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Systemic Disease - OD5 > Lecture 6 to 14 - Mostly MC questions > Flashcards

Lecture 6 to 14 - Mostly MC questions Flashcards

1
Q 
What is not part of the classic triad in Type 1 DM?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C. Weight loss
D. Uveitis
A

D. Uveitis

Note: Even though an individual does have excessive eating, there is still weight loss involved

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2
Q 
What is a tell tale sign of a pt with Diabetic Ketoacidosis?
A. Smell of stinky feet
B. High perspiration 
C. High Blood Pressure
D. Acetone smell on breath
A

D. Acetone smell on breath

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3
Q 
Which 2 of the following are not associated with Type 2 DM?
A. Ketoacidosis 
B. Coma
C. Insulin secretion
D. Obesity
A

A. Ketoacidosis

B. Coma

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4
Q

Which of the following correct regarding T2DM?
A. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to neuropathy
B. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to vascular occlusions
C. Cranial nerve palsies never recover

A

B. Cranial nerve palsy occurs due to vascular occlusions

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5
Q

Which type of anti-hypertensive is known to be nephroprotective for T2DM pts?
A. Angiotensin drugs
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. ACE inhibitors

A

C. ACE inhibitors

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6
Q

Which type of pupil anomaly is associated with T2DM?
A. Adie’s tonic
B. Argyll-Robertson
C. Horner’s syndrome

A

B. Argyll-Robertson

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7
Q 
What type of cataract in a young adult will occur when they have had T2DM?
A. PSC
B.NSC
C. Snowflake
D. Christmas tree
A

C. Snowflake

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8
Q 
What type of cells are lost in Type 1 DM?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Sigma cells
D. Delta cells
A

B. Beta cells

Note: Severe LOSS OF INSULIN is the major issue here

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9
Q 
Which drug treatment is commonly given for H. Pylori?
A.	Omeprazole
B.	Acetazolamide
C.	Tinidazole
D.	Bismuth
A

A. Omeprazole

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10
Q 
Which of the following retinopathies is Pancreatitis associated with?
A.	Terson’s
B.	Histoplasmosis
C.	Coat’s disease
D.	Purtscher’s
A

D. Purtscher’s

Note: Purtscher’s is associated with ischemia

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11
Q 
Which two of the organs are impacted by Gastroenteritis?
A.	Stomach
B.	Liver
C.	Pancreas
D.	Small intestines
E.	Large intestines
A

A. Stomach
D. Small intestines

Note: Reactive Arthririts is associated with Gastroenteritis

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12
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Gardner’s syndrome
A.	Bear tracks
B.	Polar bear tracks
C.	Grouped pigmentation
D.	CWS
A

D. CWS

Note: RPE hypertrophy is another ocular finding. Intestinal Polyposis, soft tissue tumors and bone tumors are all what consist of Gardner syndrome

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13
Q 
Which of the following diseases is associated with Scleritis and Scleromalacia?
A.	Pancreatitis
B.	Crohn’s disease
C.	Ulcerative colitis
D.	Gastroenteritis
A

B. Crohn’s disease

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14
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Whipple’s disease?
A.	Vitreous opacities
B.	Retinal Heme's
C.	Retinal exudate
D.	Uveitis
A

D. Uveitis

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15
Q 
Stomach Cancer is commonly caused by which type of agent?
A.	H. Pylori
B.	Staph Aureus
C.	Staph Epi
D.	Strep Pneumonia
A

A. H. Pylori

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16
Q 
Which two ocular findings are associated with Down syndrome?
A.	Keratoconus 
B.	Brushfield’s spots
C.	Conjunctival chemosis
D.	Hyphema
A

A. Keratoconus

B. Brushfield’s spots

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17
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Turner’s syndrome?
A.	Blue sclera
B.	Micro cornea
C.	Keratoconus
D.	Brushfield’s spots
E.	All of the above
F.	None of the above
A

E. All of the Above

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18
Q 
Which chromosomal disorder is associated with pitched mewing cry?
A.	Edward’s
B.	Down 
C.	Cri du chat
D.	Turner’s
A

C. Cri du chat

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19
Q 
Which of the following chormosomal disorder’s is associated with Microphthalmia?
A.	Edward’s
B.	Down
C.	Cri du chat
D.	Turner’s
A

A. Edwards

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20
Q 
Which of the following will cause posterior embryo toxin of the angle?
A.	Prayer Wili syndrome
B.	Alagille syndrome
C.	Fragile X
D.	Klinefelter
A

B. Alagille syndrome

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21
Q

When a Coloboma is occurring which layer is becoming defective, when you notice an optic pit and morning glory disc?
A. Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm

A

B. Ectroderm

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22
Q 
Which of the following is not known to cause a Coloboma?
A.	Alcohol
B.	Vitamin A deficiency
C.	Maternal infection
D.	Down syndrome
A

D. Down syndrome

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23
Q 
Which of the following type of issues is associated with Vitamin A deficiency?
A.	Auspitz sign
B.	Bitot’s sign
C.	Stocker’s line
D.	Kaiser-fleisecher ring
A

B. Bitot’s sign

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24
Q 
Which type of supplement is given to individual who has a vitamin A deficiency?
A.	Lead
B.	Mercury
C.	Silver
D.	Zinc
A

D. Zinc

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25
Q 
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with chronic alcoholism?
A.	B2
B.	B1
C.	B6
D.	B7
A

A. B2

Note: B1 is associated with alcohol metabolism. Not chronic alcohol

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26
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Cerebral BeriBeri?
A.	Nystagmus
B.	Ophthalmoplegia
C.	Ataxia
D.	Death
E.	Munson’s sign
F.	Memory deficits
A

E. Munson’s sign

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27
Q 
Which vitamin is associated with inadequate consumption of milk and products?
A.	B1
B.	B2
C.	B10
D.	B12
A

B. B2

Note: Ribflavin(B2) – is an antioxidant

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28
Q 
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Seborrheic dermatosis?
A.	B6
B.	B8
C.	B10
D.	B12
A

A. B6

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29
Q 
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Spina Bifida and other neural tube defects?
A.	B6
B.	B9
C.	B10
D.	B12
A

B. B9

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30
Q 
What vitamin deficiency is known to cause a stomach inflammation and leads to autoimmune pernicious anemia?
A.	B1
B.	B2
C.	B6
D.	B12
A

D. B12

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31
Q 
Scurvy is associated with what type of vitamin?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

C. Vitamin C

Note: Splinter Heme’s, lassitude and conjunctival bulbar hemorrhages are associated with vitamin C deficiency.

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32
Q 
Which type of vitamin is associated with Calcium absorption?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

D. Vitamin D

Note: Vitamin D is a pro-hormone with metabolites.

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33
Q 
Which of the following is a Vitamin A or D deficiency in children called?
A.	Osteomalacia
B.	Osteoporosis 
C.	Pickets
D.	Rickets
A

D. Rickets

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34
Q 
Which of the following is a Vitamin D deficiency associated in adults called?
A.	Osteomalacia
B.	Osteoporosis
C.	Pickets
D.	Rickets
A

A. Osteromalacia

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35
Q 
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with ROP?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin D
D.	Vitamin E
A

D. Vitamin E

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36
Q 
What vitamin supplement is given to pts who have a iron deficiency, in conjunction with iron supplementation?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

C. Vitamin C

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37
Q 
Which type of deficiency is associated with a Goiter in the neck?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Iodine
C.	Zinc
D.	Lead
A

B. Iodine

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38
Q

Which type of mineral deficiency is associated with Night blindness?
A. Zinc
B. Fluorine
C. Chromium

A

A. Zinc

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39
Q 
Which Vitamin toxicity is associated with Increased intracranial pressure and Pseudotumor Cerebri?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

A. Vitamin A

Note: Papilledema and Diplopia would also result as well

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40
Q 
Which vitamin is associated with CME?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

B. Vitamin B

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41
Q 
What vitamin toxicity is associated with Band Keratopathy?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin B
C.	Vitamin C
D.	Vitamin D
A

D. Vitamin D

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42
Q 
Which vitamin toxicity is associated with enhancement of Coumadin and may result in overt hemorrhage?
A.	Vitamin B
B.	Vitamin C
C.	Vitamin D
D.	Vitamin E
A

D. Vitamin E

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43
Q

What is Jaundice associated with what disease?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Ascites

A

A. Hepatitis

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44
Q 
Which of the following is not part of the triad of Cirrhosis?
A.	Anorexia 
B.	Fatigue
C.	Weight gain
D.	Weight loss
A

C. Weight Gain

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45
Q

In late stage of Cirrhosis, what vessel is affected?
A. Portal artery
B. Portal vein
C. Portal capillaries

A

B. Portal Vein

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46
Q 
What kind of Anemia occurs in Chronic Renal Failure?
A.	Normocytic
B.	Macrocyclic
C.	Microcytic
D.	Sickle
A

A. Normocytic

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47
Q

Erythropoietin is dependent on?
A. O2 levels from Liver
B. O2 levels from Kidney
C. O2 from lungs

A

B. O2 levels from Kidney

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48
Q

Damage to the nucleus of the RBC and impairs DNA synthesis is considered what type of Anemia?
A. Microcytic
B. Macrocyctic
C. Normalcytic Anemia

A

B. Macrocytic

Note: Microcytic – deficient heme or glob in synthesis
Normocytic – Bone marrow failure

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49
Q 
What is the most common cause of Iron deficiency Anemia?
A.	Vitamin C deficiency
B.	Blood cells are Microcytic
C.	Blood cells are hypochromic
D.	Blood loss
A

D. Blood loss

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50
Q 
What vitamin deficiency is associated with Pernicious Anemia?
A.	B1
B.	B2
C.	B6
D.	B12
A

D. B12

Note: Autoimmune gastritis causes B12 deficiency and is associated with “stocking and glove neuropathy.

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51
Q 
What is the name of the genetic condition that is associated with Aplastic Anemia and affects the bone marrow?
A.	Diego Anemia
B.	Sickle cell Anemia
C.	Thalassemia
D.	Fanconi Anemia
A

D. Fanconi Anemia

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52
Q 
What will you see in the Retina when related to Anemia?
A.	Dot-Blot Heme's
B.	Port wine spot
C.	Roth Spots
D.	CRAO
A

C. Roth spots

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53
Q 
Hemoglobin H disease is associated with Thalassemia and causes severe anemia. As a result what occurs in response?
A.	Swelling of the stomach
B.	Splenomegaly
C.	Megalocornea
D.	Shrinkage of the heart
A

B. Splenomegaly

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54
Q 
What type of anemia is  associated with US African American’s who have a Beta-Thalassemia?
A.	Johnson’s Anemia
B.	Petechiae Anemia
C.	Purpura Anemia
D.	Cooley’s Anemia
A

D. Cooley’s Anemia

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55
Q

Which of the following is associated with large areas of bruises, especially on the eye lids?
A. Petechaie
B. Purpura
C. Ecchymosis

A

C. Ecchymosis

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56
Q

Which of the following is associated with large areas of hemorrhageH that may be palpable coagulation disorder?
A. Petechaie
B. Purpura
C. Ecchymosis

A

B. Purpura

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57
Q

What is a small non blanch able punctuate foci of heme, which is associated with platelet disorders?
A. Petechiae
B. Purpura
C. Ecchyosis

A

A. Petechiae

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58
Q 
Coagulation disorders are associated with which of the following two? Pick 2
A.	Vitamin B deficiency
B.	Vitamin K deficiency
C.	Liver disease 
D.	Kidney disease
A

B. Vitamin K deficiency

C. Liver disease

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59
Q 
Which factor is absent in hemophilia A?
A.	Factor 1
B.	Factor 2
C.	Factor 9
D.	Factor 8
A

D. Factor 8

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60
Q 
Which factor is absent in hemophilia B?
A.	Factor 2
B.	Factor 6
C.	Factor 8
D.	Factor 9
A

D. Factor 9

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61
Q 
What type of Dysproteinemias is associated with cherry red spot on the Macula?
A.	Hyperglobulinemia
B.	Cryglobinemia
C.	Hypercalicemia
D.	Multiple Myeloma
A

B. Cryglobinemia

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62
Q 
Which of the following are associated with Corneal crystals? PICK 2
A.	Multiple Myeloma
B.	Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia
C.	Hemophiliac
D.	Von Willenbrand’s disease
A

A. Multiple Myeloma

B. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia

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63
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Papilledema?
A.	Multiple Myeloma
B.	Waldenstrom’s Macroglobinemia
C.	Hemophilia 
D.	Von Willenbrand’s disease
A

A. Multiple Myeloma

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64
Q 
Orbital Infiltration is associated with what disease?
A.	Myelitis
B.	Leukemia
C.	Sickle cell
D.	Playlet dysfunction
A

B. Leukemia

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65
Q 
Which of the following is not common in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia?
A.	Hemorrhages
B.	Roth spots
C.	Choroid all infiltration
D.	Uveitis
A

D. Uveitis

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66
Q 
Which condition causes secondary GOUT Due to build up of Uric acid buildup?
A.	Polycythemia Vera
B.	Sickle cell anemia
C.	Myelitis
D.	Cytomegalovirus
A

A. Polycythemia Vera

Note: Pts will have dilated, engorged retinal vessels and hyper viscosity retinopathy

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67
Q 
Which type of sickle cell anomaly occurs when Valine substitutes for glutamic acid?
A.	Hemoglobin C
B.	Hemoglobin S
C.	Hemoglobin A
D.	Hemoglobin B
A

B. Hemoglobin S

Note: Hemoglobin C is associated with Lysine

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68
Q 
What needs to be reported but is associated with ulcerative lesions from rodents?
A.	Bupophthalmous
B.	Necrotizing scleritis
C.	Cystemia
D.	Tularemia
A

D. Tularemia

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69
Q 
Which of the following is not given to manage Tularemia?
A.	Steroids
B.	Streptomycin
C.	Gentamicin
D.	Tetracycline
A

A. Steroids

70
Q 
What are considered to be associated with humans being “accidental” intermediate hosts?
A.	Loa Loa
B.	Schistosomiasis
C.	Bilharzia
D.	Echinococcus
A

D. Echinococcus

71
Q 
Which ocular area is Loa Loa prefers to inhabit?
A.	Meibomian glands
B.	Anterior Chamber
C.	Sub conjunctival
D.	Epi sclera
A

C. Subconjunctival

72
Q 
Which condition constituents of CSF?
A.	Loa Loa
B.	Cysticercosis
C.	Toxocariasis
D.	Schistomiasis
A

B. Cysticercosis

Note: Most common area infected in the eye –> MACULA

73
Q 
Which of the following is associated with “dragging of the macula”?
A.	Histoplasmosis
B.	Loa Loa
C.	Cystercosis
D.	Toxocariasis
A

D. Toxocariasis

74
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with the triad of Trichinosis?
A.	Fever
B.	Eosinophilia
C.	Peri orbital edema
D.	Raynaud's phenomenon
A

D. Raynaud’s phenomenon

75
Q 
Which of the following disease processes is associated with thickened nerves?
A.Leprosy
 B.  Toxocariasis
C. Loa Loa
D. Sickle cell
A

A. Leprosy

Note: Specifically CORNEAL NERVES

76
Q 
Which ocular condition is associated with TB?
A.	Papillomas
B.	Chalazions
C.	Phylyctenules
D.	Hep B
A

C. Phylyctenules

Note: Granulomatous uveitis is associated with TB as well.

77
Q 
What are the two common pulmonary TB associations? Pick 2
A.	Illeitis
B.	Hilar adenopathy
C.	Infiltrates
D.	Papillitis
A

B. Hilar adenopathy

C. Infiltrates

78
Q 
What is another name of the condition that is associated with skeletal TB?
A.	Grave’s disease
B.	Proptosis
C.	Pott’s disease
D.	Ulceritive colitis
A

C. Pott’s disease

79
Q

Which layer of the cornea is associated with Interstitial Keratitis?
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Endothelium

A

B. Stroma

80
Q 
Which type of fungal infection grows as a mold then converts to yeast when cultured at 37 degrees F. Hint this type of infection is found in Mississippi and Ohio river valley’s?
A.	Histoplasmosis
B.	Blastomycosis
C.	Coccidiomycosis
D.	Paracoccodiodomycosis
A

A. Histoplasmosis

81
Q 
Which of the following is associated with CNVM formation and there is no vitritis?
A.	Histoplasmosis
B.	Blastomycosis
C.	Coccidiomycosis
D.	Paracoccodiodomycosis
A

A. Histoplasmosis

82
Q 
What does Malaria infect?
A.	WBC’s
B.	T-Lymphocytes
C.	Plasma cells
D.	RBC’s
A

D. RBC’s

83
Q 
Which Protozoan disease is associated with Roth spots?
A.	Histoplasmosis
B.	 Blastomycosis
C.	Malaria
D.	Paracoccodiodomycosis
A

C. Malaria

84
Q

Which of the following are two ocular findings with an individual with Toxoplasmosis? PICK 2

A. Unilateral macular scars
B. Bilateral macular scars
C. Chorio-retinitis
D. CSME

A

B. Bilateral macular scars
C. Chorio-retinitis

Note: Headlights in a fog

85
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Granulomatous iridocyclitis?
A.	Histoplasmosis
B.	Malaria
C.	Sickle cell
D.	Toxoplasmosis
A

D. Toxoplasmosis

86
Q 
Which type of Ig marker is associated with Toxoplasmosis?
A.	IgG
B.	IgA
C.	IgM
D.	IgE
A

A. IgG

Note: This is not useful for diagnosing the infection in infants

87
Q 
Which stages of Syphilis is associated with ocular involvement? Pick 2
A.	Primary Syphilis
B.	Secondary
C.	Tertiary
D.	Quaternary
A

B. Secondary
C. Tertiary

Note: Secondary: Ocular involvement. Tertiary: Uveitis, retinitis and Optic neuritis may occur.

88
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Hutchinson’s Triad (Congenital Syphilis)?
A.	Notched incisors
B.	Deafness
C.	Congenital Interstitial keratitis
D.	Corneal bulb-like dendrites
A

D. Corneal bulb like dendrites

Note: Salt and pepper fundus is associated with Syphilis

89
Q 
What type of CN palsy is associated with Lyme disease?
A.	CN 3 Palsy
B.	CN 5 Palsy
C.	CN 4 Pasy
D.	CN 6 Palsy
A

D. CN 6 Palsy

Note: This is a 2nd stage issue

90
Q 
Which stage of Lyme disease is associated with a Bull’s eye rash?
A.	Stage 1
B.	Stage 2
C.	Stage 3
D.	Stage 4
A

A. Stage 1

91
Q 
Which stage of Lyme disease is associated with Episclertitis, KP’s, Pars planitits and Vitritis?
A.	Stage 1
B.	Stage 2
C.	Stage 3
D.	Stage 4
A

C. Stage 3

92
Q 
Which of the following 2 are associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A.	Lens subluxation
B.	Commotio Retinae
C.	Conjunctival suffusion
D.	Peri orbital edema
A

C. Conjunctival suffusion
D. Peri orbital edema

Note: Bilateral peri orbital edema is the specific finding

93
Q 
Which type of drugs should be used for Toxoplasmosis?
A.	Folic Acid inhibitors
B.	30S DNA inhibitors
C.	Cell wall inhibitors
D.	DNA Gyrase inhibitors
A

A. Folic Acid inhibitors

94
Q 
What is the type of hypersensitivity is associated with Non-Enveloped viruses?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
A

C. Type 3

Note: Enveloped viruses are both Type 3 and 4

95
Q

Which type of virus is associated in the nucleus and not by RNA?
A. Adenovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. Spirochetes

A

B. Retrovirus

Note: AIDS is a retrovirus

96
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with CD4+ 200 to 499/microl (Category A)?
A. Oropharyngeal candida
B. Hairy Leukoplakia (oral)
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Cervical dysplasia
A

C. Lymphadenopathy

Note: Lymphadenopathy is associated with >500/microl (Category B)

97
Q

Which of the following is not associated with CD4+

A

A. Uveitis

98
Q 
What type of Retinopathy is associated with HIV/AIDS?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Coat's Disease
D. CMV
A

D. CMV

Note: Brushfire retinopathy will be seen

99
Q

Which of the following syndromes are associated with HIV/AIDS that displays Vitritis in a healthy individual?
A. Vericella Zoster Retinitis
B. Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis syndrome (PORN)
C. Acute Retinal Necrosis syndrome (ARN)
D. Neoplasm

A

C. Acute Retinal Necrosis syndrome (ARN)

Note: PORN occurs in the immunodeficient individual, therefore cannot create a inflammatory response

100
Q 
CMV is associated with what family of infections?
A. Herpes
B. Toxocaris
C. Microcephaly
D. Bacterial
A

A.Herpes

101
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Primary HSV?
A. Finger whitlows
B. Encephalitis
C. Erythema Multiforme
D. MS
A

A. Finger whitlows

102
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Ocular Primary HSV?
A.  Peripapillary atrophy
B. Preseptal Cellulitis
C. Orbital Cellulitis
D. Follicular conjunctivitis
A

D. Follicular conjunctivitis

103
Q 
Which of the following ocular signs are associated with Recurrent HSV?
A. Follicular conjunctivitis
B. Uveitis
C. Stromal Keratitis
D. Preseptal cellulitis
A

C. Stromal Keratitis

104
Q

Which type of HSV is associated with indolent corneal ulceration?
A. Primary HSV
B. Recurrent HSV
C. Metaherpetic disease

A

C. Metaherpectic disease

105
Q 
What is the dosage of Acyclovir for Primary Herpetic disease?
A. 250 mg
B. 400 mg 
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
A

B. 400 mg

106
Q 
Which type of cataract is associated with HSV?
A. Nuclear Sclerotic Cataract
B. Cortical Cataract
C. Christmas Tree Cataract
D. Posterior Lenticular opacification
A

D. Posterior Lenticular Opacification

107
Q 
With an individual with HSV, displays Hutchinson's sign. What does this mean?
A. Dentition of teeth
B. Deafness
C. Interstitial Keratitis
D. Lesion on the tip of the nose
A

D. Lesion on the tip of the nose

Note: The other three are part of Hutchinson’s triad

108
Q 
What is the dosage of Acyclovir for HZS?
A. 250 mg
B. 400 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
A

C. 800 mg

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies?
A. HSV
B. HZV
C. CMV

A

A. HSV

110
Q

Which of the following is associated with Molluscum Contagiosum?
A. Primary toxic keratoconjunctivitis
B. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with papillular conjunctival lesion
C. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with follicular conjunctival reaction

A

C. Secondary toxic keratoconjunctivitis with follicular conjunctival reaction

111
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with Guillian Barre syndrome?
A.  CMV
B. HSV
C. HZV
D. Mumps
A

D. Mumps

Note: Mumps are associated with Lower motor neuron issues and severe pulmonary issues

112
Q 
Which of the following are associated with Mumps in the retina?
A.  AMPPE
B. COATS
C. CMV
D. Dacryoadenitis
A

A. AMPPE

Note: Dacryoadenitis is associated with Mumps but does not occur in the retina.

113
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Disciform Keratitis?
A.  Herpes Zoster
B. Mumps
C. Vericella
D. Herpes Simplex
A

D. Herpes Simplex

114
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Congenital Rubella?
A. Microphthalmia
B. Glaucoma
C. Uveitis
D. Keratoconus
A

C. Uveitis

115
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik's spots and Maculopapular rash?
A. TB
B. Rubella
C. Rubeola
D. Fuch's dystrophy
A

C. Rubeola

116
Q 
Which fatal disease is associated with Congenital Varicella?
A. Red Man Syndrome
B. Reye's Syndrome 
C. Reactive syndrome
D. Syphilis
A

B. Reye’s Syndrome

117
Q 
What is the time frame when Ocular Neonatal conjunctivitis occur?
A. Day 1 to 3
B. Day 5 to 14
C. Day 21 to 30
D. Month 5 to 14
A

B. Day 5 to 14

118
Q 
Which type of conjunctivitis is associated with swimming pool conjunctivitis?
A. Allergic conjunctivitis
B. Psudemonas conjunctivitis
C. Inclusion conjunctivitis
D. Papillular conjunctivitis
A

C. Inclusion conjunctivitis

119
Q

Which condition is associated with Fern leaf pattern?
A. Behcet’s syndrome
B. Allergic conjunctivitis
C. Sarcoidosis

A

A. . Behcet’s syndrome

120
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with Candle wax drippings?
A. Pneumonia
B. Behcet's syndrome
C. Neuralgia
D. Sarcoidosis
A

D. Sarcoidosis

121
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with Sugiura's sign?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. TB
C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada
D. Lupus
A

C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada

122
Q 
What type of vessels are affected in Arteriosclerosis?
A. Large Arteries
B. Smaller Arteries
C. Large Veins
D. Small Veins
A

B. Smaller Arteries

123
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Anterior segment ischemia in regards to Arteriosclerosis?
A. Hordeolum
B. Uveitis
C. Increased IOP
D. Iris Neo
A

A. Hordeolum

124
Q 
Which type of posterior segment condition is associated with Arteriosclerosis?
A. COATS disease
B. ROP
C. Macular Pucker
D. OIS
A

D. OIS

125
Q 
Which of the following is always associated with a "cherry red spot"?
A. BRAO
B. BRVO
C. CRAO
D. CRVO
A

C. CRAO

126
Q 
What type of system is associated with polarity around the body when doing an EKG?
A. Beethoven Triangle
B. Heisenberg Triangle
C. Einthoven Triangle
D. Prentice Triangle
A

C. Einthoven Triangle

127
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Bacterial Endocarditis?
A. Roth spots
B. Uveitis
C. Endophthalmitis
D. CRVO
A

D. CRVO

128
Q 
Which grade is associated with Elschnig spots when using the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of Atherosclerosis?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
A

C. Grade 3

Note: Grade 3 means Moderate now!!

129
Q

Which of the following is not associated with ocular manifestations of hypertension?
A. Hypertensive sub conjunctival hemorrhage
B. Hypertensive optic neuropathy
C. Hypertensive retinopathy
D. Hypertensive choroidopathy

A

A. Hypertensive sub conjunctival hemorrhage

130
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Hyperlipidemia?
A. Arcus
B. Uveitis
C. Xanthoma
D. Lipemia retinalis
A

B. Uveitis

131
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Lymphedema?
A. Klinefelter's
B. Turner's
C. Down
D. Gigantism
A

B. Turner’s

132
Q

True or False. Acute Myocardial Infarction is related to decrease in MI for both nonstemi and stemi.

A

False. Acute Myocardial Infarction occurs when there is an ELEVATION in both stemi and nonstemi.

133
Q 
Which of the following EKG is able to specifically localize a value?
A. QRS
B. Q wave
C. P wave
D. T wave
A

D. T wave

134
Q

Which of the following are cardiac specific and cardiac sensitive? Pick 2
A. Troponins T
B. CK-MB
C. Troponin I

A

A. Troponin T
C. Troponin I

Note: All of the following will be involved in during MI

135
Q

True or False. Cardiac biomarkers are far more sensitive and specific than echocardiography in detecting cardiac injury.

A

True

136
Q 
Which of the following is considered a significant blockage of the carotid system?
A. >25%
B. >50%
C. >75%
D. >90%
A

C. >75%

137
Q 
Which of the following is considered a significant blockage of Coronary artery stenosis?
A. >25%
B. >50%
C. >75%
D. >90%
A

B. >50%

138
Q 
Which drug is needed to reduce mortality of congestive heart failure?
A. Alpha Adenergic
B. Beta Blockers
C. CAI's
D. ASA
A

B. Beta Blockers

139
Q 
Which of the following is the most deadly species of plasmodium
A. Malariae
B. Ovale
C. Falciparum
D. Vivax
A

C. Falciparum

140
Q 
Which of the following is not part of Hutchinson's triad?
A. Deafness
B. Salt and Pepper fundus
C.  Teeth deformity
D.  Interstitial Keratitis
A

B. Salt and Pepper fundus

141
Q 
Which test confirms Ocular Toxoplasmosis?
A.  IgM
B.  IgE
C.  IgG
D. Positive PTOX
A

C. IgG

142
Q 
Which of the following is the BEST description of mode of tranmission for Ocular Toxoplasmosis?
A. Always Acquired
B. Always Congenital
C. Mostly Acquired
D. Mostly Congenital
A

D. Mostly Congenital

143
Q 
Which of the following is not part to the triad of Ocular Histoplasmosis?
A. Vitiritis
B. Histo sports
C. CNVM
D. PPA
A

A. Vitiritis

144
Q 
Pre-eclampsia require which of the two to be considered this condition?
A. Protein
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Hypotension
A

A. Protein
C. HTN

Note: Magnesium sulfate is used to find out Pre-eclampsia

145
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Pre eclampsia?
A. CWS
B. Retinal Hemorrhage
C. Serous detachments
D. ON swelling
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

146
Q 
Acute renal failure is associated with nitrogenous products in the blood. What is this called?
A. Thalasemia
B. Anemia
C. Azotemia
D. Reye's syndrome
A

C. Azotemia

147
Q 
Which ocular condition is associated with Chronic renal failure?
A. Atropic Keratitis
B. Gonnococcal Keratitis
C. COAT's disease
D. Band Keratopathy
A

D. Band Keratopathy

148
Q 
What is the most common Nephrotic syndrome?
A. Diabetic Nephropathy
B. Hypertensive Nephropathy
C.. Azotemia
D. Reye's syndrome
A

A. Diabetic Nephropathy

149
Q 
What is the time frame for a screening of urine to be submitted for Albumin testing?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
A

B. 24 hours

150
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with Lenticonus?
A. Alport syndrome
B. Dot Blot syndrome
C. TB
D. Pigmentary dispersion syndrome
A

A. Alport syndrome

151
Q 
Which condition is associated with Aniridia?
A. CRVO
B. Diabetes
C. Wilm's
D.  COPD
A

C. Wilms tumor

152
Q 
What should happen to respiratory rate in lactic acidosis?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stay Same
D. Depends
A

A. Increase

153
Q 
Prominent corneal nerves is associated with what major condition?
A. Wilm's
B. COPD
C.  Pemphigoid
D. Amloidosis
A

D. Amloidosis

154
Q

Which type of Gaucher’s is associated with a Cherry red spot?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3

A

B. Type 2

155
Q 
Which lysosomal condition is associated with a cherry red spot?
A. LHON
B.  Tay-sach's
C. Fanconi Syndrome
D. Cystinosis
A

B. Tay-sach’s

156
Q 
Which rare condition is associated with a "gray stained sclera"
A. Cystinosis
B. Tay-sach's
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Homocystinuria
A

C. Alkaptonuria

157
Q 
What enzyme is involved in melanin synthesis, which leads to albinism?
A. Adeninoase
B. Tyrosinase
C. Guaninase
D. Cysteinase
A

B. Tyrosinase

158
Q 
What is prominent with Cystinosis, in the cornea?
A.Band keratopathy
B. Crystals
C. Cataracts
D. Hyperpigmenation
A

B. Crystals

159
Q

What is characteristics of Homocystinuria?
A. Phackodenesis
B. Gyrate atrophy
C. Lens dislocation

A

C. Lens dislocation

Note: Pts will display Marfanoid features

160
Q 
Which layer is a Keyser Fleischer ring located in the cornea?
A. Epithelium
B. Bowman's
C. Descement's
D. Endothelium
A

C. Descement’s

161
Q 
What is used for the treatment of Gout?
A. Colchcine
B. Steroids
C. Nalaxone
D. Acetylcysteine
A

A. Colchcine

162
Q 
What is the type of test to conduct to risk of fracture with Osteoporosis?
A. Aexa
B. Beta-scane 
C. Triple energy x ray absorptiometry
D. Dexa
A

D. Dexa

163
Q 
What ocular condition is associated with osteoporosis?
A. PVD
B. RD
C. Uveitis
D. Conjunctival hyperemia
A

C. Uveitis

164
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with Paget's?
A. Optic Atrophy
B. Proptosis
C. Angiod Streaks
D. Capillary Hemangioma
A

D. Capillary Hemangioma

165
Q 
What is the condition that affects adult Acromegaly?
A. Pitutary Adenoma
B. Cavernous Fistula
C. Cartoid stenosis
D.  Cicatrial Pemphigoid
A

A. Pitutary Adenoma

Note: Bitemporal Hemanopsia will occur

166
Q 
Which is associated with Blue sclera?
A. Doxycycline
B. Paget's
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Goldenhar's syndrome
A

C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Note: Minocycline is associated with blue sclera

167
Q 
A rare limbal dermoid cyst that is associated with a disformed ear and shortened face from one side. What is this condition?
A. Pagets
B. Osterogenesis Imperfects
C. Acromegaly
D. Goldenhar's syndrome
A

D. Goldenhar’s syndrome

Note: Will have normal intelligence

168
Q 
Which type of condition is associated with cranuim growth in horizontal directions?
A. Crouzon's
B. Spina Bifida
C. Trachoma
D. Basal Cell Carcinoma
A

A. Crouzon’s

Note: Increased intracranial pressure, Glaucoma, Keratoconus, Medullated nerve fibers are associated with this condition.

169
Q 
What cranial nerve is affacted in treacher collins?
A. CN 1
B. CN 4
C. CN 5
D. CN 6
A

D. CN 6

Note: Lateral rectus is impacted or dennervated

170
Q 
What is the common area for the lens to be dislocated?
A. Up and In
B. Up and Out
C. Down and In
D. Down and Out
A

B. Up and Out

Systemic Disease - OD5 (2 decks)

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