Lecture 3 - Microbial diagnostic Flashcards

1
Q

what is the general process to identify what microorganism caused a disease?

A

1: find the culprit (swabs, blood, urine)
2: grow the culprit (agar, liquid medium, animal cells)
3: identify the culprit (array of diagnostic methods)

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2
Q

what is a colony of bacteria?

A

where one single bacterium was isolated on an agar plate and grew logarithmically overnight to produce millions of cells. we see a dot or shape about the size of 1-10mm

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3
Q

what is a cocci?

A

round bacterium

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4
Q

give an overview of diagnostic methods

A
  • structural features (colony and cell morphology)
  • biochem properties (O2 depen, AB and chem resistance)
  • antibody binding (serological tests, immunological assays
  • infection by phage (phage typing)
  • DNA/RNA (hybridisation and PCR)
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5
Q

what can we tell by the colony morphology on an agar plate?

A

gives some clues but isn’t sufficient enough for conclusive identification

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6
Q

how can colony morphology differ?

A

By:
- shape
- colour
- appearance
- odor

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7
Q

which gram type bacteria stains purple and why?

A

gram positive
- the crystals of crystal violet get trapped in the thick peptidoglycan wall

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8
Q

why doesn’t gram negative stain purple?

A

even though it has a peptidoglycan wall, it isn’t thick enough to retain crystals, and wash off when acetone is used during decolorisation

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9
Q

how can we identify gram negative bacteria?

A

by doing a counter stain of safranin

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10
Q

true or false: candidas albicans retains crystal violet, and is therefore a gram positive bacterium.

A

false, candidas albicans does retain crystal violet but is a yeast, so is neither gram -ve nor gram +ve.

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11
Q

how does the cell size of candidas albicans relate to bacteria?

A

significantly larger than bacteria

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12
Q

what is budding in yeast?

A

a form of asexual reproduction, a bud receives cytoplasm and organelles before detaching when it matures into its own cell

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13
Q

what are pseudohyphae?

A

cells that began to bud but ‘got stuck’ and instead remain on the parent cell as a chain-like structure

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14
Q

what is an acid-fast bacterium/mycobacterium?

A

Bacterium which have waxy, hydrophobic coat made of mycolic acid

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15
Q

what kind of cell wall morphology do mycobacterium have?

A

gram positive -> they still contain the thick peptidoglycan cell wall.

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16
Q

why can’t we use normal gram-staining methods on mycobacterium?

A

because their thick waxy coat is hydrophobic, and most stains are hydrophillic

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17
Q

briefly describe Ziel-Neelson (acid fast) staining

A

1: carbolfuchsin (red) and heat are applied to breach waxy coat of mycobacterium
2: ethanol and HCl added to destain (epithelial cells decolour, acid-fast cells retain colour)
3: methylene blue is added as a counterstain to stain other cells.

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18
Q

after completing a Zeil-Neelson stain, what would you expect to see in the tissue?

A

acid-fast (myco) bacterium stained red, with all other cells stained blue

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19
Q

what stain do we use to visualise moulds such as penicillium?

A

Lactophenol cotton blue stain

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20
Q

how does lactophenol cotton blue stain work?

A

1: phenol kills the mould and prevents cell lysis
2: cotton blue stains the chitin in the cell wall

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21
Q

what are structures 1,2 and 3?

A

1: Hypha
2: fruiting body
3: spores

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22
Q

what are the three assays we can do to test for different enzyme activity?

A

1: catalase test
2: coagulase test
3: oxidase test

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23
Q

what does the catalase test involve?

A

placing two types of bacteria on a microscope slide containing a spot of hydrogen peroxide. If the sample bubbles, catalase is present

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24
Q

what does the presence of catalase tell us about the bacterium?

A

it is staphylococci

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25
Q

what does the coagulase test involve?

A
  • suspend a bacterial colony in rabbit plasma.
  • if a coagulant is formed after 1-4h (fibrinogen -> fibrin) then coagulase is present
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26
Q

what does the presence of coagulase tell us about the bacterium?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus is present
(no other staphs have coagulase)

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27
Q

Coagulase is a ____ ________-_____ protein that mediates fibrin polymerisation

A

cell surface-bound

28
Q

what does the oxidase test involve?

A

a sample of bacteria is placed onto a window containing an oxidase reagent.
- if the sample turns blue, then oxidase is present

29
Q

what are some oxidase positive bacteria?

A
  • pseudomonas
  • neisseria
  • moraxella
  • campylobacter
30
Q

Microbact strips are an assay based on?

A

metabolic reactions

31
Q

what does a microbact strip assay involve?

A
  • mini test systems which use standard biochemical identifications
  • each position on the strip is an independent reaction
  • test is for a specific enzyme, substrate or product
  • indicator is added to monitor biochemical reaction
32
Q

what was the example of a test reaction in microbact strip testing we discussed in class?

A

testing for fermentation of glucose when bacteria is added:
- since fermentation produces acid, pH drops and [H+] rises.
- if glucose fermentation is present, the indicator in the glucose sample will change colours.
- if there is no fermentation, the glucose will remain blue.

33
Q

how do you use a microbact analysis sheet?

A

the strip is split into (typically 4) groups of three.
- the first well of each 3 has an index of 4
- the 2nd well has an index of 2
- the 3rd well has an index of 1
add the index numbers for each positive result (compared to a reference microbact chart) per group of three.
- this will give you a 4 digit code which corresponds to a particular bacterium

34
Q

what is selective agar?

A

agar that contains inhibitors to prevent growth of certain organisms

35
Q

what is differential agar?

A

contains indicators to differentiate organisms
- cause visible changes in response to bacteria metabolism

36
Q

what is sabourad agar?

A

agar that is selective for fungi, but isnt differential. the low pH suppresses the growth of most bacteria

37
Q

what is Eosin-methylen blu agar (EMB)?

A
  • selective for gram -ve bacteria
  • contains aniline dyes which are toxic to gram positive bacteria
  • also is differential -> differentiates lactose fermenters
38
Q

what is MacConkey agar?

A
  • selective for intestinal pathogens
  • bile salts inhibits non-enteric bacteria (bacteria not in the enteric system)
  • also differentiates lactose fermenters (go pink on orange agar)
39
Q

what is blood agar?

A
  • non selective but differentiates types of heamolytic reactions
  • grows many types of fastidious bacteria
40
Q

describe how beta, alpha and gamma heamolysis reactions would look on a blood agar plate

A

alpha: partial hemolysis
beta: full hemolysis
gamma: no hemolysis

41
Q

what is mannitol salt agar?

A

selective for haloduric bacteria (staphyl)
- differentiates mannitol fermenters (yellow on pink plate)
- Staph aureus is the only staph that ferments mannitol

42
Q

what does haloduric mean?

A

can endure higher than normal salt concentrations

43
Q

what is bile-esculine agar?

A
  • selective for enteric bacteria.
  • oxgall (a bile salt) inhibits non-enteric bacteria
  • esculine hydrolysis is performed by enteric bacteria, so if they are present, then the agar turns black
44
Q

what is a bacterial lawn?

A

an agar plate that has been completely covered in a strain of bacteria

45
Q

what will the bacterial lawn look like if an antibiotic is placed in it that the bacteria are sensitive to?

A

there will be a thick ring around the AB of no bacterial growth

46
Q

true or false, the antibiotic susceptibility test is selective for certain bacterium

A

false, it allows for differentiation between species.
- e.g strep p is sensitive to bacitracin, but strep d is resistant.

47
Q

what is agglutination

A

the action of an antibody when it cross-links multiple antigens producing clumps of antigens

48
Q

what is cell agglutination most commonly used to distinguish?

A

whether or not a specific bacterium serotype is present.

49
Q

how does cell agglutination work?

A

by knowing that a specific antibody will bind to a specific antigen on a serotype’s surface, we can put the antibody in the unknown bacterium sample and if it clumps, then we know that antigen is present.

50
Q

what is latex bead agglutination?

A

the same concept as cell agglutination, only the antibodies are attached to a latex bead, which makes the interaction easier to visualise.

51
Q

what is a western blot?

A
  • separation of proteins by size using electrophoresis is washed by a primary antibody
  • then it is washed with a secondary antibody and FastRed stain, which binds to the 1º antibody
  • one protein on the chart will be red.
52
Q

what does a western blot help us find out?

A

identification of a specific protein
or identification of an antibody in serum using specific proteins

53
Q

what do all methods of distinguishing through antibody-antigen binding have in common?

A

they are all highly specific

54
Q

What is ELISA?

A

similar to western blot, but the reaction is in a solution
- e.g using a protein that binds an antibody or vice versa

55
Q

what is a benefit of ELISA over western blot?

A

it is easier to quantify, e.g more colour = more protein/antibody

56
Q

where can we commonly see a lateral flow test

A

in a covid or pregnancy test

57
Q

what concept does a lateral flow test use?

A

antibody antigen binding

58
Q

what is immunofluorescence microscopy?

A
  • fluorescently labelled antibodies are either directly or indirectly (bind to 2º AB) added to a solution and helps show location of specific proteins in a cell or tissue
59
Q

what does RFLP differentiate?

A

strains of the same species

60
Q

how does RFLP work?

A

a mutation may cause a strain to destroy a restriction site, causing one less and therefore a longer fragment on gel electrophoresis
- differentiates mutant strain from og

61
Q

what does RFLP stand for?

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism

62
Q

what is RFLP mainly used for?

A

epidemiological studies, but used to be used for DNA fingerprinting

63
Q

what is PCR used for?

A

growing samples to a big enough visual size
- means we can visualise microorganisms that do not grow in culture, such as chlamydia and viruses

64
Q

how does PCR work?

A
  • heat stable DNA polymerase creates copies of DNA with the help of initial heat denaturing the protein and an oligo DNA primer to start DNA polymerase off
65
Q

why can’t chlamydia be grown in culture?

A

it relies on mammalian cells to replicate and grow
- grows inside of them

66
Q

what is FISH?

A

uses fluorescent probes to target specific DNA or RNA sequences
- 16S RNA is a common target