Lecture 2 - Gastric motility. Drugs affecting GI function Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 gastric contraction controlls?

A
  1. frequency
  2. force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are pacemaker cells located and what do they control?

A
  • smooth muscle cells in UPPER FUNDUS
  • rythmic, autonomous, partial depolarisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What rate do slow wave potentials sweep down stomach?

A
  • rate of 3/min
  • basic electrical rhythm (ber) of stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does a contraction occur?

A

when the
- slow wave exceeds resting membrane potential
- THREEEEEE peristalic waves / minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are force (neural) increased and decreased by?

A

increased - VAGAL activity
decreased - ADRENERGIC activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is force (hormonal) increased and decreased by?

A

increased- gastrin
decreased- secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the response to intake of food? (4)

A
  • waves of PERISTALTIC contraction through stomach
  • force contractions and ^ pressure in antrum
  • retropulsion of food against closed pylorus
  • mixing + grinding of food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe response to intake of food (receptors) (4)?

A
  • stretch receptors
  • activation of vagal inhibitory neurones
  • relaxation of smooth muscle
  • little change in pressure
    (RECEPTIVE RELAXATION)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinical term of vomiting and definition

A

EMESIS
- forceful evacuation of stomach contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give 2 stimulus for emesis

A
  • pain
  • repulsive sights/smells
  • emotional factors
  • endogenous toxins / drugs
  • stimuli from pharynx / stomach
  • motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are 2 centers controlling emesis?

A
  • vomiting centre
  • chemoreceptor trigger zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the neurotransmitter stimulus the control centres are sensitive to?

A
  • ACh
  • Histamine
  • 5-HT
  • Dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

example of necessary to stimulate vomiting?

A
  • toxin ingestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is ipecacuanha

A
  • locally acting in stomach
  • irritant effects of alkaloids emetine and cephaeline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give 4 examples of Anti-emetics

A
  1. H1 receptor antagonists
  2. muscarinic antagonists
  3. D2 receptor antagonists
  4. 5-HT3 antagonists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

give examples of 5-Ht3 antagonists (3)

A
  • cannabinoids
  • antipsychotics
  • steroid / neurokinin antagonists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

examples of H1 receptor antagonists

A
  • cyclizine
  • promethazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are H1 receptors antagonists most effective for?

A
  • motion sickness
  • given before sickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does h1 receptor antagonists act on?

A

vestibular nuclei not CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are ADVS effects H1 rec. ant. ?

A
  • mild
  • drowsiness and sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

example of muscarinic antagonists

A
  • hyoscine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

uses of Muscarinic antagonists

A

-motion sickness
- effective against vestibular apparatus stimuli and local gut stimuli

  • INEFFECTIVE ON CTZ stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ADVS effects of Muscarinic ant.

A

mild
- dry mouth
- burred vision
- sedation
LESS THAN H1 ant.

24
Q

examples of D2 receptor antagonists

A
  • metoclopramidine
  • phenothiazines (prochlorparazine)
25
uses of D2 receptor antagonists
- vomiting caused by renal failure - radiotherapy work centrally in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
26
ADVS effects of D2 receptor antagonists
- CNS effects (motor movement disorders- twitching, restlessness) - prolactin stimulation > menstrual disorders
27
examples of 5-HT3 antagonists ? (1)
Ondansetron
28
uses of 5-HT3 antagonists
- antiemetic chemotherapy - post surgery - primarily act on CTZ
29
when is 5-HT3 released in gut ?
-following endogenous toxins and chemotherapy drugs
30
ADVS effects 5-HT3 antagonoists ?
mild - headache , diarrhoea
31
definition of diarrhoea
passage of loose or watery stools at lease 3 times in 24 hours
32
On average an adult has just under ____ episode of diarrhoea per year
one
33
give 4 causes of diarrhoea
- viral - rotavirus - bacterial - campylobacter - systemic disease- inflammatory bowel disease - drug- induced antibiotics e.g. ERYTHROMYCIN
34
Describe mechanism of Anti-diarrhoeals (6)
- stim of OPIATE receptors in bowel - increase tone of smooth muscle - suppress propulsive peristalsis - raise sphincter tone at ileo-caecal value and anal sphincter - reduce sensitivity to rectal distension - resultant delay in passage of faeces through the gut / ^ water + electrolyte absorption in sml intest. + colon
35
give example of anti-diarrhoeals 2
opiod agonists - codeine, morphine
36
describe mechanism of action for opiod agonists (analgesiacs)
- activate mew receptors on myenteric neurons - causes hyperpolarisation > inhibition of ACh release - reduced bowel motility - tolerance + dependence
37
give 2 examples of synthetic opioid analogues
1. Loperamide (imodium) 2. diphenoxylate
38
mechanism of action for loperamide (imodium)
- binds to opiate receptors in gut wall - relatively free of CNS side effects
39
what is diphenoxylate combined with to discourage abuse ?
atropine
40
In Western populations ___% of people defaecate between 3 times a day and once every 3 days
90
41
Up to ___% of elderly people are constipated
20
42
> __ million prescriptions for laxatives written each year in UK In UK over __ medicines have constipation listed as a possible side effect
10 700
43
give the 4 types of laxatives
1. bulk forming agents 2. osmotic laxatives 3. stimulants 4. faecal softeners
44
how do osmotic laxatives work?
- act by osmosis to retail water in the bowel - softer bulkier poo
45
onset of action for osmotic laxatives
30 mins - rectal prep 2-5 hrs - magnesium salts 48 hrs for lactulose
46
side effects osomotic laxatives
- abdominal cramps - flatulence - electrolyte disturbance
47
give an example of bulk forming agents and what they contain?
e.g. Ispaghula - contain polysaccharide + cellulose components
48
what is Bulk forming agents onset of action? And what do they do?
12-36 hrs - must be taken with fluid - increase faecal bulk + stim peristalsis
49
side effects of Bulk forming agents
- flatulence + bloating
50
give an example of stimulant laxatives and the pathology
e.g. senna - directly stimulates colonic nerves reduces time of moving faecal mass
51
what is the onset of action and side effects of stimulant laxatives ?
OFA- 8-12 hrs - abdominal cramps - colonic atony with long term use
52
give an example of faecal softeners and what they are
e.g. Docusate sodium - non-ionic surfactant with stool sofening - reduces surface tension - ^ penetration of fluid into faecal mass - weak stimulant
53
2 types of inflammatory bowel disease and the difference
1. crohn's disease - affects entire gut 2. ulcerative colitis - affects only large bowel
54
characteristics of IBD
- cyclical bouts of diarrhoea constipation +/or abdominal pain
55
treatments for IBD
Glucocorticoids - oral or local (antiinflam) Aminosalicylates sulfasalazine - mechanism unknown immunosuppression - INFLiximab
56