Lecture 6- Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a spiral microbe?

A

Trepanoma palladium

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2
Q

What are the different characteristics of Trepanoma palladium?

A
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3
Q

TREPONEMA PALLADIUM:
* What is the morphology?
* What surrounds the perplasmic flagella?
* Causes what?
* What type of pathogen?
* What does it have numerous of?

A
  • Helically coiled, corkscrew shaped cells
  • Outer membrane which surrounds the periplasmic flagella
  • Causes syphilis
  • Highly invasive pathogen
  • Has numerous sequelae if not treated including infertility
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4
Q

What are the four stages caused for treponema palladium?

A
  • Primary: sore or multiple sores
  • Secondary: skin rashes, multiple locations including palms of hands, feet
  • Latent: there are no visible signs or symptoms, you can have syphilis in your body for years
  • Tertiary: most people do not develop this (occurs 10- 30 years after infection), but if it happen it can affect many different organ systems and damage them
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5
Q

Label the stages and the number of days after exposure

A
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6
Q
  • Mycoplasma are what shape? What are they missing?
  • Where are they placed?
A
  • Mycoplasmas are spherical to filamentous cells with no cell walls
  • Placed in a separate class Mollicutes, evolved from gram positive bacteria
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7
Q

Mycoplasma:
* What type of organism?
* _ _ of the hyman respiratory and urogenital tracts
* What is complex about them?

A
  • Smallest, self replicating organism, prokaryote
  • Surface parasites of human resp. and urogenital tracts
  • Nutritional requirements are complex and they are dependent on a parasitic mode of life
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8
Q
  • Mycoplasma is an attachment organelle where?
  • What does this allow?
  • What is pneumonia?
A
  • Attachment organelle at the tip of the filamentous M. penumoniae and other pathogenic mycoplasmas
  • Allows attachment to the respiratory epithelium
  • Pneumonia is induced by local immunologic and phagocytic responses to the bacteria
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9
Q

How many cell membranes do mycoplasma have?

A

3 but NO CELL WALL

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10
Q

MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE:
* What is type of pneumonia?
* Discovered when?
* Effects what?
* Most common cause of what?

A
  • Atypical pneumonia- a term used to describe pneumonias different from the typical lobar pneumonia caused by pneumococci (strep).
  • Discovered in 1962
  • Effects humans with upper respiratory illness and bronchopneumonia
  • Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in 5-10 years old (40% of cases), 10- 15% in adults
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11
Q

What would we see in an chest Xray with pneumoniae?

A
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12
Q

Chlamydia:
* What is the morphology?
* What does it need to do to replicate?
* What does it not do well? What do we need to do to help?

A
  • Gram negative obligate intracellular bacterium
  • It needs to infect and enter a host cell to be able to replicate
  • Does not gram stain well, so does better with a Giemsa stain which reveals the cytoplasmic inclusions with reticulate bodies (replicating forms of chlamydia)
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13
Q

Chlamydia:
* How many serotypes?
* What are the two groups?

A

Has 15 serotypes
* Serotypes A-C are transmitted through secretions of the eyes, nose, or throat and can cause chlamydial conjunctivitis
* Serotypes D-K are typically transmitted via sexual contact and cause the STI chlamydia

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14
Q

Sexually transmitted chlamydia is usually what?

A

usually an asymptomatic infection, but if symptoms are present then the patients experience mucopurulent discharge, dysuria, pain

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15
Q
  • Most often chlamydia affects what?
  • If spreads higher into the uterus, fallopian tubes or ovaries it can cause what?
A
  • Most often chlamydia affects the lower genital tract causing vulvovaginitis and cervicitis
  • If spreads higher into the uterus, fallopian tubes or ovaries it can cause PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) which can cause infertility if untreated
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16
Q

Explain the chalmydia life cycle

A
  1. Attachment: Elementary body attaches to specific receptor
  2. Entry: Parasite mediated endocytosis
  3. Differentation to reticulate body
  4. Multiplication of reticulate bodies
  5. Differentiation back to elementary bodies
  6. Release elementary bodies to adjacent cells
17
Q

Coxiella:
* What type of microbe?
* What is coxiella burnetiid? What type of diease is it?

A
  • Obligate intracellular, pleomorphic gram negative rod-shaped bacteria
  • Coxiella burnetiid is the causative agent of Q fever
  • Zoonotic disease seen mostly in people who work with farm animals
18
Q

Coxiella:
* Most cases remain what? What about the others?
* If not treated, what can happen?

A
  • Most cases remain asymptomatic, the symptomatic patients commonly develop a febrile illness
  • If not treated can become a chronic infection affecting multiple organs, including the heart, bones, and lungs
19
Q

COXIELLA

  • What is q-fever?
  • Animals spread germs when?
  • Wind can carry what?
A
20
Q

Rickettsia:
* What is the morphology?
* Diverse collection of what? Where are they found?
* Rickettsia species causes what?
* What and how does it infect?

A
  • Small gram negative bacilli that are obligate intracellular parasites of eukaryotic cells
  • Diverse collection of obligately intracellular gram negative bacteria found in ticks, lice, fleas, mites, chiggers, and mammals
  • Rickettsia species cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever – transmitted by the bite of an infected tick or mite
  • Portal of entry into the skin, then spread via bloodstream to infect the endothelium and vascular smooth muscle cells
21
Q

Explain the cycle of rickettsia

A
22
Q

Pseudomonas:
* What type of morphology?
* Produces what?
* How many species?
* Has cell evelope similar to what? But what is different?

A
  • Gram negative rod, aerobe, motile with 1-3 flagella
  • Produces a fruity odor, has fluorescence under UV radiation
  • 140 species
  • Has cell envelope similar to other gram negative organisms- but the lipopolysaccharide membrane is less toxic. However produces many toxins to increase its virulence
23
Q

Pseudomonas:
* What type of bacterium? Where is it found?
* Causes what?
* What group of people are chronically colonized?

A
  • Free living bacterium found in most moist environments. Commonly inhabit soil, water, and vegetation
  • Seldom causes disease in healthy individuals, but major threat to hospitalized patients – underlying conditions such as cancer, burns, and cystic fibrosis
  • Most cystic fibrosis patients are chronically colonized with pseudomonas aeruginosa
    * Most CF patients ultimately die of localized P aeruginosa infections
24
Q

What two microbes account for approximately 80% of pseudomonads infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and pseudomonas maltophilia

25
Q

What organism is this?

A

Pseudomonas

26
Q

STREPTOMYCES:
* Characterized as what?
* Includes how many species? Where?
* Grow as what?
* Streptomycetes produce what?
* Streptomycetes are infrequent pathogens, though infections in humans, such as mycetoma, can be caused by what?

A
  • Gram + aerobic bacteria
  • Includes more than 500 species occurring in soil and water
  • Grow as mycelium of branching hyphal filaments and reproduce by spending u specialized aerial branches which form spores
  • Produce over two thirds of the clinically useful antibiotics of natural origin
  • Infrequent pathogens, though infections in humans such as mycetoma, can be caused by caused by S. somaliensis and S. sudanensis
27
Q

Bordatella:
* what is the morphology?
* Contains what? What does this cause?
* What has prevented incidence and mortality?
* Produces what?

A
  • Small, gram negative, strict aerobic, coccobacilli
  • Contains the species B pertussis and B parapertussis which causes pertussis (whooping cough) in humans
  • Immunization has prevented incidence and mortality
  • Mainly an infection of infants and children
  • Produces a number of virulence factors – pertussis toxins
28
Q

Pasteurella:
* What is an example?
* What is the morphology?
* How many isolated groups? What are most human caused?
* Most common mode of infection is what? When does it develop?

A
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Gram negative coccobacillus, non-motile,
    facultative anaerobe
  • 5 commonly isolated groups – A, B, D, E, and F
  • Most humans caused by serogroups A and D
  • Most common mode of infection is via animal bite or scratch
  • Rapid course and develops within 24 hours of injury