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Clinical Procedures > Lecture Exam 1 > Flashcards

Lecture Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Wavelength is defined as the number of cycles per second

A

False

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2
Q

T/F: To achieve deeper tissue penetration, the wavelength must be increased

A

True

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3
Q

T/F: Continuous shortwave diathermy produces thermal effects

A

True

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4
Q

T/F: Wavelength is defined as the distance between the peak of once wave and peak of the next wave

A

True

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT an electromagnetic energy modality?

a. ultraviolet light
b. ultrasound
c. low-power lair
d. shortwave diathermy

A

b. ultrasound (this is sound energy)

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6
Q

Sound or radiation waves that change direction when passing from one type of tissue to another are said to

a. transmit
b. absorb
c. reflect
d. refract

A

d. refract

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7
Q

The ___________ states that if superficial tissue does not absorb energy, it must be transmitted deeper

a. Law of Grotthus-Draper
b. Cosine law
c. Inverse square law
d. Arndt-Schultz principle

A

a. Law of Grotthus-Draper

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8
Q

According to the cosine law, to minimize reflection and maximize absorption, the energy source must be at a ___________ angle to the surface

a. 45 degree
b. 90 degree
c. 180 degree
d. 0 degree

A

b. 90 degree

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9
Q

Electrical stimulating currents may produce the following effects:

a. muscle contraction
b. net ion movement
c. decrease in pain
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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10
Q

Thermal energy modalities generally affect superficial tissue up to _________ cm deep.

a. 5 cm
b. .5 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 10 cm

A

c. 1 cm

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11
Q

Based on their difference characteristics, which of the following travels at greater velocity through human tissue?

a. sound energy
v. electromagnetic energy
c. both a and b travel at the SAME rate
d. Neither a nor b travel through human tissue

A

a. sound energy

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12
Q

T/F: Loss of function is a sign of the inflammatory process

A

True

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13
Q

T/F: Leukocytes are present in both the acute and chronic inflammatory responses

A

False (only present during acute)

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14
Q

T/F: An injured individual’s health, age, and nutrition are factors that influence healing

A

True

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15
Q

Put the three phases of healing in order:

fibroblastic-repair, inflammatory-response, maturation-remodeling

A
  1. inflammatory-response
  2. fibroblastic-repair
  3. maturation-remodeling
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16
Q

Which of the following type of cell has phagocytic characteristics?

a. red blood cells
b. platelets
c. leukocytes
d. endothelials

A

c. leukocytes

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17
Q

The extracellular matrix, formed by fibroblastic cells, consists of

a. collagen
b. elastic
c. ground substance
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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18
Q

During the inflammatory-response phase of the healing process, modalities are used to

a. control pain
b. reduce swelling
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

A

c. both a and b

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19
Q

_____________ states that bone and soft tissue remodel and realign according to the physical demands placed on them.

a. Wolff’s Law
b. Ohm’s Law
c. Meissner’s Law
d. McGill’s Law

A

a. Wolff’s Law

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20
Q

Approximately how long does the maturation-remodeling phase of the healing process last?

a. less than 1 week
b. 1 week
c. 1-2 weeks
d. 3 weeks to 2 years

A

d. 3 weeks to 2 years

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a chemical mediator involved in the inflammatory-response phase?

a. testosterone
b. histamine
c. necrosin
d. leukotaxin

A

a. testosterone

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22
Q

T/F: Stimulation of endothelial cell function and angiogenesis will promote healing by improving tissue oxygen perfusion

A

False

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23
Q

T/F: Rinsing the limb after hydrotherapy tank use will help to reduce bacterial colonization on the surface of wounds.

A

True

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24
Q

Which of the following modalities have been shown to be most likely to kill bacteria when applied to in vitro cultures of bacteria that are commonly found in chronic wounds?

a. pneumatic compression
b. laser
c. noncontact, nonthermal ultrasound
d. hydrotherapy
e. UVC

A

a. pneumatic compression

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25
Q

Which of the following modalities help to heal wounds by removing foreign or devitalized tissues (debridement)?

a. electrical stimulation
b. laser
c. noncontact, nonthermal ultrasound
d. hydrotherapy
e. UVC

A

c. noncontact, nontheramal ultrasound

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26
Q

The highest level of research evidence is available for which of the following modalities to treat pressure ulcers in people with SCI?

a. negative pressure therapy
b. hyperbaric oxygen therapy
c. therapeutic ultrasound
d. electrical stimulation
c. last therapy

A

d. electrical stimulation

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27
Q

Which physiological réponse requires the strongest electrical similes or greatest electrical charge?

a. subsensory
b. submotor
c. motor
d. noxious or painful stimuli
e. sensory

A

d. noxious or painful stimuli

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28
Q

Which of the following changes would promote a greater depth of penetration of an electrical signal when using mono polar electrode setup?

a. increase the size of the active electrode
b. improve the conductivity of the wound packing material
c. move the dispersive electrode close to the active electrode
d. decrease the electrical pulse frequency
e. increase the intensity of the electrical signal

A

e. increase the intensity of the electrical signal

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29
Q

Which of the following modalities require the longest application time?

a. therapeutic ultrasound
b. hydrotherapy tank
c. UVC
d. laser

A

b. hydrotherapy tank

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30
Q

Which of the following mechanisms are believed to underlie the healing response to electrical stimulation?

a. galvanotaxis
b. epithelial migration
c. fibroblast proliferation
d. bactericidal effects
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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31
Q

Which of the following modalities are not generally thought to stimulate inflammatory cell function (i.e. macrophages)

a. therapeutic ultrasound
b. pneumatic compression therapy
c. laser
d. electrical stimulation
e. hydrotherapy

A

b. pneumatic compression therapy

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32
Q

Your patient has an arterial ulcer located on the distal end of her great toe. Which of the following modalities is contraindicated?

a. therapeutic ultrasound
b. pneumatic compression therapy
c. heat therapy
d. hydrotherapy
e. electrical stimulation

A

a. therapeutic ultrasound

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33
Q

T/F: Both sclerotic and radiating pain may cause pin away from the site of the disorder

A

True

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34
Q

T/F: Afferent nerve fibers conduct impulses from the brain to peripheral sites

A

False

35
Q

T/F: Serotonin and B-endorphin affect synaptic activity

A

True

36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of pain assessment?

a. MPQ
b. Snellen test
c. visual analog scales
d. numeric pain scale

A

b. Snellen test

37
Q

Pain receptors in the body are called ___________.

a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. Krause’s end bulbs
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. nociceptors

A

d. nociceptors

38
Q

Which of the following plays a role in transmitting sensations of pain?

a. substance P
b. enkephalin
c. dynorphin
d. serotonin

A

A. substance P

39
Q

Stimulation of the SG occurs in the ____________ theory of pain.

a. space
b. descending
c. gate control
d. enkephalin release

A

c. gate control

40
Q

B-Endorphin, an endogenous opioid, is released from the _________.

a. hypothalamus
b. anterior pituitary gland
c. rephe nucleaus
d. a and b

A

d. a and b

41
Q

Which of the following cognitive processes may affect pain perception?

a. depression
b. past pain experiences
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

A

c. both a and b

42
Q

T/F: Electrons tend to flow from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration

A

False

43
Q

T/F: Insulators resist current flow

A

True

44
Q

T/F: The greater the voltage, the greater the amplitude is

A

True

45
Q

T/F: The cathode is the negatively charged electrode in a DC system

A

True

46
Q

T/F: Chronaxie refers to the minimum current intensity needed for tissue excitation if applied for a maximum time

A

False

47
Q

T/F: The electrode with the greatest current density is the active electrode

A

True

48
Q

A particle of matter with very little mass and a negative charge is a(n)

a. ion
b. electron
c. neutron
d. proton

A

b. electron

49
Q

What is the name of the unit measuring the force necessary to produce electron movement

a. ampere
b. coulomb
c. volt
d. watt

A

c. volt

50
Q

In ________ current, electron flow constantly changes direction

a. alternating
b. direct
c. pulsatile
d. galvanic

A

a. alternating

51
Q

When the current increases gradually to a maximal amplitude, it is known as

a. burst
b. ramping
c. modultion
d. galvanic

A

b. ramping

52
Q

In ____________ circuits, electrons have only one path to follow

a. galvanic
b. parallel
c. resistor
d. series

A

d. series

53
Q

Physiologic response(s) to electrical current include

a. thermal
b. chemical
c. physiologic
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

54
Q

All whirlpools and tubs in a health care setting must have

a. GFI (ground-fault interruptors)
b. a three-pronged outlet
c. an insulted cord
d. a waterproof motor

A

a. GFI

55
Q

During the absolute refractory period the cell is not capable of

a. depolarization
b. an action potential
c. twitch muscle contraction
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

56
Q

The part of the cell responsible for transmitting messages to other cells via ionic, electrical or small molecule signals is the

a. electret
b. gap junction
c. dipole
d. cell membrane pump

A

b. gap junction

57
Q

To ________ current density in deeper tissue, the electrodes must be placed ________.

a. increase, closer
b. increase, further apart
c. decrease, closer
d. decrease, further apart

A

b. increase, further apart

58
Q

Electrical stimulation may release enkphalin and endorphin to cause pain relief. What is the name of this pain control method?

a. gate control theory
b. central biasing theory
c. opiate pain control theory
d. placebo effects

A

c. opiate pain control theory

59
Q

Two currents combine and the amplitude decreases. This is called

a. destructive interference
b. constructive interference
c. heterodyne current
d. beat current

A

a. destructive interference

60
Q

Which of the following currents is a pulsatile biphasic wave, generated in bursts, designed to create muscle contraction

a. LIS
b. iontophoresis
c. IFC
d. Russian

A

d. Russian

61
Q

Increased blood flow between electrodes is an effect of which of the following?

a. IFC
b. function electrical stimulation
c. LIS
d. medical galvanism

A

d. medical galvanism

62
Q

T/F: Ionization is the movement of ions in solution

A

False

63
Q

T/F: The dispersive electrode contains the ions

A

False (active contains ions)

64
Q

T/F: pH reactions of greater than 5 are alkaline

A

True

65
Q

Which type of current does iontophoresis produce?

a. biphasic
b. continuous monophasic
c. polyphyasic
d. pulsatile

A

b. continuous monophasic

66
Q

What is the recommended range for iontophoresis current amplitude?

a. 3-5 mA
b. 5-10 mA
c. 50-100 mA
d. 100-150 mA

A

a. 3-5 mA

67
Q

Chemical burn is often associated with iontophoresis and may be attributed to

a. allergic reaction
b. poor electrode contact
c. the medication
d. continuous direct current

A

d. continuous direct current

68
Q

Which of the following is NOT an ion used to treat inflammation?

a. hydrocortisone
b. salicylate
c. lidocaine
d. dexamethasone

A

c. lidocaine

69
Q

Skin impedance usually decreased during treatment. _______ should be decreased to avoid pain and burning.

a. current intensity
b. electrode size
c. treatment time
d. ion dosage

A

a. current intensity

70
Q

What problem to areas of thick fat and skin present?

a. decreased ion absorption
b. increased ion absorption
c. decreased resistance
d. increased resistance

A

d. increased resistance

71
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for iontophoresis?

a. inflammation
b. analgesia
c. asthma
d. muscle spasm

A

c. asthma

72
Q

T/F: Biofeedback units measure physiologic processes

A

False

73
Q

T/F: The reference electrode has no charge associated with it.

A

True

74
Q

T/F: A high signal gain means the biofeedback unit has a low sensitivity for muscle activity

A

False

75
Q

Soem biofeedback instruments measure peripheral skin temp. Which of the following do they also measure?

a. finger phototransmission
b. skin conduct act activity
c. electromygraphic activity
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

76
Q

Biofeedback electrodes should be placed as near to the muscle of interest as possible. They should also be placed ________ to the muscle.

a. perpendicular
b. parallel
c. obliquely
d. none of the above

A

b. parallel

77
Q

What is the principle that allows the biofeedback unit to eliminate com one noise between active electrodes?

a. CMRR (common mode rejection ratio)
b. filtering
c. rectification
d. integration

A

a. CMRR

78
Q

Raw EMG must be converted to a visual or audio format. What is the order of that conversion?
integrated, rectified, smoothed

A

c. rectified, smoothed, integrated

79
Q

The goal of using biofeedback in muscle reeducation is to elicit a

a. twitch response
b. muscle contraction
c. decrease in pain
d. relaxation

A

b. muscle contraction

80
Q

How long should the average biofeedback period for a single muscle be to avoid fatigue?

A

5-10 minutes

81
Q

What factor(s) must be addressed when using biofeedback to relax muscle guarding?

a. pain
b. mental imagery
c. apprehension
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

82
Q

T/F: Both myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton are examples of postsynaptic dysfunction.

A

False

83
Q

T/F: A fibrillation potential represents the electrical activity associated with the spontaneous contraction of a single muscle fiber

A

True

84
Q

T/F: A fasciculation potential is the potential associated with random & spontaneous activation of a group of muscle fibers or all of the muscle fibers originating from a motor unit

A

True

Clinical Procedures (1 decks)

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