear cilia.
Functions: secretes substances, particularly mucus; propulsion of mucus by ciliary action.
Location: Ducts of large glands; ciliated versions in upper respiratory tract.

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9
Q

Simple Columnar Epithelium

A

Description: Single Layer of Tall Cells with round to oval nuclei; some cells bear cilia; layer may contain mucus-secreting unicellular glands
Functions: Absorption; secretion of mucus, enzymes, and other substances; ciliated type propels mucus by ciliary action.
Location: Nonciliated type lines most of the digestive tract, gallbladder, and excretory ducts of some glands; ciliated variety lines small bronchi, uterine tubes, and some regions of the uterus.

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10
Q

Simple Cuboidal

A

Description: Single layer of cubelike cells with large, spherical central nuclei
Function: Secretion and Absorption
Location: Kidney Tubules; ducts and secretory portions of small glands; ovary surface

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11
Q

Simple Squamous Epithelium

A

Description: Single layer of flattened cells (Simplest Epithelia)
Function: Allows Materials to pass by diffusion and filtration in sites where protection is not important.
Location: Kidney, air sacs of lungs, lining of the heart, blood vessels, etc.

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12
Q

Reticular CT

A

Description: Network of reticular fibers in a typical loose ground substance; reticular cells lie on the network.
Function: Fibers form a soft internal skeleton that supports other cell types, including white blood cells, mast cells, and macrophages.
Location: Lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, bone marrow, and spleen)

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13
Q

Dense Regular CT

A

Primarily parallel collagen fibers; a few elastic fibers; major cell type is the fibroblast.
Function: Attaches muscles to bones or to other muscles; attaches bones to bones; withstands great tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction
Location: Tendons, most ligaments

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14
Q

Elastic CT

A

Description: Dense Regular CT containing a high proportion of elastic fibers
Function: Allows recoil of tissue following stretching; maintains pulsatile flow of blood through arteries; aids passive recoil of lungs following inspiration
Location: Walls of large arteries, within certain ligaments associated with the vertebral column; within the walls of the bronchial tubes.

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15
Q

Dense Irregular CT

A

Description: Primarily irregularly arranged collagen fibers; some elastic fibers, major cell type is the fibroblast.
Function: Able to withstand tension exerted in many different directions; provides structural strength.
Location: Fibrous capsules of organs and joints; dermis of the skin; submucosa of digestive tract.

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16
Q

Adipose CT

A

Description: Matrix as in areolar, but very sparse; closely packed adipocytes, or fat cells, have nucleus pushes to the side by large fat droplet.
Function: Provides reserve fuel; insulates against heat loss; supports and protects organs.
Location: Under skin, around kidneys and eyeballs; within abdomen; in breasts

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17
Q

Areolar CT

A

Description: Gel-like matrix with all three fiber types; cells; fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and some white blood cells.
Function: Wraps and cushions organs; its macrophages phagocytize bacteria; plays a role in inflammation; holds and conveys tissue fluid
Location: Under epithelia of body

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18
Q

What are glands composed of?

A

Glands are composed of epithelial tissue.
Definition: one or more cells which secrete a product
The product is usually an aqueous fluid containing proteins.
Some glands produce a lipid-rich secretion.

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19
Q

What does the basement membrane consist of?

A
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20
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands: (internally secreting) secrete their product into the surrounding interstitial fluid. They lose their ducts during development. They secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid. These hormones then enter the blood. Ex. Thyroid, gonads, pituitary, part of the pancreas.
Exocrine glands: (externally secreting) secrete their product to the surface of the epithelium. They retain the connecting cells, which form a duct that transports secretions to the epithelial surface. Ex. Sweat, oil, salivary, liver, part of pancreas.

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21
Q

What are the two types of Exocrine Glands

A

Unicellular (Goblet cells)
Multicellular (Many cells secreting into a duct) (Complex structures)

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22
Q

What is the difference between holocrine and merocrine secretion? Include examples of each;)

A

Merocrine secretion: Exocytosis. Ex. Sweat, salivary, pancreas.
Holocrine Secretion: Cell ruptures, releases secretions and dead cell fragments. Ex. Sebaceous (oil)

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23
Q

What are the general characteristics of connective tissue and its functions?

A

Functions: protection, insulation, binding, and support/framework. There are four types of CT:
Connective tissue proper, Cartilage, Bone, and Blood.
Characteristics:
1. CT arises from the same embryonic tissue called mesenchyme (middle layer of cells in embryonic development)
2. CT has variable vascularity (some lack blood vessels - avascular, and some have blood vessels - vascular)
3. Composed of resident cells embedded in a extracellular matrix (ECM)

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24
Q

What are the 4 common characteristics of connective tissue?

A

Extracellular matrix, common origin, variable vascularity

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25
Q

What are the types of fibers found in connective tissues and what are their functions?

A

There are three types of fibrous proteins: (1) collagen, (2) elastic, and (3) reticular fibers. These fibrous proteins are surrounded by water and protein-sugar complexes to form a gel-like substance called ground substance.

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26
Q

Extracellular Matrix (ECM)

A

Composition: ground substance and fibers in which cells are scattered
- Non Cellular
- Secreted by fibroblasts in “proper” CT or resident cells in other types of CT
- Consistency varies (could be a fluid, solid, or jelly) blood=fluid, bone=solid
- Very evident except in adipose CT

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27
Q

Fibers

A

Fibrous Proteins
- Synthesized by the fibroblasts in proper CT
Collagen – strongest and functions to resist stretching or tension
Elastic – can be stretched/want to be stretched
Reticular – short fine fibers (supporting mesh that supports other cells)

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28
Q

What is the composition of ground substance?

A

Interstitial fluid containing proteins and sugars that cause it to act like “glue”

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29
Q

Bone Tissue

A

Subclasses: Compact bone and spongy bone
Cells: Osteoblasts and Osteocytes
Matrix: Gel-like ground substance calcified with inorganic salts, collagen fibers
Features: Hard tissues that resist both compression and tension, supports

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30
Q

Blood Slide

A

Cells: Red and White blood cells, Platelets
Matrix: Plasma, No fibers
Features: Fluid tissue, Functions to carry O2, CO2, Nutrients, Wastes, and other substances

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31
Q

Connective Tissue Proper

A

Subclasses: Loose connective tissue (Areolar, adipose, reticular) and dense connective tissue (regular, irregular, and reticular)
Cells: Fibroblasts, fibrocytes, defense cells, adipocytes
Matrix: Gel-like ground substance, all three fiber types (collagen, reticular, and elastic)
Features: Resists mechanical stress, nutrient storage, acts as binding tissue

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32
Q

Cartilage

A

Subclasses: Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage.
Cells: Chondroblasts and chondrocytes
Matrix: Gel-like ground Substance, some have elastic and collagen fibers
Features: Cushions and supports body structures

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33
Q

What cells are contained within the CT

A

Fibroblasts → Fibrocytes
Chondroblasts → Chondrocytes
Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
Blood cells formed from hematopoietic stem cells (some exceptions, present in bone marrow)
(cells present in CT)
Blast=build (immature version of the cell
Cyte = mature version
Other cells: mast cells, adipocytes, white blood cells, macrophages

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34
Q

What are the different types of cells that
produce and maintain the matrix of connective tissue?

A

ground substance and fibrous proteins, but can vary in consistency. For example, in blood, the ECM is a fluid. In bone, the ECM is a hard, calcified matrix.

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35
Q

What are the three different muscle tissues?

A

Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth Muscle

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36
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

Description: Spindle-shaped cells with central nuclei; no striations; cells arranged closely to form sheets.
Function: Propels substances or a baby along internal passageways; involuntary control.
Location: Mostly in the walls of hollow organs

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37
Q

Cardiac Muscle

A

Description: branching, striated, generally uninucleate cells that interdigitate at specialized junctions called intercalated discs.
Functions: As it contracts, cardiac muscle propels blood into the circulation, involuntary control.
Location: Walls of the heart

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38
Q

Skeletal Muscle

A

Description: Long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells; obvious striations
Function: Voluntary movement; locomotion; manipulation of the environment; facial expression; voluntary control.
Location: In skeletal muscles attached to bones or occasionally to skin.

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39
Q

What are the two general cell types within nervous tissue and what are the differences between them?

A

Neurons: Most abundant. Sends and receives electrical impulses.
Glia: Neurological are not electrically active.

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40
Q

Nervous Tissue

A

Main component of nervous system (brain, spinal cord, nerves)
Nervous system regulates and controls body functions

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41
Q

What is a keratinocyte?

A

represent the major cell type of the epidermis, the outermost of the layers of the skin

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42
Q

What is the difference between sudoriferous and sebaceous glands? Location? Function?

A

Sebaceous or oil glands discharge a waxy oily substance called sebum into the hair follicles which lubricate the hair shaft and the skin. Sudoriferous or sweat glands are located over our entire body and consists of two types. Apocrine sweat glands and merocrine sweat glands.

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43
Q

What is the difference between eccrine and apocrine sudoriferous glands as to function and location?

A

Eccrine sweat glands occur over most of the body and open directly onto the skin’s surface. Apocrine glands open into the hair follicle, leading to the surface of the skin. Apocrine glands develop in areas with many hair follicles, such as on the scalp, armpits and groin.

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44
Q

Describe a 1st degree burn

A

only epidermis
Redness, pain, slight edema
Heals 3-5 days

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45
Q

Describe a 2nd degree burn

A

epidermis and upper dermis
Redness, pain, blisters
Heals 2-4 weeks
May not scar
Need to prevent infection

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46
Q

Describe a 3rd degree burn

A

entire thickness of skin
Nerve endings destroyed
Severe fluid loss
Scarring
Skin grafts

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47
Q

What are the three different types of skin cancer? Describe origin, appearance, and severity.

A
  1. Basal cell carcinoma
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. (Malignant) Melanoma
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48
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

Least malignant, most common
Stratum Basale cells proliferate and invade dermis and subcutaneous tissue
Slow growing, rarely metastasizes
Surgical excision

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49
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

Second most common
Keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
Grow rapidly, can metastasize if not removed
Radiation or surgical removal

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50
Q

Melanoma

A

Melanocytes
Highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy
2-3% of skin cancers
Surgical excision and immunotherapy

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51
Q

ABCD characteristics of Melanoma

A

Asymmetry
Border irregular
Color: several
Diameter: >6 mm
Evolving

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52
Q

Which is the most deadly form of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma

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53
Q

What are osteocytes and what is their function?

A

maintaining matrix , had been osteoblasts

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54
Q

What are osteoclasts and what is their function?

A

degrades and breaks down matrix

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55
Q

What are hydroxyapatite crystals?

A

Tiny crystals of hydroxyapatite sometimes form in or around joints and can cause inflammation of joints and tissues around the joints, such as tendons and ligaments

56
Q

What is the difference between primary ossification sites and secondary ossification sites in endochondral ossification?

A

Primary ossification center forms in the diaphyseal region of the periosteum called the periosteal collar. Secondary ossification centers develop in the epiphyseal region after birth

57
Q

Describe bone remodeling. How is it impacted by mechanical forces and gravity?

A
58
Q

How is bone affected by parathyroid hormone and calcitonin?

A
59
Q

parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are involved in maintaining the homeostatic balance of what factor?

A
60
Q

What conditions stimulate the secretion of each the parathyroid hormone and calcitonin?

A
61
Q

What are the hormones that influence bone growth? How does each act? Which is the most important for growth in height in a child or adolescent?

A
62
Q

What is osteomalacia? What is the cause?

A

Osteomalacia is softening of the bones. It most often occurs because of a problem with vitamin D, which helps your body absorb calcium. Your body needs calcium to maintain the strength and hardness of your bones.

63
Q

Describe the sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture.

A
64
Q

What is Rickets? What is the cause?

A
65
Q

What is synarthroses?

A

an immovably fixed joint between bones connected by fibrous tissue (for example, the sutures of the skull).

66
Q

What is amphiarthroses?

A

a type of articulation permitting only slight movement, as between the vertebrae of the backbone

67
Q

What is diarthroses?

A

articulation that permits free movement

68
Q

Describe the characteristics of cartilaginous joints? What are their subtypes?

A
69
Q

Describe the characteristics of fibrous joints? What are their subtypes?

A
70
Q

Describe the characteristics of synovial joints? What are their subtypes

A
71
Q

What are disorders of the joints?

A
72
Q

Besides oxygen, what other bloodborne material must be provided to the affected tissues in adequate quantities to promote normal wound healing?

A

Nutrients

73
Q

The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium?

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

74
Q

The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?

A

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

75
Q

The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

76
Q

Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron?

A

Soma

77
Q

Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei?

A

Skeletal

78
Q

Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control?

A

Cardiac

79
Q

Which tissue type consists of a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity?

A

Epithelial Tissue

80
Q

Which types of cell junctions are needed in a mucosal membrane, such as the digestive tract, to keep the digestive enzymes, juices, and bacteria from leaking out?

A

Tight Junctions

81
Q

What is Fibrocartilage?

A

a type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension

82
Q

What is reticular connective tissue?

A

the type of connective tissue that forms a structural net to support other cells

83
Q

Chondrocytes

A

The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them

84
Q

Mesenchyme

A

The middle portion of unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop

85
Q

Stratified Epithelia

A

Any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings

86
Q

Why does your skin remain red after a bad sunburn?

A

Inflammation causes increased blood flow.

87
Q

Why would a third-degree burn be less painful than a first- or second-degree burn involving the same body area?

A

destruction of underlying pain receptors

88
Q

What are the primary chemical functions of the integument?

A
  1. Acid mantle: low pH of sweat
  2. Antibacterial agents
  3. Melanin: hinders UV damage
89
Q

What are the primary physical functions of the integument?

A
  1. Continuity of skin with keratinized cells
  2. Extracellular glycolipids
  3. Protection from harmful chemicals, toxins, and microbes
  4. Prevents water loss
90
Q

What are the primary biological functions of the integument?

A
  1. Epidermal dendritic cells: activate immune response to foreign substance
  2. Dermal macrophages: phagocytosis
91
Q

Stratum Basale

A
  • Bottom layer, one row of cells, highly mitotic
  • Keratinocytes begin here
  • Melanocytes: synthesize melanin
    All humans same #
    Activity of cells vary as does type of melanin
92
Q

Stratum Granulosum

A
  • Last layer of living cells
  • Keratinization process begins
93
Q

Keratinization

A
  • Cells flatten and nuclei and organelles disintegrate
  • Accumulate keratohyalin and lamellar granules
  • Keratohyalin granules → keratin
  • Lamellar granules → extracellular glycolipids
94
Q

Stratum Lucidum

A
  • Visible only in thick skin (palms, soles)
  • Dead cells
95
Q

Stratum Corneum

A
  • Dead cells filled with keratin protein
  • Glycolipids between cells
  • “Cornified” cells continually slough off
  • Protection against abrasion and penetration
96
Q

What does the dermis consist of?

A
  • Mostly dense irregular CT
  • Within dermis: blood vessels, receptors, glands, hair follicles
  • 2 major layers: Papillary and Reticular
97
Q

Papillary Layer

A
  • Thin
  • Areolar CT
  • Dermal macrophages and other immune cells patrol
  • Projections of dermis into epidermis: dermal papillae
  • Nervous structures present to sense pain and touch
    Tactile corpuscles
    Meissner’s corpuscles
98
Q

Reticular Layer

A
  • Dense irregular CT
  • 80% of dermis thickness
  • *Reticular does NOT indicate high abundance of reticular fibers
  • Collagen + elastic fibers giving skin tensile stretch and stretch-recoil properties
99
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A
  • Keratinocytes: geometric shaped 🡪flattened
  • Desmosomes: evident here but throughout epidermis
  • Epidermal dendritic cells
100
Q

What are the different layers of skin?

A

Stratum Basale, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, and Stratum Corneum

101
Q

The source of the fluid that accumulates in a blister is

A

the plasma of the blood flowing through the numerous dermal blood vessels

102
Q

You have learned that tape or adhesive bandages must be removed carefully from the skin on patients who are elderly to avoid tearing their fragile skin. What accounts for the fragility of their skin?

A

There are fewer collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis as we age, contributing to wrinkling and increased susceptibility to tearing of the skin.

103
Q

What are the four types of tissues in the human body?

A

Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous

104
Q

How do you classify Epithelium?

A

Number of cell layers and cell type

105
Q

Stratified

A

Many Cell Layers

106
Q

Simple

A

Single Cell Layer

107
Q

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

A

Description: Thick membrane composed of several layers; basal cells are cubiodal or columnar and meta

108
Q

Characteristics of Spongy, Trabecular, and Cancellous Bone

A
  • Trabeculae - irregular lamellae
  • Have no osteons
  • High porosity
  • Organized along stress lines
109
Q

Characteristics of Short, Flat, and Irregular Bones

A
  • Thin plates of spongy/trabecular bone covered by compact bone
  • Covered by 2 membranes: endosteum and periosteum
  • No shaft or expanded ends
  • Contain bone marrow between trabeculae
110
Q

Examples of Short Bones

A

Carpal Bones (Cube Shaped)

111
Q

What bones do the axial skeleton consist of?

A

The skull, vertebrae, sternum, and ribs

112
Q

What bones do the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

bones composing the body appendages

113
Q

Characteristics of Long Bones

A
  • Covered by 2 membranes: endosteum and periosteum
  • Shaft (diaphysis) and expanded ends (epiphyses)
  • Contains cortical and trabecular bone
    Contains bone marrow (yellow and red)
114
Q

Example of Long Bone

A

Femur (Form the framework of the appendicular skeleton)

115
Q

Examples of Irregular Bones

A

Vertebrae (Different shapes to fulfill special functions in the human body)

116
Q

Epiphyses

A

bone ends
Compact bone forms exterior, interior is spongy bone
Covered by thin layer of articular cartilage on joint surface
Epiphyseal line is remnant of epiphyseal plate (growth plate)

117
Q

Diaphysis

A

long axis of bone
Collar of compact bone surrounding central medullary cavity
Thin layer of spongy bone found between marrow and compact bone
Medullary cavity

118
Q

Examples of Flat Bones

A

Scapula (Protects organs and provides surfaces for muscle and ligament attachments)

119
Q

Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children?

A

Calcitonin

120
Q

PTH (parathyroid hormones) promote the formation of which hormone?

A

Calcitriol

121
Q

Would the increase of osteoblast activity with parathyroid hormones (PTH) alter plasma calcium levels?

A

PTH would NOT increase osteoblasts. Osteoblasts stored calcium on bone, thus lowering plasma calcium levels.

122
Q

Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?

A

Calcitriol

123
Q

Osteoid-producing osteoblasts must rely on this organelle to produce primary structures leading to the formation of collagen and calcium-binding proteins.

A

Ribosomes

124
Q

What contributes most directly to the hardness of bones?

A

Hydroxyapatite, or mineral salts such as calcium phosphate, accounts for the most notable characteristic of bone—its exceptional hardness, which allows it to resist compression

125
Q

Does bone play a role in waste removal?

A

Waste removal is not a role of bone; it takes place primarily in kidneys

126
Q

The epiphyseal plate is primarily made up of…

A

The cartilage models used to form bones are composed of hyaline cartilage. This tissue persists within the epiphyseal plate at the boundary between primary and secondary ossification centers until early adulthood.

127
Q

What event at the epiphyseal plate leads to the elongation of the bone?

A

Cell division of chondrocytes occurs on the epiphysis facing side. Rather than dividing, here chondrocytes hypertrophy and deteriorate along the diaphyseal surface of the growth plate.

128
Q

Where is hematopoietic tissue located within the bone?

A

Hematopoietic tissue is found in the red bone marrow within certain body locations consisting of spongy bone. Examples include the diploe of flat bones and the proximal epiphyses of the femur and humerus (pictured).

129
Q

What element of fibrous joints gives the joint its ability to resist stretching and control the amount of movement at the joint?

A

Collagen Fibers

130
Q

Which joint has most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?

A

Shoulder Joint. In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint in the body. The articulating bones provide minimal joint stability because of the size and “fit” of the articulating surfaces. The major stabilizing forces are soft tissue, in particular the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (via muscle tone).

131
Q

What element of fibrous joints gives the joint its ability to resist stretching and control the amount of movement at the joint?

A

Collagen Fibers

132
Q

Which joint has most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?

A

Shoulder

133
Q

A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as a

A

Cartilaginous Joint

134
Q

What factor does not contribute to the strength and stability of a synovial joint?

A

Synovial Fluid

135
Q

Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. Which of these joints is MOST likely to be dislocated?

A

Shoulder

136
Q

Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

137
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

Least malignant, most common
Stratum Basale cells proliferate and invade dermis and subcutaneous tissue
Slow growing, rarely metastasizes
Surgical excision