Lecture 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are are the req’s for BSL-1?

A

microbes are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults, and present minimal potential hazard to lab personnel and the environment.

Ex. nonpathogenic strain of E. coli

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2
Q

What are are the req’s for BSL-2?

A

microbes pose moderate hazards to lab personnel and the environment. Microbes are typically indigenous and assoc’d w/ disease of varying severity.

Ex. Staphylococcus aureus

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3
Q

What are are the req’s for BSL-3?

A

microbes can be either indigenous or exotic, and can cause serious of potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission.

Ex. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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4
Q

What are are the req’s for BSL-4?

A

microbes are dangerous and exotic, pose a high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections. Infections caused by these microbes are frequently fatal and without treatment of vaccines.

Ex. Ebola virus, Marburg virus

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5
Q

What are the types of biosafety cabinets?

A

There are three main classes of biological safety cabinets (BSC). Each type of cabinet provides protection through different configurations of HEPA filtered laminar air flow into/within the cabinets as well as HEPA filtered exhaust air.

Class I BSC: not used often – tend to be used to enclose equipment or procedures which have the potential to generate aerosols.

Class II BSC: most common type – used w/ BSL 1, 2, 3 agents

Class III BSC: designed for work w/ BSL 4 agents – provide maximum protection.

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6
Q

Describe the uses of animals with specific examples for Virus propagation:

A

i. Viruses that cannot be grown in other systems
1. Ex. some rotaviruses
2. Use of “germ free” animals inside a sterile chamber directly from birth
a. Inoculate/infect the animal with the agent under study  now referred to as a “gnotobiotic animal” (since you know exactly what agent is within the animal)

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7
Q

Describe the uses of animals with specific examples for Virus surveillance:

A

i. sentinels for virus surveillance
1. Ex. WNV, other insect-borne viruses
a. Sentinel chickens are placed at several sites in the surveillance area – chickens are bled once a week and serum tested for WNV and SLE virus-specific IgM Ab

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8
Q

Describe the uses of animals with specific examples for Diagnostics including discovering new viruses:

A

i. Diagnostics when tissue culture sensitivity may be an issue
1. Ex. rabies virus
a. If an individual is bitten by an animal that is suspected to have rabies, the brain is removed and an impression smear is performed, then stained using IFA. (-) result from IFA staining does not mean that the animal is free of rabies, however – you need to take the testing further and perform animal inoculation (mouse inoculation test) to look for the presence of cytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies) in Perkinje cells.
i. A suckling mouse in inoculated with 0.05 mL of a clarified suspension of brain material.
ii. Observe the mouse for CS/death.
1. If the mouse dies w/I 24 hrs, probably not due to rabies virus (instead, due to trauma of brain inoculation)
2. When the mouse dev’ps neuro signs of dies, remove the brain and do an impression smear.
a. If (-), conclude that it is probably not rabies virus.
b. If (+), confirm via serological means.
i. (take brain material from the mouse, make a clarified suspension and use it as the Ag in a serological test)

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9
Q

Describe the uses of animals with specific examples for pathogenesis studies:

A

i. The monkey model for SARS virus studies
1. A wildlife species was determined to pass the virus to humans as they were held in markets for food purposes. Sometimes an animal (in this case, monkey) has to be used for pathogenesis studies.

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10
Q

Describe the uses of animals with specific examples for vaccine development:

A

i. Challenge studies
1. Ex. use of ferrets to test for influenza virus vaccine efficacy
a. Ferrets are highly susceptible to both human and avian influenza viruses, therefore pathogenesis and transmission studies can both be performed in the ferret model. Numerous CS of human infection w/ influenza viruses are present in the ferret. Ferrets are also well suited to vaccine efficacy studies

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11
Q

What are the sites of the embryonating egg that are used for virus inoculation?

A

amniotic cavity

chorioallantoic membrane CAM

yolk sac

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12
Q

Describe why the amniotic cavity (sac) of the EE is the preferred inoculation site for isolating wild type influenza virus from chickens

A

The amniotic cavity of the EE is the preferred site for isolating influenza viruses because during development of the embryo, the amniotic fluid is inspirated and expirated by the embryo. Any virus present within the fluid will have access to cells from all embryologic origins (epidermal, mesodermal, endodermal).

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13
Q

Describe indications of virus infection of the EE with specific examples.

A

x

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14
Q

Describe how EE can be inoculated

A

EE are inoculated around 7-10 days of age of the embryo. The egg is held up to a light source (“candled”) to determine whether there are distinct BV and presence of a dark eye – these indicate health of the embryo. The egg is sanitized and a small hole is punched through the shell. A needle is inserted directly into the egg’s allantoic cavity through the shell membrane and the egg is inoculated with approximately 0.1mL of sample. The needle is removed and the hole is sealed with wax, glue, or tape. The egg is placed in an incubator for a period of time (duration depending on the virus), then removed and harvested.

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15
Q

Describe the optimum site of the EE used for propagating/isolating rickettsial and chlamydia agents

A

Rickettsial and chlamydia agents are optimally propagated in the yolk sac. After ~12 days of incubation, the yolk sac membrane is harvested and stained, revealing clusters of elementary bodies in the cytoplasm of cells lining the stalk of the yolk sac.

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16
Q

What is organ culture?

A

refers to cross sections/portions of organs maintained in cell culture medium.

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17
Q

what are tissue explants?

A

are fragments of tissue that are created by cutting up a specific organ. These fragments of infected tissue are placed on a stainless steel platform inside a cell culture plate that has a cell monolayer used to detect the virus. The cells surrounding the explants are observed for the presence of CPE

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18
Q

Describe uses for explants and organ culture?

A

When cells are by themselves (e.g. in cell culture), there are a certain number of specific genes that are active/being expressed- some receptors are present and others are absent. When in the presence of other cells, there is much cell interaction occurring and more receptors may be present. When studying the effects of an agent on an organ, we want to use the entire organ so that we can get accurate results / “the big picture”

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19
Q

How are explants useful in studying herpesvirus latency, use PRV?

A

Herpesviruses are characterized by having the ability to establish latent infections (infections of cells that do not go to completion). The virus infects the host and replicates in the cells (specifically neurons). These DNA viruses require the nucleus for replication – once in the nucleus of the neuron, the replication stops. The viral genome persists in the nucleus in an epizomal form (not incorporated into the host cell DNA, but instead exists in a free circular form) that can last for weeks, months, or years. Sometime later there is an event that triggers reactivation of the latent infection and causes it to start up again and go to completion/generate progeny (events include physical trauma, emotional trauma, stress, or co-infection with another agent)

When testing an experimental vaccine for pseudorabies virus, an important question was whether the vaccine would latently infect the pigs- if a latent infection occurred, this would be undesirable. To test this, researchers vaccinated a group of pigs with the experimental vaccine, waited a few months, then stressed them out by putting them in a truck and driving around for a few hours. They followed some of the pigs serologically to see if there was a reactivation of serum Ab titer. They examined the other pigs by post-mortem removal of the trigeminal ganglion, which they cut up into small explants. They were put into culture with a cell monolayer that was observed for presence of CPE. The result was that the physical trauma of cutting up the ganglion tissues was enough to reactivate the virus, and CPE observed in the cells was determined to be a result of pseudorabies virus.

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20
Q

Describe the components of growth and maintenance media

A

Growth and maintenance media contain water, balanced salt solution (BSS), a buffering system, and serum that contains GFs that are critical to cell growth and replication. Fetal bovine serum (FBS) is preferred over neonatal serum because it does not have maternal Ab. The difference between growth and maintenance media is in the amount of serum they contain. Growth serum has a high amount of serum, and maintenance serum has a lower amount of serum. This becomes important during growing of a cell population: initially, growth medium is used to support high amounts of cell replication. As the islands of cells come together, contact inhibition occurs and a cell monolayer forms. At this point, the cells need to slow down their metabolism or else they will generate a lot of waste products and this will destroy the cells. The growth medium is replaced with maintenance medium to achieve this slower metabolism rate

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21
Q

Define, give the characteristics and uses, and describe how Primary cells are produced:

A

i. Cell cultures that are derived directly from the host. The cells are collected, disaggregated, and grown in cell culture. These cultures are referred to as being heterogeneous because the tissues contain many kinds of cells. Fibroblasts predominate in primary cell lines because they form the framework that holds everything else together – specialized epithelial cells are the minority, even though there are many different kinds of epithelial cells.
1. cells have normal # of chromosomes and a finite # of replications
2. primary cell lines are useful for isolating new viruses – they allow you to expose all cells of a certain organ to the virus at once when trying to observe and determine infective characteristics of the virus

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22
Q

Define, give the characteristics and uses, and describe how Diploid cells are produced:

A

i. Diploid cell strains are homogenous cell populations that are generated from a single cell which is cloned from a heterogeneous cell population. This is accomplished by using a cell sorter.
1. Cells have normal # of chromosomes and are capable of a finite # of replications.
2. Useful in vaccine production – ex. human rabies virus vaccine

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23
Q

Define, give the characteristics and uses, and describe how continuous cells are produced:

A

i. Emerge from primary (heterogeneous) cell population through spontaneous or induced mutation. Mutations can be induced by chemical agents, physical agents (radiation), or genetic manipulation.
1. Population is homogenous
2. Cells have an abnormal # of chromosomes and are capable of an infinite # of replications (essentially a cancer cell)
3. Generally easy to propagate – good candidate for use in diagnostic labs
4. Epithelial cell origin

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24
Q

What is subpassaging?

A

Sub-passaging is the process of creating a subculture. A subculture is a new culture made from an original culture by transferring some or all cell types to fresh growth medium (which becomes necessary once a population of cells uses up all of the nutrients within the current supply of medium). This is a common method used to prolong the life and/or expand the number or cells in the culture.

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25
Q

What is the basic procedure of subpassaging?

A

a) Remove old media from cell culture flask.
b) Add buffer solution to rinse cells: does not contain any nutrient, but is used to wash off any residue from old media, since process used to detach cells may be affected by any media present.
c) Use trypsin (digestive enzyme) to disrupt proteins that stick the cells to the sides of the flask:
d) Put the flask in a 37C incubator for 3-4 minutes to allow trypsin to work at its optimal temperature. Don’t leave the cells in the trypsin for too long, or else you will remove the cell’s surface signaling proteins.
e) To arrest the trypsinization, add fresh culture medium - contains abundant protein to absorb the trypsin.
f) Remove all liquid from the flask and transfer to a centrifuge tube for low speed centrifugation.
g) Dump the supernatant (culture medium) and resuspend the cell pellet in fresh medium.
h) Take a portion of the resuspended cell culture and transfer it to a new flask with fresh medium.
i) Incubate at 37C to achieve adequate cell growth

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26
Q

What happens every time we subpassage a cell population?

A

Every time we subpassage a cell population, we start to lose the specialized cells in that population. If enough subpassages are performed, there will eventually be only primitive fibroblasts present in the culture. This resulting multi-passaged cell culture may not be as effective as the original primary cell culture for isolating “new” viruses, because all cell types are not present for exposure to the virus

27
Q

What are some examples of cell culture contamination?

A

Trypsin/Chemotrypsin

culture media contaminants

28
Q

How does trypsin/chemotrypsin contaminate the cell culture?

A

the enzymes used in cell culture procedures are commonly extracted from pig pancreas. If the enzymes are extracted from the pancreas of pigs that are infected with a virus (ex. porcine parvovirus, PPV), then the virus could in turn infect the cell culture.

29
Q

How does culture media get contaminated?

A

growth and maintenance media contains serum, which can serve as a source of contamination.
If the cell culture becomes contaminated during vaccine production, then there is potential to spread undesirable viruses/pathogens to animals that receive the vaccination

30
Q

Describe how cells can be preserved for future use:

A

When growing cells, you do not want to passage them repeatedly because they change a little bit each time and can accumulate mutations. After these mutations, the cells may not be as good to support a particular virus anymore. Therefore, cells can be preserved in small aliquots by storing them in the freezer. Any time they are needed, you can thaw a vial and expand them, then use and passage them a few times before throwing them away

31
Q

What is pyknosis?

A

cell shrinking

32
Q

What is syncytia formation?

A

cells merge together to form giant cells that are often accompanied by cytoplasmic strands

33
Q

what are nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions?

A

consist of accumulations of virus particles, OR viral proteins

Cytoplasmic inclusions – most common with RNA viruses

Nuclear inclusions – most common with DNA viruses

34
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to poxvirus and inculsions?

A

-Poxvirus: large DNA virus that causes cytoplasmic inclusions because it codes for everything it needs with its own genome and therefore does not need anything from the host cell nucleus – it is a DNA virus that is independent of the host cell nucleus.

35
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to CDV and inculsions?

A

-Canine distemper virus (CDV): RNA virus that causes intranuclear AND intracytoplasmic inclusions (characteristic of Morbilivirus genus of the Paramyxoviridae – other members include rinderpest virus, human measles virus).

36
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to Herpesvirus and inculsions?

A

Herpesvirus: nuclear inclusion bodies

-represent proteins that were left over after the process of assembly of the viruses (aka “used-up viral proteins)

37
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to Reovirus and inculsions?

A

Reovirus: RNA viruses – produce cytoplasmic inclusions that are typically found in close proximity to the nucleus  “perinuclear inclusions”
-depending on the virus, the inclusion bodies may consist of viral particles, OR of used-up viral proteins

38
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to Cowpox virus and inculsions?

A

Cowpox virus: huge cytoplasmic inclusions

39
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule when it comes to Rabies virus and inculsions?

A

Rabies virus: create cytoplasmic inclusions called Negri bodies

40
Q

Describe how inapparent virus infections of cells can be detected with specific examples

A

Inapparent virus infections (non-cytopathic virus infections) do not cause any visible indication of infection. Therefore, they must be detected using techniques other than simple microscopic visual examination.
FA – cytoplasmic fluorescence occurs in infected cells
Ex. BVD virus contains both cytopathic strains (CP) and non-cytopathic strains (NCP). The NCP strains must be identified via FA (or ELISA).

ELISA

41
Q

What is hemadsorption?

A

the ability of cells infected with an enveloped virus containing a hemagglutinin in its envelope to adsorb RBCs (as the virus reproduces within the cell, the HA are incorporated into the plasma membrane of the infected cell, resulting in adsorption of RBCs, a detectable phenomenon).
Ex. African swine fever virus, some paramyxoviruses

42
Q

Describe how virus is propagated and harvested in cells in culture?

A

Cells in culture are inoculated with an optimum concentration (titer) of virus with the goal of efficiently producing high titers of infectious virions. The inoculated culture is incubated and the virus undergoes the various stages of cell infection.

  • want to inoculate the cell culture at a concentration that will result in ~1 virion for every 5-10 cells.
    • *ratio of infective virions per cell = multiplicity of infection (MOI)
  • at a high MOI (10 or greater), lots of defective viral particles result d/t increased competition for host cell material and the resulting limited resources
43
Q

Describe the infectious virus clone (IVC).

A

The infectious virus clone is viral cDNA (cDNA = a copy of DNA that is synthesized from RNA) that represents the entire virus genome. This viral DNA representative is incorporated into a plasmid which can generate infectious virions when transfected into a host cell.
Plasmids are dsDNA (NOT ssDNA, NOT RNA…). Therefore, any piece of a genome that is going to be incorporated into a plasmid must also be dsDNA (because you cannot mix RNA & DNA together). Viruses that have either DNA or RNA genomes can be incorporated into a plasmid, but the process requires an additional step for RNA viruses

44
Q

Describe ss RNA as an example of for the IVC?

A

(RT). RT is RNA-dependent DNA polymerase which can convert the ssRNA poliovirus genome to dsDNA that represents that genome.

b) The plasmid is cut by restriction enzymes (RE) and opened up.
c) The viral cDNA is inserted into the plasmid.
d) Ligases are used to close up the plasmid containing the cDNA.
e) Result = a DNA plasmid that contains the viral genome: the infectious virus clone (IVC).

This system is very easy to use and is useful in virus studies because you can make changes in a virus genome and observe changes in the abilities of the virus – this is called site directed mutagenesis, an important tool that has been referred to as “the holy grail of virology”. For example, when changes were made to the viral genome,
a) did it attenuate virus progeny?
b) did the change affect a portion of the genome that is essential for replication?
….etc

45
Q

21) Describe how virus is produced by the IVC

A

Cells are inoculated with the IVC – the IVC gets into the cell and is expressed, enabling it to replicate within the cells. This leads to production of progeny virions, which can then exit the cell via budding or cell lysis

46
Q

Describe why the use of a “master cell seed” and a “master virus seed” is required for vaccine production

A

The “master cell seed” is a stored population of cells from the same source and the same passage level. This can supply a sample used for quick amplification (aka geometric expansion) of cells for use in vaccine production.
The master cell seed retains/promotes homogeneity of the cell population.
The “master virus seed” is created by thawing a vial of viral sample and expanding it to a level that is sufficient to inoculate all cells that have been produced for the purpose of vaccine production. It is important to have a master virus seed because you want to limit the number of cell passages performed on the virus to avoid mutations that could change the nature of that virus. For example, through a series of passages a virus could accumulate mutations that change it from a modified live virus to a virulent strain.
The master virus seed minimizes the possibility of mutations.

47
Q

Describe the different types of virus assays

A

Virus assays are required for pathogenesis studies, vaccine challenge studies, standardizing antigen content for serological assays, and determining virus titer for vaccines (the dose response curve).
There are two general types of assays: infection based VS. non-infection based

48
Q

What is an infection based viral assay?

A

measures titer of infectious virus

49
Q

What is a quantitative assay?

A

aka plaque assay, enumerative assay- infect monolayers with virus dilutions- each virion infects a single cell, replicates, and spreads to toher cells, the virus destroys cells as it spreads and grows, creating a clear area in the cell monolayer called a plaque.

the virus titer is expressed as PFU/mL becuase each plaque represents one virus

50
Q

Describe the protocol of a quantitative assay:

A

a) Do a serial 10 fold dilution on the sample of virus.
b) Take 1 mL from each tube that contains a specific dilution of the virus and inoculate cell monolayers – add the virus to the cell monolayer, allow it to attach.
c) Remove the inoculant from the plate/cell monolayer and replace it with maintenance medium. Add a thickening agent (agar) to prevent sloshing and disturbance of the cell monolayer and the plaques that are forming.
d) Fix the monolayers and stain them.

e) Count the plaques per 1 mL at each dilution.
a. Ex: LOOK @ THE MIDDLE PLATE (10-5 dilution), refer to 2nd diagram
i. The middle plate has 7 plaques, therefore the titer is 7 * 10-5
1. This means that in a 10-4 dilution, the titer is 70 * 10-4 (because you are increasing the titer by a factor of 10)

51
Q

What is a quantal assay?

A

“all or nothing” either virus present or not

titers are expressed as the reciprocal of the virus dilution that infects a given % of a virus indicator system

ex of virus indicator systems:

  • MID50 – animals – mice
  • EID50 – embryonated eggs (egg infected dose)
  • TCID50 – cells in culture (tissue culture infected dose)
52
Q

Describe the protocol for a quantel assay:

A

a) Serial 10 fold dilutions of virus are made in maintenance medium.
b) 0.1 mL of each dilution are added to wells in microtiter plates.
c) Cell suspensions are then added to each well and the plates are incubated at 37C to allow cell monolayers to form.
d) Wells containing virus will have CPE and will not form a cell monolayer. Wells with no virus will not have CPE and will form a cell monolayer.
e) The 50% endpoint is determined and the titer is calculated

53
Q

What is an EID system?

A

Performing similar studies as in the microtiter plate/tissue culture above, but instead using chick embryos.
Ex: IBV in chicks is characterized by stunting, hemorrhages, deformities of the feet & wings.
Looking at these dose dilutions and controls, what is the endpoint?
*at 10-6, 50% of the embryos show effects.
-if the inoculum was 0.1 mL, then there would be 1 EID50 in 0.1 mL of a 10-6 dilution, therefore there is 106 EID50s in the undiluted stock virus.
-to calculate titer in terms of EID50 / mL, we would multiply by a factor of 10 (0.1 mL  1 mL) and the titer would be 107 EID50 / mL.

54
Q

What do non-infection based assays measure?`

A

components of a virus

55
Q

define particle counts:

A

mix virus with latex beads, and examine via EM

if we know bead concentration, use a proportion to come up with a number

56
Q

IBV

A

infectious bronchitis virus

Family: Coronaviridae

Genus:

Clinical signs: Severe respiratory disease in young chickens with high mortality. Adults there is marked decrease in egg production and soft shelled/malformed eggs are laid when laying resumes

Species: chickens

Structure: enveloped, helical, ssRNA, club shaped

Transmission: respiratory

Unique info: One of the most important viral diseases for chickens; found world wide. Infectivity of this virus declines rapidly after 7 days

57
Q

Avian paramyxovirus

A

New Castle Disease

Family: Paramyxoviridae

Genus: Avulavirus

Clinical signs:

Species: just about every type of bird

Structure: here are different clinical signs based on the strains. 1) Viscerotropic velogenic, 2) neurotropic velogenic, 3) mesogenic 4) lentogenic 5) asymptomatic enteric. 1,2,3 are considered official Newcastles disease.

Transmission: Direct contact between birds, inhalation of aerosols or dust particles, or via ingestion of contaminated feed/water

Unique info: Gallid herpesvirus 1; Morbidity of this approaches 100%, while mortality is more around 50-70% for the virulent strains.

58
Q

ILT

A

Infectious Laryngotracheitis

Family: Herpesviridae

Genus:

Clinical signs: Most common in chickens 4-18 months of age; nasal and occular discharge with dyspnea, loud gaping and coughing, and depression. Pump handle respiration. Respiratory disease

Species: chickens/pheasants

Structure: enveloped, icosohedral, linear dsDNA

Transmission: Droplet and inhalation to respiratory tract, droplets to conjunctiva, or ingestion

Unique info: Gallid herpesvirus 1; Morbidity of this approaches 100%, while mortality is more around 50-70% for the virulent strains.

59
Q

Fowlpox virus

A

Family: Poxviridae

Genus: Avipoxvirus

Clinical signs: Cutaneous form: small papules on the comb, wattles, and around the beak. Wet form: infection of the mucous membranes of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, and sometimes trachea. Mortality for the wet form is significantly higher.

Species: chickens/turkeys

Structure: large oval/brick. dsDNA

Transmission: Transmission by arthropods, especially mosquitos, provides a pathway to different species of birds. Can also be transmitted via droplet

Unique info: High contagious for chickens/turkeys, rarely for pidgeons, and not at all for ducks and canaries

60
Q

Bovine papular stomatitis virus

A

Family: _____

Genus: _____

Clinical signs: _____

Species: _____

Structure: ____

Transmission: ____

Unique info: _____

61
Q

BVD

A

Family: Flaviviridae

Genus: Pestivirus

Clinical signs: Bovine viral diarrhea: acute infection of susceptible animals, pregnant cows infected may give birth to persistantly infected calves; Mucosal disease: sporadic disease that pops up in persistently infected animals

Species: cattle

Structure: Eveloped, + SS RNA, icosahedral symmetry.

Transmission: Postnatal infection: all ages are susceptible. Infection in pregnant cows: TP spread of the virus occurs. Persistent infection: mirrors the signs of BVD but with much greater severity and higher mortality

Unique info: There are two major genotypes that are recognized. Mucosal infection only occurs when there are 2 biotypes of the virus available.

62
Q

Bluetongue virus

A

Family: Reoviridae

Genus: Orbivirus

Clinical signs: Sheep: fever that lasts several days followed by the onset of hyperemia of the MM of the oral cavity, excess salivation, and frothing of the mouth. Severe cases will see the tongue become blue from cyanosis. Edema of head and neck is also common. Coronary bands exhibit hyperemia and may cause sheep to become recumbant. Oral lesions may cause animal to not eat.

Species: Certain breeds of sheep and certain wild ruminants. Can also be seen in dogs that received a bluetongue tainted vaccine.

Structure: Naked, multi-layer capside, DS segmented RNA

Transmission: Almost exclusively transmitted by different species of Culicoides (midges). Only become capable of transmitting the disease at a 7 day incubation period.

Unique info: nfection on all continents except Antarctica. Infections are also seen in cattle as a result from infection with a specific strain. Can cause hemorrhagic peracute death in WTD.

63
Q

PRV

A

Family: Herpesviridae

Genus: Herpesvirales

Clinical signs: Pregnant sows: abortions are common. Piglets: Mortality rates born to non-immune dams are close to 100%. Weaned/growing pigs: Pigs are coughing, sneezing, have hard dry fever. Will eventually progress to incoordination and muscle spasms with excess salivation. By the 6th day of infection they will become morbid and die

Species: Swine; Secondary hosts include: horses, sheep, goats, cattle, dogs, cats, and many feral species

Structure: Linear DS DNA, enveloped, icosahedral symmetry

Transmission: Virus is shed in saliva and nasal discharges; commonly spread to secondary hosts by ingestion of infected carcasses or virus-contaminated material

Unique info: Humans are refractory to an infection of this. Eradicated from domestic swine in many countries, but still present in some.