Lecture 9: Principles of Onco Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many deaths is cancer responsible for in the US?

A

1 in 4 deaths ):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What # cause of death is cancer in the US?

A

1 is Tobacco

Second leading cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 MC cancers?

A

Lung
Colon
Breast
Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the top 3 MC cancers for males? Females?

A

Males:
Prostate
Lung/bronchus
Colorectal

Females:
Breast
Lung/bronchus
Colorectal

AKA lung and colorectal + gender-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MC cancer to cause death in our age group?

A

Leukemia

Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What factors affect a person’s chance of developing cancer?

A

Exposure to certain environmental factors (diet, hormones)

Genetic makeup
Age/gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is cancer prevention concerned with?

A

Identification and manipulation of biologic, environmental, social, and genetic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Healthy lifestyle, designed to avoid ALL carcinogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the biggest factor in cancer susceptibility?

A

Environment!!

Genes play a minor role and are only for a few select cancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common PREVENTABLE cause of cancer death in the US?

A

Smoking tobacco

80% of lung cancers are associated with smoking tobacco.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is adequate physical activity good at preventing cancer-wise?

A

Reduced risk of colon and breast cancer.

AKA gender-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what BMI does cancer risk seem to start increasing significantly?

A

25

AKA overweight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of diets are associated with increased risk of breast, colon, prostate, and endometrium?

A

Diets high in fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Eating what in your diet is associated with a reduced risk of colonic polyps and colonic cancer?

A

Dietary fiber!

Cleaning the poop out = good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does alcohol increase the risk of cancer-wise?

A

Mouth
Throat
Liver
Larynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cancer is EBV most associated with?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Nasal T cell lymphoma

BNE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cancer is estrogen most associated with?

A

Endometrium
Liver
Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What cancer is ethyl alcohol most associated with?

A

Liver
Esophagus
Head and Neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cancer is H. pylori most associated with?

A

Gastric cancer
Gastric MALT lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What cancer is Hep B or C most associated with?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cancer is UV sunlight most associated with?

A

Skin cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cancer is tobacco most associated with?

A

Cancer of the upper aerodigestive tract
Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is secondary prevention concerned with?

A

Early detection and treatment.

Identifying people who are most at risk and implementing screening assessments for them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 4 things describe a screening test’s capability?

A

Sensitivity: # of people who test true positive in the screening.
Specificity: # of people who are true negatives in the screening.
PPV: # of people who are positive that have disease.
NPV: # of people who are negative that lack disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What cancers do we generally screen for routinely?

A

Cervical
Colon
Prostate
Breast
Lung (if at risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When are annual mammograms indicated?

A

Age 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is not recommended per USPSTF and ACS?

A

Clinical breast exams
Self breast exams

28
Q

When does colorectal cancer screening begin?

A

Age 45

29
Q

When does cervical cancer screening begin?

A

21

30
Q

What is the mnemonic for warning signs of cancer?

A

CAUTION

Change in bowel or bladder habits
A sore that does not heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge
Thickening or lump in breasts, testes, etc.
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious change in size/color of a mole
Nagging cough or hoarseness

31
Q

What are some classical findings of cancer?

A

Nightsweats
Unexplained weight loss or loss of appetite
Persistent low-grade fever

Chronic pain
Persistent fatigue

32
Q

What must be done to diagnose someone with cancer 100%?

A

An invasive tissue biopsy.

Non-invasive diagnostic tests are only suggestive.

33
Q

What are the two components to diagnosing cancer?

A

Staging it
Monitoring it

34
Q

What is staging?

A

Determining the extent of a disease, prognosis, and best treatment plan.

35
Q

How common is depression in cancer pts?

A

25% incidence rate

36
Q

What are some options we can treat with if a cancer pt becomes depressed?

A

SSRIs
Sertraline
Paroxetine
TCAs

37
Q

What are the two types of staging?

A

Clinical staging
Pathologic staging

38
Q

What tests are run for clinical staging?

A

PE
Radiographs
Isotopic scans
CT scans

39
Q

What is involved in pathologic staging?

A

Palpation
Resection of lymph nodes
Inspection and biopsy.

Generally the info you obtain during a surgical procedure.

40
Q

What is the first step in managing a cancer pt?

A

Determining the extent of the disease, aka staging it.

41
Q

What is the common way to stage a cancer?

A

TNM
Tumor
Node
Metastasis

42
Q

What is each component of TNM associated with?

A

Tumor is to check the size of the main tumor and if it has spread nearby.

Node is whether it has spread to regional lymph nodes.

Metastasis is whether it has spread beyond its region to other organs.

43
Q

What kind of cancers cannot be staged by something like TNM?

A

Hematopoietic cancers, like leukemia or lymphoma.

44
Q

What is physiologic reserve?

A

A patient’s likelihood of being able to cope with the physiologic stresses of cancer treatment.

45
Q

What are some markers for physiologic reserve?

A

Age
Karnofsky performance status
Eastern cooperative oncology group performance status (ECOG)

46
Q

How is Karnofsky performance status graded?

A

0-100, 100 being normal.

Has to do with ability to take care of oneself physically.

47
Q

How is ECOG status graded?

A

Grade 0-5.
Grade 5 is dead.

Grade 4 is bedbound

48
Q

What are the two goals of a treatment plan for cancer?

A

Curative
Palliative

49
Q

What is the difference between remission and relapse?

A

Remission is lack of S/S of cancer.

Relapse is a return of S/S. Treating a relapse is called salvage therapy.

50
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Improving quality of life.
Managing symptoms

No goal of curing the disease.

51
Q

What are tumor markers mainly used for?

A

Determining a patient’s RESPONSE to treatment.

52
Q

What cancer is HCG associated with?

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease, gonadal germ cell tumor.

Also in pregnancy.

53
Q

What cancer is calcitonin associated with?

A

Medullary cancer of the thyroid

54
Q

What cancer is alpha-fetoprotein associated with?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Gonadal germ cell tumor.

55
Q

What cancer is carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) associated with?

A

Adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, breast, ovary

Also in pancreatitis, hepatitis, IBD, and smokers

56
Q

What cancer is LDH associated with?

A

Lymphoma
Ewing’s sarcoma

Also in Hepatitis, hemolytic anemia, and many others.

57
Q

What cancer is PSA associated with?

A

Prostate

Also in prostatitis and BPH

58
Q

What is cancer is CA-125 associated with?

A

Ovarian cancer
Lymphomas

Also in menstruation, peritonitis, and pregnancy.

59
Q

What cancer is CA 19-9 associated with?

A

COLON
Pancreatic
Breast

Also in pancreatitis and ulcerative colitis.

60
Q

What tumor markers can be present in pregnancy?

A

HCG
CA-125

61
Q

What tumor markers are specifically tumor-associated proteins?

A

PSA
CA-125
CA 19-9

62
Q

What tumor marker is mainly for colon cancer?

A

CA 19-9

63
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for cancer that we CANNOT modify?

A

Age

64
Q

What is the most common cancer to cause death?

A

Lung cancer

65
Q

What are the oncofetal antigens that are used as tumor markers?

A

Alpha fetoprotein
CEA

66
Q

What enzyme is used as a tumor marker?

A

LDH