Lecture 7/8 Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) Store bought fresh foods that approximate what is eating in the wild will be adequate for the majority of zoo animals.

A

(F, store bought vegetables and fruits are rarely as nutritionally complete as their wild counterparts)

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2
Q

(T/F) The effects of poor nutrition are subtle and may not be seen until animals are exposed to disease, expected to reproduce, or expected to grow.

A

(T)

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3
Q

How have animals evolved to deal with food scarcity in the wild?

A

(They confine nutritionally costly processes to periods of nutritional abundance)

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4
Q

(T/F) Lack of variability in food availability can induce a lack of typical signals that trigger certain behaviors in wild animals.

A

(T)

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5
Q

Explain the difference between cats (strict carnivores) and dogs (facultative carnivores) in relation to nitrogen.

A

(Cats → limited regulation of urea cycle so nitrogen losses remain elevated if dietary nitrogen is low, need constant protein to keep nitrogen high; dogs → able to conserve nitrogen when dietary levels are low)

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6
Q

Explain the difference between cats (strict carnivores) and dogs (facultative carnivores) in relation to carbohydrates.

A

(Cats → lack hepatic glycolytic enzyme glucokinase (i.e. cannot convert carbs into glucose) and derive most of their blood glucose from specific amino acids via gluconeogenic pathways; dogs → use glucokinase to derive blood glucose from carbs in the diet)

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7
Q

Explain the difference between cats (strict carnivores) and dogs (facultative carnivores) in relation to vitamin A.

A

(Cats → cannot use plant provitamin A compounds, must have a preformed vitamin A in their diet i.e. their prey convert it for them; dogs → can use plant provitamin A to convert to retinol)

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8
Q

What does feeding only muscle meat lead to deficiencies in? (Calcium, manganese, some B vitamins, and fat soluble vitamins

A

(A, B, D, E)

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9
Q

Why are frozen whole prey items typically used in zoos?

A

(Better control over introduction of diseases and better control over supply)

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10
Q

What vitamin should be supplemented in a fish eating animal’s diet?

A

(Vitamin E → it slows oxidative deterioration of PUFAs in fish but is destroyed in the process so needs to be supplemented)

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11
Q

Produce and browse offered to omnivores is typically chosen based on what things?

A

(Food selection in the wild, food preference in captivity, observed effects on fecal consistency and body condition, and local market availability)

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12
Q

In an omnivore’s diet, produce should stay below what percentage of dry matter offered?

A

(30%)

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13
Q

What are the pros and cons of insects in an omnivore diet?

A

(Good source of protein, good source of fat depending on life stage (this can be a pro or con), and poor source of calcium)

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14
Q

Are fore or hindgut fermenters more sensitive to diet changes?

A

(Foregut, hindgut fermenters digest food prior to it reaching the fermentation chamber so what reaches it is more tightly regulated = less likely to react to changes in diet unless severe)

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15
Q

What five things must be taken into account when planning for restraint of an animal, especially one that is out of your typical scope of animal restraint?

A

(The goal of the procedure, the location considerations, the animal considerations, the human considerations, and plan “B” considerations)

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16
Q

What things are important in association with the preparation phase of restraint?

A

(Confirmation of appropriate supplies and equipment, prepare staff, and prepare animal (may need to be moved, may need to be fasted, etc.))

17
Q

What are the three types of restraint?

A

(Behavioral, physical, and chemical)

18
Q

Why is it important to still know how/be prepared to physically or chemically restrain an animal you have trained to behavioral restraint?

A

(Bc if the animal is sick or scared, behavioral restraint has a much less likely chance of working → need to know how to still find other ways to restrain the animal)

19
Q

Give some examples of non-mechanical equipment used for manual restraint?

A

(Nets, Y poles, gloves)

20
Q

What type of restraint is associated with using box chutes, stanchions, crushes/squeeze chutes, and drop-floor chutes?

A

(Mechanical physical restraint)

21
Q

(T/F) Most hoofstock will refrain from struggling when they no longer have foot purchase (the purpose of drop-floor chutes), allowing long procedures to be performed.

A

(F, short procedures)

22
Q

What is the purpose of neuroleptic drugs?

A

(To attenuate the stress response undergoing intensive management for capture, translocation, isolation, or adaptation to environmental changes)

23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of neuroleptics?

A

(Block D2 dopamine receptors → produce a state of lucid relief from anxiety)

24
Q

(T/F) Narcoleptics are reversible.

A

(F)

25
Q

(T/F) Recommended dosages for narcoleptics are inversely proportional to body size so as the bigger an animal gets, the smaller their narcoleptic dose will get.

A

(T)

26
Q

Why can reducing the fear response in large animals complicate things?

A

(It reduces avoidance behavior, increases an animals reluctance to move, and increases aggression)

27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alpha 2 agonists?

A

(Not like it’s in the name or anything, sympathomimetic agents that selectively stimulates alpha adrenergic receptors)

28
Q

What does the peripheral vasoconstriction induced by alpha 2 agonists cause?

A

(Hypertension, bradycardia, poor mm color, and 2nd AV blocks)

29
Q

Which of the alpha 2 agonists used in zoological medicine most significantly causes the peripheral vasoconstriction side effects?

A

(Medetomidine)

30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A

(Facilitates the binding of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA at various GABA receptors throughout the CNS)

31
Q

What group of animals is the memory loss side effect of benzodiazepines useful for?

A

(Primates)