Lecture 6 - Pulm Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress?

A

RR >30
retractions/use of accessory muscles
paradoxical abdominal wall movement with inspiration (diaphragmatic fatigue)
pulse ox <90%
cyanosis
unable to speak more than single word or short phrase
agitation or lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

endothelial damage
venous stasis
hypercoagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PE

A

pulmonary embolism

clot in the pulmonary artery/arteries impairs perfusion of the lungs and can lead to lung infarction and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pts with pulmonary embolism may present how during the physical exam?

A
tachycardia
tachypnea
hypoxia
rales
wheezes
fever
LE erythema, swelling, redness
variable BP 

*pt may only have a few of these

most common sxs is CP (?) then SOB, then axiety

most common sign is tachypnea, then rales, then fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the classic symptom triad of pulmonary embolism?

A

hemoptosis
dyspnea
chest pain (only found in <20% of PE cases)

97% of PE pts will have one of the following:

  • dyspnea
  • tachpnea
  • pleuritic pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which labs do you NEED to order asap for a pt you suspect of PE?

A

ABG
-A-a gradient is normal in 50% of PE pts
-PaO2 is sensitive but not specific
-degree of hypoxemia does not accurately predict size of PE
Creatinine
-needed to determine kidney function prior to giving IV contrast
PT/PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Wells Criteria

A

Used in assessing PE

Clinically suspected DVT
Alternative dx less likely than PT
HR >100 BPM
Immobilization/surgery in the previous 4 weeks
History of DVT or PE
Malignancy (or treatment within the last 6 mo)

If >6 – high likelihood of PE
if 4.5-6 –moderate likelihood of PE
if = 4 - low likelihood of PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PERC Score

A

pulmonary embolism rule out criteria

useful to determine who is at such a low risk of PE that no further diagnostic testing is required, and the pt can safely be discharged or worked up for other pathology

this decision making rule only works when you have a low pre-test probability to start with

criteria: 
SaO2 <95%?
Unilateral leg swelling?
HR >100 BPM?
Recent surgery or trauma?
History of DVT or PE?
Hemoptysis?
Age >50 yo?
Current hormone use?

if the answer to ANY of these questions is “yes” you may NOT rule out PE

if the answer to ALL questions is “no” then there is a 1.8% chance you will miss a PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

D-Dimer

A

d-dimer is a breakdown product of cross linked fibrin by the fibrinolytic system
d-dimer levels become elevated when there is lysis of cross-linked fibrin within the thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is D-Dimer helpful?

A

if D-dimer levels are low in pts who seem to have low probability of having a PE, we can be re-assured that the likelihood of the pt having a PE is very low

extraordinarily high D-dimer levels should create increased suspicion of PE, but not diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is D-Dimer useless?

A
recent surgery or trauma
pt has other auto-immune or inflammatory process going on in the body 
liver/renal/heart failure 
pregnancy
sepsis
sickle cell disease
acute MI or Stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What imaging modality is useful for pulmonary embolism?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What imaging modality is useful for pulmonary embolism in pregnant pt?

A

VQ scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is CXR role in PE?

A

the greatest utility of the CXR in dx of PE is exclusion of alternate disorders

Might see weestermarks, hamptom hump effusion, elevated hemidiaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can you see on EKG with a pt having a PE?

A

Deep S in 1, Q in 3, inverted T in 3

tachycardia is the most common finding

the greatest utility of the EKG in dx of PE is exclusion of alternate disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you manage a pt with PE?

A

manage airway
anti-coagulation: stable pt
–Lovenox 1mg/kg SQ, no coag studies required
Anti-coagulation: unstable pt
-Heparin 80u/kg bolus, then 18u/kg per hour IV
-monitor aPTT every 6 hours until level 50-90 achieved
-lovenox 1mg/kg SQ, no coag studies required

Treat shock with IV fluids if no evidence of pulmonary edema
use dopamine if vasopressor indicated

thrombolysis (tPA, streptokinase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non-cardiogenic vs cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A
non-cardiogenic: 
change in permeability of pulmonary membranes 
sepsis or septic shock
inhalation injuries 
drugs and toxins 
aspiration syndromes
neurogenic causes 
high altitude
cardiogenic: 
elevated pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
acute myocardial ischemia or infarction
cardiomyopathy
valvular heart disease 
hypertensive emergency 
diastolic dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

COPD

A

typically an acute exacerbation of chronic condition so get the PMHx

look for classic presentation:

  • big blue boater
  • skinny pink puffer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the physical findings of COPD?

A
tachypnea
increased phlegm/purulent phlegm 
inspiratory and expiratory wheeze 
decreased air movement
use of excessory muscles 
pursed lip breathing
somnolence or confusion 
left ventricular dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signs of hypoxemia

A
tachypnea
cyanosis 
agitation
tachycardia 
HTN
increased work of breathing creates CO2 not compensated for by alveolar ventilation --> hypercarbia and respiratory acidosis --> to confusion, stupor, hypopnea, apnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the work up for a COPD pt?

A

ask the pt about their home oxygen and baseline O2 saturation
medications
hx of steroids, intubation, recent illness

always get a CXR!
EKG - hypoxia can lead to ischemic changes

your most valuable tool to measure response to medication or decline is the pulmonary function test or peak flow

consider ABG if you suspect respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment for COPD?

A

oxygen to O2 saturation of 90-92%
correct hypoexemia to Pa02 >60mmHg
–effects of supplemental O2 may take up to 30 minutes to see

Warming:
balance the need for increase PaO2 against the possibility of producing hypercapnia
Pts with chronic respiratory acidosis rely on hypoxia for respiratory driver

Smooth muscle relaxants:
Albuterol: Ipratropium (atrovent) 2:1 x 1

Steroids
prednisone 60mg PO or methylprednisolone 125 mg IV

ABX are standard of care for COPD exacerbation even in absence of infiltrate of CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When should you consider intubating a COPD pt with acute exacerbation?

A

altered mental status
respiratory fatigue
respiratory distress, agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute CP lateralizing to one side, with unilateral or absent breath sounds

A

Pneumothorax

RR >24
HR >120

Subcutaneous emphysema
Hyper-resonance
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When can possible PE pts be sent home safely?

A

Low score on a decision rule (PERC or Wells) and a negative D-Dimer

26
Q

A pt comes in with what you suspect is a possible PE, they score high on the PERC, what is the next step?

A

High decision rule score pts should either go straight to treatment or to CT scan of pulmonary vasculature

Pt with a moderate decision rule score and a believable d-dimer should go to CT as well

27
Q

What imaging modalities are there for pneumothorax?

A

CXR (upright expiratory and inspiratory)

CT (used to determine percentage of PTX, and more sensitive for small PTX)

28
Q

What can be done in the ED for someone with penumothorax?

A

O2 at 3-4L increases pleural air resorption
Chest tube/pleurovac
20-40% need thoracostomy eventually

Tension PTX requires immediate needle decompression

Primary PTX:
If <15% hemithorax - observe for 6 hours and repeat CXR before sending them home and follow up with thoracic surgery
If >15% hemithorax - chest tube placement with water suction

Secondary PTX:
Tx underlying condition
Chest tub with water suction

29
Q

Which PTX pts get chest tube?

A

Those with >15% hemithorax (recall we use CT to determine how much is involved)

30
Q

What does it mean if a PNA pt has a spontaneous PTX?

A

Suggests PCP, TB, or Staph infection

31
Q

What causes tension PTX?

A

One way valve between bronchial and pleural space (usually d/t trauma)
Mediastinal shift toward unaffected side as the pressure increases

Tx: needle decompression

32
Q

Wheezing vs stridor in the setting of aspirated foreign body?

A

Wheezing suggests its in the bronchial tree

33
Q

What is the last ditch effort when assessing breathing for a pt who aspirated a foreign body?

A

FB inferior to vocal cords but obstructing airway can be pushed into mainstem bronchus via ambo bag or endotrachial tube

34
Q

What is the DDx for wheezing?

A
Asthma 
COPD
Infection 
PE 
CHF
Allergy 
Anaphylaxis 
FB
Neoplasm 
Laryngeal edema
35
Q

What are the risk factors for fatal asthma?

A
Sudden severe exacerbations 
Prior intubation
Prior ICU admission 
2+ hospitalizations in the last year 
ED visit in the last month or 3+ in last year 
Current systemic steroid use of recent withdrawal from use 
Comorbidity - cardiac or pulmonary 
Low socioeconomic status 
Ilicit drug use 
Psych issue
36
Q

Silent chest in setting of acute asthma suggests what?

A

Severe airflow obstruction

As well as pulsus paradoxus >20mmHg - severe obstruction

37
Q

When is a CXR is acute asthma done?

A
New onset asthma 
R/o other pulmonary disorders 
Fever
Atypical exam 
Unresponsive to treatment 
Elderly 
Hx of aspiration/FB
38
Q

What is the treatment for acute asthma?

A

Beta agonists - albuterol

Anticholinergic - ipratropium (added to first albuterol treatment similar to COPD treatment)

Prednisone 40-60mg (or methylprednisolone 60-125mg IV)

Magnesium
-smooth muscle relaxer, used for severe asthma

Heliox
- helium:oxygen mixture to lower airway resistance by increasing laminar flow

39
Q

For pts with acute asthma in the ER, when do they get to go home vs admitted?

A

Home:
If peak flow >70% of predicted personal best, pt has improved in ER, safe home to go to

Floor:
Peak flow >50% but not greater than 70%
If pt isnt responding to nebulizer and you are waiting for steroids to kick in + observation

ICU:
Respiratory insufficiency or failure to respond to treatment

40
Q

What are the main different types of PNA?

A
Aspiration
Atypical
Bacterial
Viral
PJP
41
Q

PNA in an alcoholic pt is most likely what type of organism?

A

Klebsiella PNA

42
Q

For pts with cystic fibrosis who get PNA< what is the most common cause?

A

P. Aeruginosa

43
Q

What is the treatment for Legionella PNA?

A

Erythromycin

44
Q

What is the treatment for PNA caused by strep pneumoniae?

A

PCN

45
Q

Klebsiella PNA is treated with what?

A

Ceftraixone (3rd generation cephalosporin)

46
Q

What is the treatment atypical PNA?

A

Macrolides

47
Q

What is the treatment for PNA in an IVDU?

A

Most commonly caused by staph aureus

Tx: oxacillin

48
Q

When do you see PJP and what is the treatment?

A

CD4 <200

Steroids + Bactrim

49
Q

When does aspiration PNA occur and where?

A

Usually develops within 1 hours of aspiration

MC right lower lobe

50
Q

How do you determine in a PNA pt can go home or needs to be admitted?

A

PORT score or PSI (PNA severity index) —> use MDcalc

51
Q

Pleural effusion

A

An abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space caused by either excess fluid production or decreased fluid absorption (or both)

52
Q

Transudate vs exudates?

A

Transudate: bilateral and arise from either increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or decrease oncotic pressure secondary to CHF, cirrhosis or hypoalbuminemia

Exudates: unilateral and result from increased capillary permeability or decreased lymphatic resorption associated with infection, connective tissue disease, pancreatitis, or cancer

53
Q

How do pts with pleural effusions present in the ED?

A

Pts who know they have the disease and come to the ED to improve their breathing

Pts who dont know they have the disease and are found to have decreased breath sounds and effusion on CXR

Sxs:
Dyspnea
Cough
Chest pain 
Lower extremity edema, orthopnea, night sweats, fever, weight loss
54
Q

What are the most common cuases of pleural effusion?

A

CHF
Bacterial PNA
Malignancy
PE

55
Q

What are the signs of pleural effusion?

A

Diminished or absent breath sounds
Dullness to percussion
Egophany
Pleural friction rub

56
Q

What is the treatment for pleural effusion?

A

Stabilize airway (intubation may be needed)

Nothing for small effusions except for treating the underlying condition (CHF, PNA, cancer)

Thoracentesis for larger effusions for symptom relief and to obtain cells for examination for malignancy

Chest tubes for large effusions

Pleurodesis for recurrent malignant effusions

57
Q

ARDS

A

Acute condition characterized by bilateral pulmonary inflitrates and severe hypoxemia in the absence of evidence for cardiogenic pulmonary edema

58
Q

What can cause ARDS?

A
PNA
Sepsis
Trauma/Burns
Drug OD
Near drowning
Pancreatitis
Fat Embolism
59
Q

What are the signs and sxs of ARDS?

A

Toxic appearing
Hypoxic
Sxs came on quickly and pt deteriorated quickly

Mutisystem organ failure

Tachycaridic, tachypneic, hypotensive

Cyanosis/poor perfusion

60
Q

What is the treatment for ARDS?

A

Treat source of problem

Intubation/respiratory support

Pressors

ICU admission

ECMO - severe cases