Lecture 6 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the stages that take place following a positive pregnancy test?

A

Booked into antenatal care - see the midwife

Nuchal Scan - 10-14 weeks - different tests dependent on the NHS trust (ultrasound)

A Mid-Trimester anomaly scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When are the two ultrasounds offered to pregnant women?

A

11-14 weeks

20-22 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of the nuchal scan and when does it take place?

A

Uses of the Nuchal Scan:

  • Date the pregnancy
  • Multiple Pregnancies
  • Major Foetal Abnormalities
  • Early Miscarriage
  • Assess risks of Down Syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities

Done by looking at Nuchal Translucency and taking into account: maternal age, hormone levels, nasal bone, blood floor through the foetal heart and foetal abnormalities.
IT IS A SCREENING TEST NOT DIAGNOSTIC
11-14 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is normal and abnormal NT and what does abnormla suggest?

A

Normal NT is <3.5mm
>3mm means chromosomal abnormalities, cardiac anomalies, pulmonary defects, renal defects, abdominal wall defects, skeletal dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is prenatal testing arranged?

A
  • Following abnormal findings at nuchal scan or mid-trimester scan
  • Following results test which give an increased risk of Down Syndrome
  • If previous pregnancy affected with a condition e.g. DS, CF
  • If parent(s) carrier of chromosome rearrangement or genetic condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aims of Prenatal Testing

A
  • To inform and prepare parents for the birth of an effected child.
  • In utero treatment could be offered.
  • Aids management of the rest of the pregnancy
  • Allows parents to prepare for complications at or after birth.
  • To allow TERMINATION of an affected foetus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three main types of prenatal testing?

A

1) Non-Invasive
Ultrasound/MRI

2) Minimally Invasive
Maternal Blood Test
Cell-Free Foetal DNA

3) Invasive
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
Amniocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ultrasound

A
  • Early/dating scan (can be done from 5 weeks but best from 9 weeks)
  • Nuchal Translucency and nasal bone
  • High level/anomaly scan
  • High level anomaly scan at 18-22 weeks so foetus is examined especially the brain, face, spin, heart, stomach, bowel, kidneys and limbs. This scan can be diagnostic in that it can detect many birth defects such as hydrocephalus, neural tube defects, limb/organ deformities, some heart defects.
  • It is also a test where ‘soft’ markers are detected and can be suggestive of an underlying problem -if a marker is detected at ultrasound, a thorough check is made for other features of the chromosomal defect known to be associated with that marker
  • U/S is also useful for determining the size and position of the foetus and the placenta, amount of amniotic fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MRI

A

20 weeks
High level and anomaly scan can be diagnostic - showing cleft lip, limb deformity or cardiac problem.

It can also show soft markers for other problems.
Nasal Bone - soft marker - presence or absence can indicate Down Syndrome.

When taken alongside NT and maternal age, looking at the nasal bone increases the sensitivity of DS screening.

Foetal Cardiac Scans can show cardiac problems - only done if the other scans indicate potential problem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maternal serum testing

A
  • Tests maternal serum markers in the blood
  • Detects increased risk of trisomy 21, trisomy 18 and/or neural tube defects.

Types of Maternal Serum Screening:

1st Trimester - 11-14 weeks - done alongside the NT measurement (looks for the presence of hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) and PAPP A (pregnancy associated plasma protein A)).

2nd Trimester - 16-20 weeks - done if they are booked in later in pregnancy - looks for hCG and PAPP A and AFP (alpha foetal protein) and uE3 (oestriol).

Private - combined 1st and 2nd Trimester Screening available

If these tests find that the woman is at high risk of some genetic diseases, she will be offered more invasive prenatal tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cell free fetal DNA test

A
  • Analysing the DNA fragments present in the maternal plasma during pregnancy (cell-free DNA).
  • 10-20% of it comes from the placenta
  • cffDNA is first detectable from about 4 -5 weeks gestation, but cannot accurately be detected until 9 weeks
  • Offered when there is a X-linked condition in the family detects SRY gene on Y chromosome. If male then go on to prenatal test
  • NIPD available for Achondroplasia, thanatophoric dysplasia, Apert syndrome - testing is free
  • Also used for autosomal dominant single gene disorders from the father or arise de novo
  • NIPD is also possible to alter management of pregnancies at risk of recessive conditions
  • 12% chance that, if they do not detect a mutation, they are unable to confirm the presence of fetal DNA.
  • CffDNA offered privately also
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

NIPD and NIPT

A

Non-invasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) or testing (NIPT) is based on a maternal blood test. In some cases, such as testing for the achondroplasia, it is diagnostic. But in other cases such as for Down’s syndrome an invasive test is required so the test is NIPT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the benefits of NIPD and NIPT?

A
  • Reduced number of invasive tests - due to identification of sex
  • No risk of miscarriage
  • Less expertise required to perform a blood test
  • Invasive tests are more uncomfortable
  • NIPD and NIPT can be offered earlier than invasive tests - results come earlier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the cons of NIPD and NIPT?

A
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • proportion of cell-free foetal DNA is reduced in women with a high BMI
  • same implications as an invasive test- psychological
  • invasive test may still be required to confirm an abnormal result
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are invasive prenatal tests?

A

Offered when there is a known risk shown by other prenatal testing and if there is a known genetic condition in the family that the baby is at risk of. Molecular, cytogenetic and biochemical tests are done and they are conducted under ultrasound guidance. They are diagnostic.
These tests are invasive and carry a miscarriage risk.
e.g. Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) and Amniocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)

A
  • 11-14 weeks
  • 1-2% Risk of Miscarriage
  • Transabdominal or Transvaginal
  • Chorionic Villus - part of the developing placenta - has the same DNA as the foetus
  • Gives an earlier result than amniocentesis - important for patients deciding on termination of pregnancy.
17
Q

Amniocentesis

A
  • From 16 weeks
  • Takes sample of amniotic fluid which contains fetal cells
  • Up to 1% risk of miscarriage, infection, Rh sensitisation
  • performed later than CVS
  • needle through the abdomen
18
Q

What type of test is done with the DNA sample from CVS or Amniocentesis?

A

Type of test done depends on the genetic disorder that they are looking for. The timing of the test also depends on the genetic disorder.

Karyotype - done if there is a chromosomal abnormality in the family. E.g. if the parents are carriers of a balanced translocation. Results in 2 weeks (dependent upon the cells growing)

QF-PCR (Quantitative Fluorescence PCR) - samples to Guy’s Hospital laboratory and looks for t13, 18 & 21 (plus sex chromosomes if disorder suspected). Results: 24-48 hours

19
Q

Which reproductive options are available?

A
  • Conceive naturally - no prenatal testing
  • Conceive naturally - have prenatal testing
  • Egg and/or Sperm Donors
  • Adoption
  • Choose not to have children
  • Pre-implantaion Genetic Diagnosis (PGD)
20
Q

Egg and Sperm Donation

A
  • No longer anonymous - children conceived have the right to contact the donor when they are 18.
  • Done through UK HFEA licenced fertility centre - conform to strict medical, ethical and legal standards
  • Can find donor privately
  • Some couples may consider going abroad
21
Q

What are the stages of adoption?

A

1) Registration and Checks
Registering interest with adoption agency
Medical and Criminal background checks - three written references
2 months

2) Assessment and Approval
Home visits by social workers
Prospective Adopters Report is made - taken to adoption panel
Panel review the report and make decision about the couple’s suitability to adopt.

3) Search for a child begins

22
Q

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A

Uses IVF with an additional step to genetically test the embryo before implantation and is particularly used by people who do not want to go through pregnancy and then have to abort

  • Stimulation of the ovaries
  • Egg collection
  • Insemination
  • Fertilisation
  • Embryo biopsy
  • Embryo testing
  • Embryo transfer
  • Pregnancy test
23
Q

Eligibility Criteria for PGD

A
  • Female partner is under 40
  • Female partner has BMI between 19 and 30
  • Both partners are non-smokers
  • No living unaffected children from the relationship
  • Known risk of having a child affected by a serious genetic condition
  • A licence is required from the HFEA for each genetic condition or indication
  • Eligible couples are usually funded for three rounds of PGD
24
Q

What are the problems with PGD ?

A
  • Emotional and Physical implications
  • Lengthy process
  • Success Rates: 30% per cycle, 40% per embryo transfer
25
Q

IVF and ICSI

A

IVF – sperm and egg placed together in culture dish; mainly used for chr abnormalities and embryo sex
ICSI – Injection of single sperm into each egg – used for single gene disorders to reduce the amount of non-embryo DNA (including sperm DNA) which could make the risk of a wrong diagnosis higher.

26
Q

Role of a genetic counsellor

A
  • Arrange & explain CVS, amniocentesis, PGD, cffDNA
  • Facilitate decision-making - family situation, religion, personal beliefs, psychosocial situation, balancing miscarriage risk with genetic risk, dealing with indecision, couples do not always agree
  • Give results
  • See patients in clinic following a diagnosis in utero
  • Arrange termination if necessary
  • Discuss recurrence risks and plans for future pregnancies
27
Q

List some factors that will facilitate decision making

A
  • Previous experience
  • Family situation
  • Religion
  • Personal beliefs
  • Psychosocial situation
  • Balancing miscarriage risk with genetic risk
  • Dealing with indecision
  • Couples do not always agree
28
Q

What are the indications for referrals to genetic services?

A
  • family history
  • maternal age
  • consanguineous parents
  • abnormal scans
  • fetal abnormalities
  • exposure to something dangerous
  • pregnancy history
  • genetics
  • parental health
29
Q

What are some diseases that PGD is used for?

A

Huntingdon’s Disease
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Cystic Fibrosis