Lecture 2: Intraoperative procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the universal protocol for pre-op marking?

A
  1. Verify pt name, DOB, and procedure
  2. Mark operative site with a signature (not an X)
  3. Time out in OR prior to beginning procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long is an H&P good for (in regards to surgery)?

A

30 days

I wrote this in so its not actually on the slides lol just 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What occurs day of surgery in Pre-op?

A
  1. Check in
  2. Holding room to chart and check
  3. Anesthesiologist confirms surgery and anesthesia type
  4. Surgeon marks surgery site via universal protocol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What occurs in the operating room initially?

A
  1. Apply monitors
  2. Anesthesia induction
  3. O2 mask
  4. IV Drugs (opiods as “pre-treatment” agents)
  5. Anesthetic agonist (decreases HTN response during intubation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the anesthesia induction agents? and their side effects

A
  • Propofol (diprivan) = rapid onset, pain at injection site
  • Ketamine = CNS effects, hallucincations

Propofol=makes your Pressure FOll…get it??? foll,…drops BP (enochs trick)
Ketamine makes u KraZYyY (also enochs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MC muscle relaxant/neuromuscular blocker/paralytic for anesthesia?

A

Succinylcholine, except if you have malignant hyperthermia

Can cause postop myalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which anesthetic is usually used in children?

A

isoflurane

This is an inhaled anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • Pharmacogenetic disorder of skeletal muscle, as a hypermetabolic response to anesthesia.
  • Characterized by hyperthermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, increased O2 consumption, cyanosis, cardiac dysrhythmias, metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, muscle rigidity

Cannot use Succ or fluranes if a patient has this response!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is malignant hyperthermia treated?

A
  1. Dantrolene (prevent release of calcium)
  2. O2
  3. Body cooling/fluids
  4. Supportive care

If personal/FHx, flushing of anesthesia machine is done prior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 4 signs suggest malignant hyperthermia?

A
  1. Unexplained tachycardia
  2. Increased end tital CO2
  3. Increased body temp (above 38.8C)
  4. Masseter rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two agents can someone with malignant hyperthermia not use for anesthesia?

A
  • No inhaled anesthesia gases (-Fluranes)
  • No depolarizing muscle relaxants (Succinylcholine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the process of anesthesia induction.

A
  1. Preparation
  2. Preoxygenation 5 mins prior
  3. Pretreatment 3 mins prior
  4. Paralysis
  5. Protection 30 after
  6. Placement of ET tube 45s after
  7. Post-intubation management 60s after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can be done if an airway is difficult?

A
  • Cricoid pressure
  • Fiberoptic laryngoscope
  • GlideScope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is intubation placement confirmed?

A

Auscultation/condensation in tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 types of anesthesia?

A
  • Conscious sedation/MAC
  • Regional
  • General
  • Combined regional & general
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe MAC/conscious sedation

A
  • Monitoring without intubation
  • Common meds: Propofol, fentanyl, versed
  • Common with endoscopies and non-surgical procedures

AKA twilight anesthesia. Person has depressed LOC, but not asleep.

17
Q

Describe spinal/epidural anesthesia

A
  • Used for invasive surgeries of extremities
  • Done for waist/pelvic and below surgeries (C-section, bladder sling)
  • Meds: Lidocaine/Bupivacaine
18
Q

Where is a spinal anesthetic placed?

A

L3-L4 in subarachnoid space

inject anesthetic into CSF

19
Q

Where is an epidural injected?

A

Any point in vertebral column into epidural space

20
Q

What is an LMA?

A

Laryngeal mask airway (Not intubation)

21
Q

Is hypotension MC in a spinal or epidural anesthetic injection?

A

Spinal anesthesia

22
Q

What is a shared common symptom for both spinal and epidural anesthesia?

A

Backache

23
Q

Does spinal or epidural anesthesia have less SEs?

A

Epidural

24
Q

What complication is most severe in spinal anesthesia?

A

Cauda Equina syndrome

25
Q

When is spinal anesthesia CId?

A
  • Back abnormalities
  • Infections
26
Q

What are our local anesthetics?

A

lidocaine (with or without epi), bupivacaine

do not use epinephrine on distal end points

27
Q

What should NOT be used on distal extremities with local anesthesia?

A

Epinephrine

It can cause potent vasoconstriction

penis, nose, fingers, toes

28
Q

How is a digital block given?

A
29
Q

What can result from malpositioning a patient?

A

nerve injury

ie brachial plexus or ulnar nereve injury

30
Q

T/F Urinary catheter is placed once patient is asleep?

A

True! Urinary catheter is placed after patient is asleep and prior to final positioning