Lecture 4 (Assay development) Flashcards

1
Q

What criteria should an assay meet?

A

Relevance
Reliability
Practicality
Feasibility
Automation
Cost

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2
Q

What is meant by ‘practicality’ of an assay?

A

quality and quantity of the results shall justify the investment of time, costs, and efforts

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3
Q

What is meant by ‘reliability’ of an assay?

A

results are reproducible and statistically significant

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4
Q

What is meant by ‘relevance’ of an assay?

A

readout should be unequivocally related to the target

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5
Q

What is meant by ‘feasibility’ of an assay?

A

assay can make use of available resources

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6
Q

What do biochemical assays mostly used?

A

multicolor luminescence or fluorescence-based
reagents are often developed to mimic or label the target

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7
Q

What are the 2 main assay types?

A

In Vitro/Cell-based Assays
In Vivo/Animal Models

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8
Q

Give some examples of In Vitro/Cell-based Assays?

A
  • cytotoxicity assay
  • cell growth
  • reporter gene assay
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9
Q

What kinds of changes do cell-based functional assays detect?

A

Changes in cell morphology, cell migration,
apoptosis

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10
Q

In Vitro/Cell-based assays are generally more robust and cost-effective, thus often chosen for HTS.

True or False

A

True

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11
Q

In transgenic animals, certain genes are _________, _________ or __________ .

A

deleted, modulated, added

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12
Q

Give an example of a disease for which adequate models for disease do not exists

A

hepatitis C

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13
Q

In Vitro/Cell-based assays often monitor a surrogate readout, what could the surrogate readout be?

A
  1. catalytic action of an isolated enzyme
  2. Binding of an antibody to a defined antigen
  3. Growth of an engineered cell line
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14
Q

What are the agents involved in In vitro/Cell0based assays?

A
  1. Recombinant reagents
  2. Reagents that were isolated from lysates
  3. Whole cell crude lysates
  4. Intact cells
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15
Q

What are the advantages of In Vitro based assays over In Vivo assays?

A
  1. Robust and cost-effective
  2. Fewer ethical implications than whole animal experiments
  3. Often chosen for high-throughput screening
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16
Q

What kind of animal models are used in In Vivo assays?

A
  1. transgenic animals
  2. surgical models
  3. behavioural models
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17
Q

With the constraints of the animal model, false negatives are a great concern where a potentially useful drug is not detected.

True or False

A

True

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18
Q

What is the man aim of an assay design?

A

The aim is to minimize the number of handling steps and, where possible, process samples in parallel.

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19
Q

What kind of assays are becoming more popular?

A

Homogenous non-separation assays (mix and read)

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20
Q

Give some examples of homogenous non-separation assays (mix and read) ?

A
  1. Scintillation proximity
  2. Fluorescence
  3. Time-resolved fluorescence
  4. Fluorescence polarization
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21
Q

Explain the principle of scintillation proximity.

A
  1. solid scintillator material coated onto microbeads or wells
  2. scintillant-coated beads or wells are capture radioactive samples
  3. emitted radiation excites the scintillator –> emission of light (scintilation)
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22
Q

Extracellular molecular signals are usually found at very low concentrations.
What concentration?

A

10^-8 M or less

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23
Q

What is a receptor?

A

A receptor is any cellular macromolecule to which a drug or hormone binds to initiate its effect

24
Q

What is an acceptor?

A

Structures which bind a ligand without evoking a native biological response

25
Q

In order to interact with the ligands in a highly specific manner, what properties must receptors have?

A
  1. sensitivity
    –> able to detect drug/hormones at low conc
  2. selectivity
    –> responses are elicited by narrow range of chemical substances
  3. specificity
    –> response of cells of any given type is always same
26
Q

What are some ‘conditions’ of ligand binding?

A

-Should be target-cell specific
-Should be saturable
-Should be specific for the ligand (stereoisomers)
-Should be of high affinity

27
Q

How are ligands classified?

A

agonists and antagonists

28
Q

What is an agonist ligand?

A

An agonist binds to the receptor and activates that receptor

29
Q

What is an antagonist ligand?

A

An antagonist binds to the receptor but does not activate the receptor

30
Q

What is ‘receptor that is constitutively active’?

A

a receptor that is active in the absence of an agonist –> a situation seen with some oncogenes

31
Q

What is utilised in radioligand binding assays?

A

cellular membrane preparations derived from animal organs or cell cultures

32
Q

What is the advantage of using cellular membrane preparations that are stored at low temperature for radioligand binding assay?

A

Inter-assay variation is low
–> allowing the acquisition of comparable data over an extended period of time.

33
Q

What are classical receptor binding and radioimmunoassays (RIA) based on?

A

competition between a radiolabeled tracer and the test compound for the
binding domain of a target (e.g., receptor)

34
Q

What is the principle behind using ‘competition between a radiolabeled tracer and the test compound for the
binding domain of a target’ in receptor binding and radioimmunoassays (RIA)?

A

An active compound reduces the amount of radioligand bound to the target, and its affinity for the site can be quantified.

35
Q

List out the steps in a typical ligand binding experiment

A
  1. add radioactive ligand to membrane
  2. allow equilibration
  3. separate pellet and supernatant by rapid filtration and washing and determine radioactivity
35
Q

Competitive antagonism:
In the presence of a fixed concentration of a competitive antagonist, the agonist curve shows the same _____(a)_____ as in the absence of the antagonist. However, concentrations required to produce any given level of effect are _______(b)_____.

A

(a) maximal effect
(b) increased

36
Q

Non-competitive antagonism:
High concentrations of agonist _____(a)______ completely overcome the antagonism and maximal agonist response _____(b)______ be obtained.

Why?

A

(a) cannot
(b) cannot

Because in non-competitive antagonism scenario, the non-competitive antagonist (ligand) is akin to non-competitive substrate that does not bind to the active site of enzyme but on a different region of the enzyme allosterically and inhibits/disables the enzyme.

37
Q

What is un-competitive antagonism?

A

The antagonist binds to the agonist-receptor complex only and not to the free receptor.

38
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Agonists that produce a lower maximal response at full receptor occupancy than do full agonists. Affinity may be greater than that of the full agonist.

39
Q

Can the affinity of a partial agonist be greater than the full agonist?

40
Q

What is potency?

A

Range of doses over which a drug produces increasing responses.

41
Q

What is potency of a drug dependent on?

A

1.drug-receptor interaction
2. coupling efficiency to the physiological
process
3. ability to reach the relevant receptors.

42
Q

What is KD?

A

The dissociation constant and has units of concentration (mol/dm3)

–>Concentration of ligand which, at equilibrium, causes 50% of the receptors to be occupied.

43
Q

What is EC50?

A

Concentration of ligand at which the biological response or effect is half maximal. The EC50 of a ligand can be as much as 100-fold smaller than the KD

44
Q

Functional assays generally require the use of intact cells to monitor second
messenger production or processing.

Give examples of second messengers.

A
  1. cAMP
  2. Ca2+ ions
45
Q

Why are cellular test more cumbersome than membrane assays?

A

require special treatment and preparation to generate consistent data
- temperature
- sterility
- passage number

46
Q

Why would cellular assays be preferred in some cases?

A

Cellular assays can be utilized for HTS and they provide more information than
tests that monitor only ligand affinity.

47
Q

What is the technology that uses skin of Xenopus laevis to evaluate whether a test compound acts as an agonist or antagonist on expressed GPCRs?

A

Melanophore Technology
(immortalized amphibian melanocytes)

48
Q

What is the main purpose of Melanophore Technology?

A

to evaluate whether a test compound acts as an agonist or antagonist on expressed GPCRs

49
Q

What is the principle behind Melanophore Technology?

A
  • melanin-containing melanosomes aggregated within the cell
  • when intracellular cAMP levels exceed a certain threshold
    –>melanosomes are dispersed
50
Q

How do skin cells of Xenopus laevis appear visually when utilized as Melanophore Technology?

A

The cells appear dark when cAMP levels are high.

The cells appear light when cAMP levels are low.

51
Q

What changes in the skin cell of Xenopus laevis lead to the melanosomes being dispersed?

A
  1. intracellular cAMP levels exceed a certain threshold or
  2. protein kinase C is activated via inositol phosphates produced by activated
    phospholipase C
52
Q

What does the reporter gene consist of?

A

promoter gene and reporter gene

53
Q

Why is it important to choose an appropriate promoter for reporter gene?

A

The choice of promoter will ultimately control the basal level of reporter gene activity and the degree of stimulation measured.

54
Q

Give an example of an endogenous promoter

55
Q

What is the downside of using endogenous promoters?

A

complex range of signalling events that could activate reporter gene expression and confuse the analysis of the bioassay

56
Q

What is an advantage of ‘promiscuity’ of endogenous promoters?

A

allowing natural products that regulate different signalling and transcription processes to be identified in the same assay format